Question 1
Question
1 Why is it useful categorize networks by size when discussing network design?
Answer
-
Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many additional layers will be added to the three-tier hierarchical network design.
-
Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many multilayer switches will be necessary at the core layer.
-
A high-level redundancy at the access layer may be better implemented if the number of connected devices is know.
-
The complexity of networking infrastructure will vary according to the number of connected devices.
Question 2
Question
2 Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
-
NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
-
With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.
-
LCP tests the quality of the link.
-
LCP manages compression on the link.
Question 3
Question
3-What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?
Answer
-
fixed capacity
-
higher latency
-
less flexibility
-
higher cost
Question 4
Question
4-Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?
Answer
-
it assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.
-
it can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.
-
it enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.
-
it supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard.
Question 5
Question
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?
Answer
-
The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1
-
There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on Router2
-
The OSPF process is not running on Router2.
-
The serial interface on Router2 is down
Question 6
Question
6-The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?
Answer
-
VPN appliance
-
VPN concentrator
-
VPN client software
-
VPN gateway
Question 7
Question
7- A network administrator is troubleshooting the dynamic NAT that is configured on router R2. Which command can the administrator use to see the total number of active NAT translations and the number of addresses that are allocated from the NAT pool?
Answer
-
R2# show ip nat translation
-
R2# clear ip nat translation
-
R2# show running-config
-
R2# show ip nat statistics
Question 8
Question
8-Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer 2 PDU are used for congestion control? (Choose three.)
Question 9
Question
9-Which two statements correctly describe asymmetric encryption used with an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
The same encryption keys must be manually configured on each device.
-
Public key encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption.
-
Encryption and decryption use a different key
-
A shared secret key is used to perform encryption and descryption.
-
A shared secret key is used to perform encryption and descryption.
AES is an example of an asymmetric encryption protocol.
Question 10
Question
10-Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?
Answer
-
MPLS
-
ISDN
-
Ethernet WAN
-
Frame Relay
Question 11
Question
Place the options in the following order:
PAP Characteristics
[blank_start]uses two-way handshake[blank_end]
[blank_start]single challenge[blank_end]
[blank_start]weak authentication[blank_end]
[blank_start]clear text passwords[blank_end]
CHAP Characteristics
[blank_start]uses three-way handshake[blank_end]
[blank_start]repeated challenges[blank_end]
[blank_start]strong authentication[blank_end]
[blank_start]encrypted passwords[blank_end]
Answer
-
uses two-way handshake
-
single challenge
-
weak authentication
-
clear text passwords
-
uses three-way handshake
-
repeated challenges
-
strong authentication
-
encrypted passwords
Question 12
Question
12-Which command can be used to check the information about congestion on a Frame Relay link?
Answer
-
show frame-relay lmi
-
show interfaces
-
show frame-relay pvc
-
show frame-relay map
Question 13
Question
13-Which two statements describe remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
Client software is usually required to be able to access the network.
-
Remote access VPNs are used to connect entire networks, such as a branch office to headquarters.
-
Remote access VPNs support the needs of telecommuters and mobile users.
-
A leased line is required to implement remote access VPNs.
-
End users are not aware that VPNs exists.
Question 14
Question
14- Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilik PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)
Answer
-
Bind the multilink bundle to the Fast Ethernet interface.
-
Enable PPP encapsulation on the multilink interface.
-
Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.
-
Create and configure the multilink interface.
-
Assign the Fast Ethernet interface to the multilink bundle.
-
Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.
Question 15
Question
15-What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
incorrect interface clock rates
-
late collisions and jabber
-
framing errors
-
electromagnetic interface
-
encapsulation errors
Question 16
Question
16- What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?
Question 17
Question
17- What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?
Answer
-
The host must be connected to wired network.
-
A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.
-
A web browser must be installed on the host.
-
VPN client software must be installed.
Question 18
Question
18-Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the configuration in the displayed output. What is missing from the configuration that would be preventing OSPF routing updates from passing to the Frame Relay service provider?
