1. Who designs fire detection and alarm systems? (446)
A. Fire marshals
B. Code inspectors
C. Building engineers
D. Fire protection engineers
2. Which of the following components of a fire detection and alarm system is responsible for processing signals from detection devices and transmitting them to alerting devices? (447)
A. Smoke alarm
B. Power supply
C. System device
D. Fire alarm control panel (FACP)
3. Which of the following statements regarding a fire detection and alarm system dedicated branch circuit is MOST accurate? (448)
A. It must be easily accessible.
B. It must be marked in orange.
C. It must be mechanically protected.
D. It must be permanently identified as DEDICATED CIRCUIT.
4. A secondary power supply must be able to make the system fully operational within how long of the main supply’s failure? (448)
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 2 minutes
5. Which of the following statements regarding system devices is LEAST accurate? (449-450)
A. They may be manual.
B. They may be activated by flame.
C. They may send a signal to the FACP by computer line.
D. They may utilize signaling devices such as strobe lights.
6. Which of the following statements regarding automatic alarm-initiating devices is LEAST accurate? (451-452)
A. They may detect both heat and smoke.
B. They continuously monitor the atmosphere of a structure.
C. Devices send a signal to the FACP when atmospheric changes are detected.
D. Smoke detectors are the only device that will not activate due to excessive moisture.
7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fixed-temperature heat detectors? (452)
A. They are very expensive.
B. They are the slowest type to activate.
C. They are among the oldest in service.
D. They are the least prone to false activations.
8. Which of the following statements regarding fixed-temperature heat detectors is MOST accurate? (452)
A. They must be coded with pictographs.
B. They must be marked with listed operating temperatures.
C. They use one of five primary principles of physics to detect heat.
D. They must be placed in areas where heat is not likely to accumulate.
9. Which of the following components of fixed-temperature heat detectors holds a spring device in the detector in an open position? (453)
A. Fusible link
B. Wire clamp
C. Bimetallic strip
D. Frangible bulb
10. In which of the following types of fixed-temperature heat detectors can two types of metal with different heat-expansion ratios be found? (454)
A. Duoburn
B. Bimetallic
C. Continuous-line
D. Fragmented-line
11. In which of the following types of fixed-temperature heat detectors is conductive metal core cable sheathed in stainless steel tubing? (454)
12. Rate-of-rise heat detectors: (456)
A. are unreliable.
B. are manually reset.
C. often falsely activate due to the presence of toxic gases.
D. send a signal when rise in temperature exceeds a set amount.
13. Which of the following types of heat detectors is not self-contained and includes a flexible diaphragm that responds to an increase in pressure from tubing? (456)
A. Rate-compensation
B. Electronic spot-type
C. Pneumatic rate-of-rise line
D. Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot
14. Which of the following types of heat detectors has alarm wiring that extends from the detector to the FACP and includes a flexible diaphragm that responds to an increase in pressure from tubing? (456)
15. Which of the following types of heat detectors is used in areas subject to regular temperature changes at rates slower than those of fire conditions? (456)
16. Which of the following types of heat detectors consists of one or more thermistors and produces a marked change in resistance when exposed to heat? (457)
17. Which of the following statements regarding smoke detectors is MOST accurate? (458)
A. Their performance is affected by few factors.
B. They sense fire more slowly than heat-detection devices.
C. They are tested and listed by third-party testing services.
D. They may respond to differing fire tests based on authority having jurisdiction (AHJ).
18. Which of the following types of smoke detectors works on all types of fires and is best suited for living rooms and bedrooms? (458)
A. Ionization
B. Low-flame
C. High-heat
D. Photoelectric
19. Which application of smoke detectors uses a beam of light focused across a monitored area onto a photoelectric-receiving device? (459)
A. Reflectory
B. Refractory
C. Mirrored-beam
D. Projected-beam
20. Which application of smoke detectors uses a beam of light from a light-emitting diode that passes through a small chamber at a point distant from the light source? (459)
