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ISTQB Foundation Level - 500 questions

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500 Questions, simulation exam
milopz
Quiz by milopz, updated more than 1 year ago
milopz
Created by milopz about 9 years ago
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Question 1

Question
Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO
Image:
f170a6d9-e95b-471c-a7e8-4a4f4b3e7767 (image/png)
Answer
  • A. D, A, B, C.
  • B. A, B, C, D.
  • C. D, A, B.
  • D. A, B, C.

Question 2

Question
Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?: i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling the version of testware items. iii) Developing new testware items. iv) Tracking changes to testware items. v) Analysing the need for new testware items.
Answer
  • A. ii, iv and v.
  • B. ii, iii and iv.i
  • C. i, ii and iv.
  • D. i, iii and v.

Question 3

Question
Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?
Answer
  • A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
  • B. Initiating corrective actions.
  • C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
  • D. Measuring and analyzing results.

Question 4

Question
Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a walkthrough?
Answer
  • A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.
  • B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.
  • C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.
  • D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.

Question 5

Question
Q. 5: Where may functional testing be performed?
Answer
  • A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
  • B. At all test levels.
  • C. At all levels above integration testing.
  • D. At the acceptance testing level only.

Question 6

Question
Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?
Answer
  • A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.
  • B. To identify defects in any software work product.
  • C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.
  • D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.

Question 7

Question
Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?
Answer
  • A. Developers.
  • B. Analysts.
  • C. Testers.
  • D. Incident Managers.

Question 8

Question
Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?
Answer
  • A. The name and/or organisational position of the person raising the problem.
  • B. Version of the Software Under Test.
  • C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
  • D. Actual and expected results.

Question 9

Question
Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
Answer
  • A. Test case specification.
  • B. Test design specification.
  • C. Test procedure specification.
  • D. Test results.

Question 10

Question
Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers i) Performance testing tools. ii) Coverage measurement tools. iii) Test comparators. iv) Dynamic analysis tools. v) Incident management tools.
Answer
  • A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
  • B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.
  • C. ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
  • D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.

Question 11

Question
Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?
Answer
  • A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.
  • B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.
  • C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been fixed correctly.
  • D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do.

Question 12

Question
Q. 12: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
Answer
  • A. Test planning.
  • B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
  • C. Test closure.
  • D. Test control.

Question 13

Question
Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design?
Image:
b49055ba-0a86-43ba-bfa7-0b368da25648 (image/png)
Answer
  • A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
  • B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
  • C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
  • D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

Question 14

Question
Q. 14: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?
Answer
  • A. Measuring and analyzing results.
  • B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.
  • C. Identifying test conditions or test requirements.
  • D. Assessing if more tests are needed.

Question 15

Question
Q. 15: What is beta testing?
Answer
  • A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.
  • B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
  • C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location.
  • D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

Question 16

Question
Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage? if width > length then biggest_dimension = width if height > width then biggest_dimension = height end_if else biggest_dimension = length if height > length then biggest_dimension = height end_if end_if
Answer
  • A. 3
  • B. 4
  • C. 2
  • D. 1

Question 17

Question
Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code. if width > length then biggest_dimension = width else biggest_dimension = length end_if The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above. print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension print "Width: " & width print "Length: " & length How many more test cases are required?
Answer
  • A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.
  • B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage.
  • C. None, existing test cases can be used.
  • D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.

Question 18

Question
Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all equivalence partitions?
Answer
  • A. 15, 19 and 25.
  • B. 17, 18 and 19.
  • C. 18, 20 and 22.
  • D. 16, 26 and 32.

Question 19

Question
Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution?
Answer
  • A. Implementation and execution.
  • B. Planning and control.
  • C. Analysis and design.
  • D. Test closure.

Question 20

Question
Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?
Answer
  • A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
  • B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.
  • C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
  • D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

Question 21

Question
Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
Image:
584b5707-bc2b-4d4e-902c-0688a79f00f1 (image/png)
Answer
  • A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.
  • B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is 00.
  • C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 0 and excess is ,500.
  • D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is ,000.

Question 22

Question
Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be implemented?
Answer
  • A. During test planning.
  • B. During test analysis.
  • C. During test execution.
  • D. When evaluating exit criteria

Question 23

Question
Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ? i) Regression testing is run ONLY once ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made iii) Regression testing is often automated iv) Regression tests need not be maintained
Answer
  • A. ii, iv.
  • B. ii, iii.
  • C. i, iii, iv.
  • D. iii.