Answer
-
The command to disable split horizon has not been issued.
-
The passive-interface command has not been issued on interface serial 0/1/0
-
The directly connected neighbor should have been identified by using static mapping.
-
The broadcast keyword has not been issued.
Question 19
Question
19-Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring NAT to provide Internet access to the inside network. After the configurtation is completed, users are unable to access the internet. What is the cause of the problem?
Answer
-
The inside and outside interfaces are backwards.
-
The ACL is referencing the wrong network address.
-
The NAT inside source command is referring to the wrong ACL.
-
The NAT pool is using an invalid address range.
Question 20
Question
20 - A company connects to one ISP via multiple connections. What is the name given to this type of connection?
Answer
-
multihomed
-
single-homed
-
dual-multihomed
-
dual-homed
Question 21
Question
21-Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
-
The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 miliseconds.
-
This host does not have a default gateway configured.
-
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
-
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
Question 22
Question
22-A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
What is the effect of these commands?
Answer
-
The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent
-
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.
-
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
-
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.
Question 23
Question
23- Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax technology?
Answer
-
802.5
-
802.11
-
802.16
-
802.3
Question 24
Question
24-Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported by NetFlow collectors? (Choose three.)
Answer
-
accounting
-
network monitoring
-
error correction
-
bandwidth regulation
-
quality of service
-
billing
Question 25
Question
25-Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?
Answer
-
NAT overload
-
dynamic NAT
-
port forwarding
-
PAT
Question 26
Question
27-What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to send critical logging events?
Answer
-
syslog server
-
virtual terminal
-
console port
-
auxiliary port
Question 27
Question
28 - In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic, but only gather traffic statistics?
Answer
-
SNMP agent
-
NetFlow collector
-
syslog server
-
NMS
Question 28
Question
29-What is a characteristic of Frame Relay that allows customer data transmissions to dynamically “burst” over their CIR for short periods of time?
Answer
-
The combination of LMI status messages and Inverse ARP messages enables the CIR to be exceeded.
-
The physical circuits of the Frame Relay network are shared between subscribers and there may be times when unused bandwidth is available.
-
BECN and FECN messages notify the router that the CIR can be exceeded.
-
Bursting is enabled by the configuration of multiple subinterfaces on one physical interface.
Question 29
Question
30-Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?
Answer
-
GET response
-
SET request
-
GET request
-
Trap
Question 30
Question
31 Which statement is a characteristic of SNMP MIBs?
Answer
-
The SNMP agent uses the SNMP manager to access information within the MIB.
-
The MIB structure for a given device includes only variables that are specific to that device or vendor.
-
The MIB organizes variables in a flat manner.
-
The NMS must have access to the MIB in order for SNMP to operate properly.
Question 31
Question
32-What benefit does NAT64 provide?
Answer
-
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses
-
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
-
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure form hosts on public IPv4 networks.
-
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
Question 32
Question
33-What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?
Answer
-
The user can select the upload and download rates based on need.
-
The download and upload rates are the same.
-
The upload rate is faster than the download rate.
-
The download rate is faster than the upload rate.
Question 33
Question
34 - The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay circuit is to be manually added on a point-to-point link. Which three subinterface commands could be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)
Answer
-
frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci
-
frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci broadcast
-
no shutdown
-
ip address ip-address mask
-
encapsulation farme-relay
-
bandwidth kilobits
-
frame-relay interface dlci dlci
Question 34
Question
35- A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necesary information? (Choose three.)
Question 35
Question
36- Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to use SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:
R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3
Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?
Answer
-
The snmp-server community command needs to include the rw keyword.
-
The snmp-server location command is missing.
-
There is a problem with the ACL configuration.
-
The snmp-server enable traps command is missing
Question 36
Question
37- Which broadband technology would be best for a small office that requires fast upstream connections?
Answer
-
DSL
-
Cable
-
fiber-to-the-home
-
WiMax
Question 37
Question
38- Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200. What will be the inside global address of packets from PC-A after they are translated by R1?