21. Which of the following types of smoke detectors responds more quickly to flaming fires? (461)
22. Which of the following types of light is NOT detected by flame detectors? (462)
A. Infrared
B. Ultraviolet
C. Infrared and pulsed
D. Ultraviolet and infrared
23. Which of the following statements regarding flame detectors is MOST accurate? (462)
A. They are the slowest to respond to fires.
B. They are not easily tripped by nonfire conditions.
C. They must be placed in areas where triggers are limited.
D. They may be positioned out of the way of the protected area.
24. Infrared wave spectrum (IR) detectors are designed to respond to 1 square foot (0.09 m2) of fire from a distance of ___ feet (m). (463)
A. 25 (7)
B. 50 (16)
C. 75 (23)
D. 100 (30)
25. Which of the following statements regarding fire-gas detectors is LEAST accurate? (463)
A. They may monitor carbon dioxide.
B. They operate faster than a heat detector.
C. They operate faster than a smoke detector.
D. They may use semiconductors to sense a particular gas.
26. Which of the following is NOT a type of combination detector? (464)
A. Heat/smoke
B. Smoke/fire-gas
C. Fixed rate/smoke
D. Fixed rate/rate-of-rise
27. Which of the following statements regarding water-flow devices is LEAST accurate? (464)
A. They may notify the FACP.
B. They are manual initiating devices.
C. They activate a gong when water begins flowing.
D. They are required on automatic sprinkler systems.
28. Which of the following statements regarding tamper switches is MOST accurate? (464)
A. They monitor secondary shutoff valves.
B. They are supervised by automatic sprinkler systems.
C. They monitor air pressure in wet-pipe sprinkler systems.
D. They report to the FACP when the main water shutoff valve is closed.
29. How should manual alarm-initiating devices be marked? (464)
A. White with red lettering
B. Red with white lettering
C. Orange with black lettering
D. Yellow with orange lettering
30. According to NFPA® 72, manual alarm-initiating devices should have a travel distance not exceeding how far? (464)
A. 100 feet (30 m)
B. 150 feet (45 m)
C. 200 feet (60 m)
D. 250 feet (75 m)
31. Which of the following statements regarding manual alarm-initiating devices is MOST accurate? (464)
A. Breakable glass must surround the device.
B. Multistory facilities should have at least one per floor.
C. They are intended for use when buildings are unoccupied.
D. They are required in all structures with automatic sprinkler systems.
32. In which of the following types of manual pull station devices does a lever move into alarm position and send a signal to the FACP when the station lever is pulled? (466)
A. Multi-action
B. Triple-action
C. Single-action
D. Double-action
33. In which of the following types of manual pull station devices does the operator lift a cover to access the alarm control? (466)
34. Which of the following statements regarding fire-alarm signaling systems is LEAST accurate? (467)
A. They may be complex.
B. They may include central station systems.
C. Their requirements are contained in NFPA® 72.
D. Their purpose is to alert entire neighborhoods of a problem.
35. Which of the following is NOT a major type of fire-alarm signaling system? (467)
A. Proprietary system
B. Full coverage system
C. Remote receiving system
D. Protected premises system
36. Which of the following statements about a protected premises alarm system is MOST accurate? (467)
A. It must be manually activated.
B. It must have outside supervision.
C. It may perform off-site reporting.
D. It can activate other auxiliary services.
37. Which of the following types of protected premises systems sounds all fire alarms the same regardless of the location of the initiating device? (468)
A. Limited alarm
B. Addressable alarm
C. Noncoded local alarm
D. Zoned/annunciated alarm
38. Which of the following types of protected premises systems enables responders to quickly identify the general location of a fire? (469)
39. Which of the following types of protected premises systems ensures that responders can pinpoint the specific activated device and reduces time taken to respond to emergencies? (470)
40. Which of the following statements regarding auxiliary fire alarm systems is MOST accurate? (470)
A. They are rarely connected to municipal fire alarm systems.
B. Their alarms cannot be transmitted to a public fire telecommunications center.
C. Their alarms are significantly different than those transmitted over manual fire alarm boxes.
D. They are connected to a municipal fire alarm system and are the same as those transmitted over manual fire alarm boxes.