Question 24

Question
Q. 24: A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?
Answer
  • A. 5, 6, 20
  • B. 4, 5, 80
  • C. 4, 5, 99
  • D. 1, 20, 100

Question 25

Question
Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool? i) Investigate the organisation's test process. ii) Conduct a proof of concept. iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool.
Answer
  • A. i, ii, iii.
  • B. ii, iii, iv.
  • C. i, iii, iv.
  • iv.

Question 26

Question
Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?
Answer
  • A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
  • B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
  • C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
  • D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

Question 27

Question
Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test tools? i) Easy to access information about tests and testing. ii) Reduced maintenance of testware. iii) Easy and cheap to implement. iv) Greater consistency of tests.
Answer
  • A. ii and iv
  • B. ii and iii
  • C. i and iv
  • D. i and iii

Question 28

Question
Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to testing?
Answer
  • A. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.
  • B. Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has been produced.
  • C. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.
  • D. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests are designed early in response to review comments.

Question 29

Question
Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?
Answer
  • A. To define when a test level is complete.
  • B. To determine when a test has completed.
  • C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
  • D. To determine whether a test has passed.

Question 30

Question
Q. 30: What determines the level of risk?
Answer
  • A. The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.
  • B. The probability that an adverse event will occur.
  • C. The amount of testing planned before release of a system.
  • D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

Question 31

Question
Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY associated?
Answer
  • A. Tool support for performance and monitoring.
  • B. Tool support for static testing.
  • C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
  • D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.

Question 32

Question
Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment v) Writing test conditions.
Answer
  • A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
  • B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
  • C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
  • D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

Question 33

Question
Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements. 1.Decision Table Testing 2.Decision Testing 3.State Transition Testing 4.Exploratory Testing W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement structured testing. X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on current conditions or previous history. Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have been exercised during testing. Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.
Answer
  • A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
  • B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
  • C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
  • D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.

Question 34

Question
Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?
Answer
  • A. Black Box Techniques.
  • B. White Box Techniques.
  • C. Glass Box Techniques.
  • D. Experience Based Techniques.

Question 35

Question
Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?
Answer
  • A. Supporting reviews.
  • B. Validating models of the software.
  • C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
  • D. Enforcement of coding standards.

Question 36

Question
Q. 36: Which of the following types of defects is use case testing MOST LIKELY to uncover? i) Defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system. ii) Defects in the interface parameters in integration testing. iii) Integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different components. iv) Defects in the system as it transitions between one state and another.
Answer
  • A. ii, iii.
  • B. i, iii.
  • C. iii, iv.
  • D. i, ii

Question 37

Question
Q. 37: Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?
Answer
  • A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
  • B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
  • C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
  • D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.

Question 38

Question
Q. 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?
Answer
  • A. It does not require familiarity with the code.
  • B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
  • C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
  • D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

Question 39

Question
Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through the code. A. vwy B. vwz C. vxy D. vxz What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage?
Image:
90644123-fb03-4a3b-b038-c0391be3043a (image/png)
Answer
  • A. A
  • B. ABD
  • C. ABCD
  • D. ACD

Question 40

Question
Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box) techniques?
Answer
  • A. Test cases can be easily automated.
  • B. Test cases are independent of each other.
  • C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system .
  • D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

Question 41

Question
Q. 41: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component testing: i) Functional testing of the component in isolation. ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents. iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes. iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.
Answer
  • A. i and ii.
  • B. I, ii and iii
  • C. iii.
  • D. ii and iv

Question 42

Question
Q. 42: Which of the following is a purpose of the review planning phase?
Answer
  • A. Log defects.
  • B. Explain the documents to the participants.
  • C. Gather metrics.
  • D. Allocate the individual roles.

Question 43

Question
Q. 43: A defect arrival rate curve:
Answer
  • A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
  • B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
  • C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
  • D. Any of these, depending on the company.

Question 44

Question
Q. 44: Which is the best definition of complete testing:
Answer
  • A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
  • B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program.
  • C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
  • D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.