Answer
-
192.168.0.1
-
172.16.0.1
-
209.165.200.225
-
10.0.0.1
-
192.168.0.200
Question 38
Question
39 What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end user?
Answer
-
remote access
-
public
-
site-to-site
-
private
Question 39
Question
40-Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
-
uses RF signal transmission
-
users are on a shared medium
-
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
-
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
Question 40
Question
41-Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result of the configuration shown on R1? (Choose three.)
Answer
-
Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be monitored.
-
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 or lower.
-
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.168.1.5 as the destination IP address.
-
The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface.
-
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher.
-
For multiple occurrences of the same error, only the first three messages will be sent to the server.
Question 41
Question
42-Which two characteristics describe time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned time slots.
-
Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to transmit.
-
Encoding technology provides high data throughput in a minimum RF spectrum by supporting parallel data transmission.
-
Data capacity across a single link increases as bits from multiple sources are transmitted using interleaved slices of time.
-
Depending on the configured layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or more channels via the use of time slots.
Question 42
Question
43 Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)
Question 43
Question
44- Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?
Answer
-
when its employees become distributed across many branch locations.
-
when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN.
-
when the network will span multiple buildings.
-
when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN-
Question 44
Question
45-Which algorithm is considered insecure for use in IPsec encryption?
Question 45
Question
46- What is one advantage to designing networks in bulding block fashion for large companies?
Question 46
Question
47- Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to support teleworker remote connections? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
CMTS
-
VPN
-
CDMA
-
IPsec
-
DOCSIS
Question 47
Question
48- A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The lead network engineer confirms connectivity between users in the branch office, but none of the users can access corporate headquarters. System logs indicate that nothing has changed in the branch office network. What should the engineer consider next to resolve this network outage?
Answer
-
The network technician for the branch office should troubleshoot the switched infrastructure.
-
The server administrator in the branch office should reconfigured the DHCP server.
-
The service provider for the branch office should troubleshoot the issue starting from the point of demarcation.
-
The system administartor in the branch office should reconfigure the default gateway on the user PCs.
Question 48
Question
49- Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical interface of the CORP router?
Answer
-
10.1.1.1
-
209.165.202.134
-
10.1.1.2
-
209.165.202.133
Question 49
Question
50 How many 64 kb/s voice channels are combined to produce a T1 line?
Question 50
Question
51-Which network module maintains the resources that employees, partners, and customers rely on to effectively create, colaborate, and interact with information?
Answer
-
services
-
access-distribution
-
data-center
-
enterprise edge
Question 51
Question
52 Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?
Question 52
Question
53- A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP can only supply five public IP addresses for this network. What technology can the administrator use to accomplish this task?
Answer
-
classless interdomain routing
-
variable length subnet masks
-
classful subnetting
-
port-based Network Address Translation
Question 53
Question
54 - What is the purpose of a message hash in a VPN connection?
Answer
-
It ensures that the data is coming from the correct source.
-
It ensures that the data cannot be duplicated and replayed to the destination.
-
It ensures that the data has not changed while in transit.
-
It ensures that the data cannot be read in plain text.
Question 54
Question
55- Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
Answer
-
DNS
-
Telnet
-
HTTP
-
ICMP
-
IPsec
Question 55
Question
56- Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?
Answer
-
network configuration files
-
syslog records and messages.
-
debug output and packet captures
-
the network performance baseline
Question 56
Question
57 - What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose three.)
Answer
-
mature technology
-
QoS support using the IP precedence field
-
integrated encryption
-
one physical interface that can be used for several circuits
-
reasonable cost
-
seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN
Question 57
Question
58- What type of information is collected by Cisco NetFlow?
Answer
-
interface errors
-
traffic statistics
-
memory usage
-
CPU usage
Question 58
Question
59- Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?
Answer
-
dialup ISDN modem
-
T1
-
DSL
-
dialup analog modem
Question 59
Question
60- Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
packet-switched
-
private infrastructure
-
public infrastructure
-
Internet
-
dedicated
Question 60
Question
61- What are three characteristics of the generic routing encapsulation (GRE) protocol? (Choose three.)