Question 45

Question
Q. 45: Complete statement and branch coverage means:
Answer
  • A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
  • B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
  • C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
  • D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

Question 46

Question
Q. 46: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):
Answer
  • A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
  • B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them.
  • C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs.
  • D. All of the above

Question 47

Question
Q. 47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
Answer
  • A. Deviations from standards,
  • B. Requirement defects,
  • C. Design defects,
  • D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
  • E. All of the above.

Question 48

Question
Q. 48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective
Answer
  • A. Identifying defects.
  • B. Fixing defects.
  • C. A. and B
  • D. None of the above

Question 49

Question
Q. 49: We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:
Answer
  • A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE branch.
  • B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's flow of control.
  • C. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
  • D. All of the above

Question 50

Question
Q. 50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
Answer
  • A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.
  • B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result.
  • C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
  • D. All of the above.

Question 51

Question
Q. 51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers):
Answer
  • A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
  • B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing.
  • C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
  • D. All of the above.

Question 52

Question
Q. 52: Poor software characteristics are
Answer
  • A. Only Project risks
  • B. Only Product risks
  • C. Project risks and Product risks
  • D. Project risks or Product risks

Question 53

Question
Q. 53: System testing should investigate
Answer
  • A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
  • B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
  • C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
  • D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

Question 54

Question
Q. 54: Contract and regulation testing is a part of
Answer
  • A. System testing
  • B. Acceptance testing
  • C. Integration testing
  • D. Smoke testing

Question 55

Question
Q. 55: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review
Answer
  • A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
  • B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
  • C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
  • D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off

Question 56

Question
Q. 56: Which is not the testing objectives
Answer
  • A. Finding defects
  • B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
  • C. Preventing defects.
  • D. Debugging defects

Question 57

Question
Q. 57: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality?
Answer
  • A. External failure
  • B. Internal failure
  • C. Appraisal
  • D. Prevention

Question 58

Question
Q. 58: Which is not the project risks
Answer
  • A. Supplier issues
  • B. Organization factors
  • C. Technical issues
  • D. Error-prone software delivered

Question 59

Question
Q. 59: Bug life cycle
Answer
  • A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
  • B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
  • C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
  • D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

Question 60

Question
Q. 60: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting
Answer
  • A. Moderator
  • B. Scribe
  • C. Reviewers
  • D. Author

Question 61

Question
Q. 61: ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one
Answer
  • A. 0,1,2,99
  • B. 1, 99, 100, 98
  • C. 0, 1, 99, 100
  • D. –1, 0, 1, 99

Question 62

Question
Q. 62: Which is not a testing principle
Answer
  • A. Early testing
  • B. Defect clustering
  • C. Pesticide paradox
  • D. Exhaustive testing

Question 63

Question
Q. 63: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?
Answer
  • A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
  • B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
  • C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
  • D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

Question 64

Question
Q. 64: The ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations
Answer
  • A. Alpha testing
  • B. Field testing
  • C. Performance testing
  • D. System testing

Question 65

Question
Q. 65: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality
Answer
  • A. ISO 1926
  • B. ISO 829
  • C. ISO 1012
  • D. ISO 1028

Question 66

Question
Q. 66: Which is not a black box testing technique
Answer
  • A. Equivalence partition
  • B. Decision tables
  • C. Transaction diagrams
  • D. Decision testing

Question 67

Question
Q. 67: Find the mismatch
Answer
  • A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
  • B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
  • C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
  • D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence

Question 68

Question
Q. 68: Use cases can be performed to test
Answer
  • A. Performance testing
  • B. Unit testing
  • C. Business scenarios
  • D. Static testing

Question 69

Question
Q. 69: Purpose of test design technique is
Answer
  • A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
  • B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
  • C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
  • D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases

Question 70

Question
Q. 70: One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion?
Answer
  • A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
  • B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
  • C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
  • D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.

Question 71

Question
Q. 71: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method
Answer
  • A. Heuristic testing approach
  • B. Methodical testing approach
  • C. Model based testing approach
  • D. Process or standard compliant testing approach

Question 72

Question
Q. 72: A software model that can’t be used in functional testing
Answer
  • A. Process flow model
  • B. State transaction model
  • C. Menu structure model
  • D. Plain language specification model

Question 73

Question
Q. 73: Arc testing is known as
Answer
  • A. Branch testing
  • B. Agile testing
  • C. Beta testing
  • D. Ad-hoc testing

Question 74

Question
Q. 74: The purpose of exit criteria is
Answer
  • A. Define when to stop testing
  • B. End of test level
  • C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
  • D. All of the above

Question 75

Question
Q. 75: The ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage
Answer
  • A. Boundary value analysis
  • B. Equivalence partitioning
  • C. Decision table testing
  • D. State transition testing

Question 76

Question
Q. 76: The __________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site
Answer
  • A. Unit testing
  • B. Regression testing
  • C. Alpha testing
  • D. Integration testing

Question 77

Question
Q. 77: What is the main purpose of Informal review
Answer
  • A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
  • B. Find defects
  • C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
  • D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

Question 78

Question
Q. 78: Which is not a Component testing
Answer
  • A. Check the memory leaks
  • B. Check the robustness
  • C. Check the branch coverage
  • D. Check the decision tables

Question 79

Question
Q. 79: The software engineer's role in tool selection is
Answer
  • A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
  • B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
  • C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
  • D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools

Question 80

Question
Q. 80: Which is not the fundamental test process
Answer
  • A. Planning and control
  • B. Test closure activities
  • C. Analysis and design
  • D. None

Question 81

Question
Q. 81: The ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products.
Answer
  • A. Tools and techniques
  • B. Procedures and standards
  • C. Processes and walkthroughs
  • D. Reviews and update

Question 82

Question
Q. 82: Which is not the software characteristics
Answer
  • A. Reliability
  • B. Usability
  • C. Scalability
  • D. Maintainability

Question 83

Question
Q. 83: The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths
Answer
  • A. L-N +2P
  • B. N-L +2P
  • C. N-L +P
  • D. N-L +P

Question 84

Question
Q. 84: FPA is used to
Answer
  • A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
  • B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
  • C. To measure the functional testing effort
  • D. To measure the functional flow

Question 85

Question
Q. 85: A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met
Answer
  • A. SDLC
  • B. Project Plan
  • C. Policy
  • D. Procedure

Question 86

Question
Q. 86: Which is not a test Oracle
Answer
  • A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
  • B. The code
  • C. Individual’s knowledge
  • D. User manual

Question 87

Question
Q. 87: PDCA is known as
Answer
  • A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
  • B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
  • C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
  • D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept

Question 88

Question
Q. 88: Which is the non-functional testing
Answer
  • A. Performance testing
  • B. Unit testing
  • C. Regression testing
  • D. Sanity testing

Question 89

Question
Q. 89: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following: i. Test Items ii. Test Scripts iii. Test Deliverables iv. Responsibilities
Answer
  • A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
  • B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
  • C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
  • D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

Question 90

Question
Q. 90: Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
Answer
  • A. Load Testing
  • B. Integration Testing
  • C. System Testing
  • D. Usability Testing

Question 91

Question
Q. 91: Which of the following is the task of a Tester? i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests. iv. Create the Test Specifications
Answer
  • A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
  • B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
  • C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
  • D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Question 92

Question
Q. 92: What can static analysis NOT find?
Answer
  • A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
  • B. Unreachable ("dead") code
  • C. Memory leaks
  • D. Array bound violations

Question 93

Question
Q. 93: White Box Techniques are also called as:
Answer
  • A. Structural Testing
  • B. Design Based Testin
  • C. Error Guessing Technique
  • D. Experience Based Technique

Question 94

Question
Q. 94: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
Answer
  • A. Test Analysis and Design
  • B. Test Implementation and execution
  • C. Test Closure Activities
  • D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 95

Question
Q. 95: Component Testing is also called as :- i. Unit Testing ii. Program Testing iii. Module Testing iv. System Component Testing .
Answer
  • A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
  • B. i,ii,iii,iv are false
  • C. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
  • D. all of above is true

Question 96

Question
Q. 96: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
Answer
  • A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
  • B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
  • C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
  • D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Question 97

Question
Q. 97: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:- i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author). ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations iii. Formal Follow up process. iv. Main Objective is to find defects
Answer
  • A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
  • B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
  • C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
  • D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

Question 98

Question
Q. 98: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order. i. Planning ii. Review Meeting iii. Rework iv. Individual Preparations v. Kick Off vi. Follow Up
Answer
  • A. i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
  • B. vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
  • C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
  • D. i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

Question 99

Question
Q. 99: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is :
Answer
  • A. System Level Testing
  • B. Integration Level Testing
  • C. Unit Level Testing
  • D. Component Testing

Question 100

Question
Q. 100: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-
Answer
  • A. Breadth Test and Depth Test
  • B. Re-testing
  • C. Confirmation Testing
  • D. Sanity Testing

Question 101

Question
Q. 101: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalance values which belong to the same class.
Answer
  • A. 12,16,22
  • B. 24,27,17
  • C. 22,23,24
  • D. 14,15,19

Question 102

Question
Q. 102: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
Answer
  • A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
  • B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
  • C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
  • D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.