Answer
-
GRE tunnels support multicast traffic.
-
GRE creates additional overload for packets that are traveling through the VPN.
-
GRE uses AES for encryption unless otherwise specified
-
By default, GRE does not include any flow control mechanisms.
-
Developed by the IETF, GRE is a secure tunneling protocol that was designed for Cisco routers.
-
GRE provides encapsulation for a single protocol type that is traveling through the VPN.
Question 61
Question
62- An intercity bus company wants to offer constat Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
cellular
-
dedicated
-
private infrastructure
-
circuit-switched
-
public infrastructure
Question 62
Question
63- What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?
Answer
-
syslog server
-
terminal line
-
workstation
-
console line
Question 63
Question
64- Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1. H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not be able to successfully ping H4 and H5?
Answer
-
The link between router R1 and switch S2 has failed.
-
Host H1 does not have a default gateway configured.
-
Router R1 does not have a route to the destination network.
-
Hosts H4 and H5 are members of a different VLAN than host H1.
-
Switch S1 does not have an IP address configured.
Question 64
Question
65- Which troubleshooting tool would a network administration use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?
Answer
-
Knowledge base
-
CiscoView
-
baselining tool
-
protocol analyzer
Question 65
Question
66-Which structured engineering desing principle ensures that the network reamins available even under abnormal conditions?
Answer
-
resiliency
-
hierarchy
-
flexibility
-
modularity
Question 66
Question
67-Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?
Answer
-
Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN
-
Remote access VPN using IPsec
-
Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL
-
Frame Relay
-
site-to-siteVPN
Question 67
Question
68- A team of engineers has identified a solution to a significant network problem. The proposed solution is likely to affect critical network infrastruture components. What should the team follow while implementing the solution to avoid interfering with other processes and infrastruture?
Answer
-
suslog messages and reports
-
one of the layered troubleshooting approaches
-
change-control procedures
-
knowledge base guidelines
Question 68
Question
69 - Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
Answer
-
NAT is required for the host A network.
-
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
-
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
-
The router has an incorrect gateway.
-
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Question 69
Question
70-Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands? (Choose two.)
Answer
-
R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is entered.
-
R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server.
-
The syslog server has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.10
-
R1 will reset all the warnings to clear the log.
-
R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM
Question 70
Question
71-What is a Frame Relay feauture that supports the IP address-to-DLCI dynamic mapping?
Answer
-
FECN
-
Inverse ARP*
-
ARP
-
BECN
Question 71
Question
72- What term is used to identify the point where the customer network ends and the service provider network begins?
Answer
-
the central office
-
CSU/DSU
-
the local loop
-
the demarcation point
Question 72
Question
73- What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?
Answer
-
syslog server
-
console line
-
terminal line
-
workstation
Question 73
Question
74- A small remote office needs to connect to headquarters through a secure IPsec VPN connection. The company is implementing the Cisco Easy VPN solution. Which Cisco Easy VPN component needs to be added on the Cisco router at the remote office?
Answer
-
Cisco AnyConnect
-
Cisco Easy VPN Server
-
Cisco Easy VPN Remote
-
Cisco VPN Client
Question 74
Question
75- Which scenario would require the use of static NAT?
Answer
-
when an internal corporate web server needs to be accessed from a home network
-
when there are more internal private IP addresses than available public IP addresses
-
when all public IP addresses have been exhausted
-
when an IPv4 site connects to an IPv6 site
Question 75
Question
76- An organization has purchased a Frame Relay service from a provider. The service agreement specifies that the access rate is 512 kbps, the CIR is 384 kbps, and the Bc is 32 kbps. What will happen when the customer sends a short burst of frames above 450 kbps?
Answer
-
The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 1 and are most likely forwarded.
-
The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 0 and are most likely forwarded.
-
The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 0 and are allowed to pass.
-
The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 1 and are most likely dropped.