Question 103

Question
Q. 103: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase
Answer
  • A. Creating test suites from the test cases
  • B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
  • C. Comparing actual results
  • D. Designing the Tests

Question 104

Question
Q. 104: Link Testing is also called as :
Answer
  • A. Component Integration testing
  • B. Component System Testing
  • C. Component Sub System Testing
  • D. Maintenance testing

Question 105

Question
Q. 105: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :- i. Manager ii. Moderator iii. Scribe / Recorder iv. Assistant Manager
Answer
  • A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
  • B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
  • C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
  • D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Question 106

Question
Q. 106: Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:
Answer
  • A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
  • B. Static testing includes desk checking
  • C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
  • D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

Question 107

Question
Q. 107: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase
Answer
  • A. Test Implementation and execution
  • B. Test Analysis and Design
  • C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
  • D. Test Closure Activities

Question 108

Question
Q. 108: A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.
Answer
  • A. Security Testing
  • B. Recovery Testing
  • C. Performance Testing
  • D. Functionality Testing

Question 109

Question
Q. 109: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.
Answer
  • A. Moderator.
  • B. Scribe
  • C. Author
  • D. Manager

Question 110

Question
Q. 110: The Test Cases Derived from use cases
Answer
  • A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
  • B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system
  • C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
  • D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

Question 111

Question
Q. 111: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
Answer
  • A. BOOK
  • B. Book
  • C. Boo01k
  • D. book

Question 112

Question
Q. 112: In a Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance values if the student clears the exam.
Answer
  • A. 22,23,26
  • B. 21,39,40
  • C. 29,30,31
  • D. 0,15,22

Question 113

Question
Q. 113: Verification involves which of the following :- i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
Answer
  • A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
  • B. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
  • C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
  • D. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

Question 114

Question
Q. 114: A Project risk includes which of the following :
Answer
  • A. Organizational Factors
  • B. Poor Software characteristics
  • C. Error Prone software delivered.
  • D. Software that does not perform its intended functions

Question 115

Question
Q. 115: Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through
Answer
  • A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
  • B. Pre Meeting Preparations
  • C. Formal Follow Up Process
  • D. Includes Metrics

Question 116

Question
Q. 116: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?
Answer
  • A. Statement Testing and coverage
  • B. Decision Testing and coverage
  • C. Condition Coverage
  • D. Boundary value analysis

Question 117

Question
Q. 117: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
Answer
  • A. Test Analysis and Design
  • B. Test Implementation and execution
  • C. Test Closure Activities
  • D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 118

Question
Q. 118: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to : i. Determine the test technique to be employed ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible. iv. Determine the cost of the project
Answer
  • A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
  • B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
  • C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
  • D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Question 119

Question
Q. 119: Incidents would not be raised against:
Answer
  • A. Requirements
  • B. Documentation
  • C. Test cases
  • D. Improvements suggested by users

Question 120

Question
Q. 120: The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :
Answer
  • A. Explaining the objectives
  • B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
  • C. Follow up
  • D. Individual Meeting preparations

Question 121

Question
Q. 121: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks? i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts. ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly. iv. Determining the exit criteria.
Answer
  • A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
  • B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
  • C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
  • D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Question 122

Question
Q. 122: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalance class
Answer
  • A. 17
  • B. 19
  • C. 24
  • D. 21

Question 123

Question
Q. 123: Exhaustive Testing is
Answer
  • A. Is impractical but possible
  • B. Is practically possible
  • C. Is impractical and impossible
  • D. Is always possible

Question 124

Question
Q. 124: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase
Answer
  • A. Test Analysis and Design
  • B. Test Planning and control
  • C. Test Closure Activities
  • D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 125

Question
Q. 125: Which one is not comes under international standard
Answer
  • A. IEC
  • B. IEEE
  • C. ISO
  • D. All of the above

Question 126

Question
Q. 126: In which phase static tests are used
Answer
  • A. Requirements
  • B. Design
  • C. Coding
  • D. All of the above

Question 127

Question
Q. 127: What's the disadvantage of Black Box Testing
Answer
  • A. Chances of having repetition of tests that are already done by programmer.
  • B. The test inputs needs to be from large sample space.
  • C. It is difficult to identify all possible inputs in limited testing time. So writing test cases is slow and difficult
  • D. All above

Question 128

Question
Q. 128: Static analysis tools are typically used by
Answer
  • A. Testers
  • B. Developers
  • C. Testers & Developers
  • D. None

Question 129

Question
Q. 129: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase
Answer
  • A. Requirements Phase.
  • B. Analysis and Design Phase
  • C. Development Phase
  • D. Testing Phase

Question 130

Question
Q. 130: The specification which describes steps required to operate the system and exercise test cases in order to implement the associated test design
Answer
  • A. Test Case Specification
  • B. Test Design Specification
  • C. Test Procedure Specification
  • D. None

Question 131

Question
Q. 131: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on maintenance.
Answer
  • A. 10%
  • B. 30%
  • C. 50%
  • D. 70%

Question 132

Question
Q. 132: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called
Answer
  • A. Regression testing
  • B. Maintenance testing
  • C. Confirmation testing
  • D. None of the above

Question 133

Question
Q. 133: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be developed.
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 134

Question
Q. 134: When to stop Testing?
Answer
  • A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
  • B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
  • C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
  • D. None above

Question 135

Question
Q. 135: With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prior to delivery to the customer.
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 136

Question
Q. 136: Structure is unknown for which type of development project
Answer
  • A. Traditional system development
  • B. Iterative development
  • C. System maintenance
  • D. Purchased/contracted software

Question 137

Question
Q. 137: ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be fixed
Answer
  • A. Severity
  • B. Priority
  • C. All of the above
  • D. None of the above

Question 138

Question
Q. 138: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the review,running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting
Answer
  • A. Reviewer
  • B. Author
  • C. Moderator
  • D. Auditor

Question 139

Question
Q. 139: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path and condition in the application system. The only test method that guarantees the proper functioning of the application system is called as _____________
Answer
  • A. Regression Testing
  • B. Exhaustive Testing
  • C. Basic Path Testing
  • D. Branch Testing

Question 140

Question
Q. 140: Quality Assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with the application standards and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 141

Question
Q. 141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified independent reviewer to detect defects.
Answer
  • A. Inspection.
  • B. Walkthrough.
  • C. Review
  • D. Non Conformance

Question 142

Question
Q. 142: Test Case are grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as
Answer
  • A. Test Harness
  • B. Test Suite
  • C. Test Cycle
  • D. Test Driver

Question 143

Question
Q. 143: Configuration and compatibility testing are typically good choices for outsourcing
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 144

Question
Q. 144: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing
Answer
  • A. Performance
  • B. Record/Playback
  • C. A. & B.
  • D. None

Question 145

Question
Q. 145: System Integration testing should be done after
Answer
  • A. Integration testing
  • B. System testing
  • C. Unit testing
  • D. Component integration testing

Question 146

Question
Q. 146: During this event the entire system is tested to verify that all functional information structural and quality requirements have been met. A predetermined combination of tests is designed that when executed successfully satisfy management that the system meets specifications
Answer
  • A. Validation Testing
  • B. Integration Testing
  • C. User Acceptance Testing
  • D. System Testing

Question 147

Question
Q. 147: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?
Answer
  • A. Unit, integration, system, validation
  • B. System, integration, unit, validation
  • C. Unit, integration, validation, system
  • D. None of the above

Question 148

Question
Q. 148: The goal of a software tester is to find bugs, find them as early as possible and make sure they get fixed.
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 149

Question
Q. 149: Beta testing is performed at developing organization's site where as Alpha testing is performed by people at their own locations.
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 150

Question
Q. 150: The principal attributes of tools and automation are
Answer
  • A. Speed & efficiency
  • B. Accuracy & precision
  • C. All of the above
  • D. None of the above

Question 151

Question
Q. 151: In ______ testing doesn't know anything about the sofware being tested; it just clicks or types randomly.
Answer
  • A. Random testing
  • B. Gorilla testing
  • C. Adhoc testing
  • D. Dumb monkey testing

Question 152

Question
Q. 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an application system is called
Answer
  • A. Checklist
  • B. Checkpoint review
  • C. Decision table
  • D. Decision tree

Question 153

Question
Q. 153: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function is operational is called
Answer
  • A. Black-box testing
  • B. Glass-box testing
  • C. Grey-box testing
  • D. White-box testing

Question 154

Question
Q. 154: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision directions executed by the test case designed is called
Answer
  • A. Condition coverage
  • B. Decision/Condition coverage
  • C. Decision Coverage
  • D. Branch coverage

Question 155

Question
Q. 155: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design specifications.
Answer
  • A. Test Summary report
  • B. Test Log
  • C. Test Incident Report
  • D. Test Script

Question 156

Question
Q. 156: Testing with out a real plan and test cases is called ---
Answer
  • A. Gorilla testing
  • B. Monkey testing
  • C. Adhoc testing
  • D. All of the above

Question 157

Question
Q. 157: Which rule should not be followed for reviews
Answer
  • A. Defects and issues are identified and corrected
  • B. The product is reviewed not the producer
  • C. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the result of the review
  • D. Each review has a clear predefined objective

Question 158

Question
Q. 158: Verification can be termed as 'Are we building the product right?"
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 159

Question
Q. 159: Which testing is used to verify that the system can perform properly when internal program or system limitations have been exceeded
Answer
  • A. Stress Testing
  • B. Load Testing
  • C. Performance Testing
  • D. Volume testing

Question 160

Question
Q. 160: Defects are recorded into three major purposes. They are: 1.To correct the defect 2.To report status of the application 3.To improve the software development process
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 161

Question
Q. 161: Drivers are tools used to control and operate tge software being testeD.
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 162

Question
Q. 162: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes
Answer
  • A. Programming standard violations
  • B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
  • C. Security vulnerabilities
  • D. All Above

Question 163

Question
Q. 163: EULA stands for
Answer
  • A. End Usability License Agreement
  • B. End User License Agreement
  • C. End User License Arrangement
  • D. End User License Attachment

Question 164

Question
Q. 164: ________is a very early build intended for limited distribution to a few key customers and to marketing for demonstration purposes.
Answer
  • A. Alpha release
  • B. Beta release
  • C. Test release document
  • D. Build

Question 165

Question
Q. 165: CAST stands for
Answer
  • A. Computer Aided Software Testing
  • B. Computer Aided Software Tools
  • C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
  • D. None

Question 166

Question
Q. 166: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates tge operating environment in any way is considered non-invasive
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 167

Question
Q. 167: Which test may not mimic real world situations
Answer
  • A. Functional testing
  • B. Structural Testing
  • C. All of the above
  • D. None of the above

Question 168

Question
Q. 168: _______ includes both Black box and White Box Testing features
Answer
  • A. Gray Box Testing
  • B. Hybrid Testing
  • C. A. & B.
  • D. None

Question 169

Question
Q. 169: Exhaustive testing is possible
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 170

Question
Q. 170: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for consistency and allow requirements to be prioritized and enable individual tests to be traceable to requirements, functions and features.
Answer
  • A. Incident management tools
  • B. Requirements management tools
  • C. Configuration management tools
  • D. None

Question 171

Question
Q. 171: The number of tests to test all control statements equals the cyclomatic complexity
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 172

Question
Q. 172: Boundary value analysis can only be used during white-box testing.
Answer
  • A. True
  • B. False

Question 173

Question
Q. 173: Which of these are objectives for software testing?
Answer
  • A. Determine the productivity of programmers
  • B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
  • C. Eliminate every error prior to release
  • D. Uncover software errors

Question 174

Question
Q. 174: Failure is _________
Answer
  • A. Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program
  • B. Bug found before product Release
  • C. Bug found after product Release
  • D. Bug found during Design phase

Question 175

Question
Q. 175: During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
Answer
  • A. When the code is complete.
  • B. When the design is complete.
  • C. When the software requirements have been approved.
  • D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Question 176

Question
Q. 176: "How much testing is enough?"
Answer
  • A. This question is impossible to answer
  • B. This question is easy to answer
  • C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
  • D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

Question 177

Question
Q. 177: Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
Answer
  • A. Data tester
  • B. Boundary tester
  • C. Capture/Playback
  • D. Output comparator.

Question 178

Question
Q. 178: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
Answer
  • A. Statement Coverage
  • B. Pole Coverage
  • C. Condition Coverage
  • D. Path Coverage

Question 179

Question
Q. 179: Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?
Answer
  • A. Defects
  • B. Trends analysis
  • C. Test Effectiveness
  • D. Time Spent Testing

Question 180

Question
Q. 180: Fault Masking is
Answer
  • A. Error condition hiding another error condition
  • B. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
  • C. Masking a fault by developer
  • D. Masking a fault by a tester

Question 181

Question
Q. 181: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
Answer
  • A. Functionality
  • B. Usability
  • C. Supportability
  • D. Maintainability

Question 182

Question
Q. 182: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
Answer
  • A. Lack of technical documentation
  • B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
  • C. Lack of training
  • D. Lack of Objectivity

Question 183

Question
Q. 183: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
Answer
  • A. Missing Statements
  • B. Unused Branches
  • C. Dead Code
  • D. Unused Statement

Question 184

Question
Q. 184: Given the Following program IF X <>= Z THEN Statement 2; END McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
Answer
  • A. 2
  • B. 3
  • C. 4
  • D. 5

Question 185

Question
Q. 185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
Answer
  • A. Stub
  • B. Driver
  • C. Proxy
  • D. None of the above

Question 186

Question
Q. 186: Pick the best definition of quality
Answer
  • A. Quality is job one
  • B. Zero defects
  • C. Conformance to requirements
  • D. Work as designed

Question 187

Question
Q. 187: Boundary value testing
Answer
  • A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
  • B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
  • C. Tests combinations of input circumstances
  • D. Is used in white box testing strategy

Question 188

Question
Q. 188: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004 The boundary values for testing this field are
Answer
  • A. 0,1900,2004,2005
  • B. 1900, 2004
  • C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
  • D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

Question 189

Question
Q. 189: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other: if (Condition 1) then statement 1 else statement 2 fi if (Condition 2) then statement 3 fi
Answer
  • A. 2 Test Cases
  • B. 3 Test Cases
  • C. 4 Test Cases
  • D. Not achievable

Question 190

Question
Q. 190: A common test technique during component test is
Answer
  • A. Statement and branch testing
  • B. Usability testing
  • C. Security testing
  • D. Performance testing

Question 191

Question
Q. 191: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
Answer
  • A. Takes minutes of the meeting
  • B. Mediates between people
  • C. Takes telephone calls
  • D. Writes the documents to be reviewed

Question 192

Question
Q. 192: Acceptance test cases are based on what?
Answer
  • A. Requirements
  • B. Design
  • C. Code
  • D. Decision table

Question 193

Question
Q. 193: Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
Answer
  • A. System testing
  • B. Usability testing
  • C. Performance testing
  • D. Both B & C

Question 194

Question
Q. 194: Independent Verification & Validation is
Answer
  • A. Done by the Developer
  • B. Done by the Test Engineers
  • C. Done By Management
  • D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

Question 195

Question
Q. 195: Defect Management process does not include
Answer
  • A. Defect prevention
  • B. Deliverable base-lining
  • C. Management reporting
  • D. None of the above

Question 196

Question
Q. 196: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Environment Fault 5) Documentation Fault
Answer
  • A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
  • B. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
  • C. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
  • D. All of them are valid reasons for failure

Question 197

Question
Q. 197: Test are prioritized so that:
Answer
  • A. You shorten the time required for testing
  • B. You do the best testing in the time available
  • C. You do more effective testing
  • D. You find more faults

Question 198

Question
Q. 198: When a new testing tool purchased, it should be used first by:
Answer
  • A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
  • B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
  • C. The independent testing team
  • D. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Question 199

Question
Q. 199: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
Answer
  • A. Execution
  • B. Design
  • C. Planning
  • D. Check Exit criteria completion

Question 200

Question
Q. 200: What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your country?
Answer
  • A. Does not meet people needs
  • B. Cultural difference
  • C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
  • D. Relinquishments of control
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