41. Which of the following types of auxiliary fire alarms has its own power source? (470)
A. Shunt
B. Transmitting
C. Local energy
D. Independent
42. Which of the following types of auxiliary fire alarms depends upon the municipal system’s source of power? (470)
43. Which of the following types of systems has a receiving point located outside the protected premises and monitored by a contracted service? (472)
A. Auxiliary
B. Proprietary
C. Central station
D. Remote receiving
44. Which of the following types of systems is connected directly to the fire department telecommunications center through a leased telephone line or other means? (472)
A. Standard
45. Which of the following types of systems protects large commercial and industrial buildings, with a receiving point on-site but remote from hazardous operations? (471)
46. Which of the following types of systems has the ability to transmit a trouble signal to a remote site when the system is impaired? (472)
47. Which of the following types of systems is most commonly connected by dedicated phone lines and sells services to many customers? (472)
48. Which of the following statements regarding emergency voice/alarm communications systems is MOST accurate? (473)
A. They are unreliable.
B. They must be stand-alone.
C. They are a primary type of system.
D. They may be integrated directly into the overall system.
49. Which of the following types of emergency voice/alarm communications systems allows people at other locations inside a building to communicate with the main control station? (473)
A. One-way
B. Two-way
C. Three-way
D. Integrated
50. Which of the following statements regarding parallel telephone systems is LEAST accurate? (474)
A. They are not often found today.
B. They are increasing in popularity.
C. They are not to be used for any other purpose.
D. They include a dedicated phone line between each alarm box.
51. Which of the following statements regarding service testing and periodic inspection of detection and alarm systems is MOST accurate? (477)
A. All tests must be witnessed by the fire department.
B. Testing intervals are uniform throughout all jurisdictions.
C. They should receive annual inspections by the manufacturer.
D. They should receive general inspections by the building owner.
52. How often should nickel-cadmium and sealed lead-acid batteries be inspected? (477)
A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Semiannually
D. Annually
53. How should all equipment be cleaned to be sure no foreign materials are present? (477)
A. With a dry cloth
B. With a vacuum cleaner
C. With a chlorine solution
D. With a pressure washer
54. Which of the following statements regarding testing and inspection of alarm-initiating devices is LEAST accurate? (478)
A. Inspectors may witness their activation to ensure operability.
B. They should be sent to a testing laboratory if they are obviously corroded.
C. They must be in working order or the entire system is ineffective.
D. Inspections should only be performed prior to installation and annually thereafter.
55. Which of the following is NOT an item to check when testing and inspecting alarm-initiating devices? (478)
A. Unobstructed access
B. Easy operation of units
C. Loosely closed unit housing
D. Replacement of impaired glass
56. How many years should records of testing and inspection of alarm-initiating devices be kept? (478)
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
57. What percentage of nonrestorable fixed-temperature detectors should be laboratory tested at the proper time? (479)
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
58. How many detectors on each signal circuit of a restorable heat detection device should be tested semiannually? (479)
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
59. How often should replaceable links on fusible link detectors be checked? (479)
60. How often should smoke detectors be sensitivity tested after the first year of service? (479)
A. Every year
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 3 years
D. Every 4 years
61. Which of the following statements regarding FACPs is MOST accurate? (479-480)
A. Occasional sticking is expected and may be excused.
B. At least one complete round of printed signals should be clearly visible.
C. At least two complete rounds of printed signals should be clearly visible.
D. The time stamp should indicate the time of signal within 75 percent accuracy.
62. How often should supervisory equipment be tested? (480)
A. Weekly
B. Biweekly
C. Monthly
D. Bimonthly
63. How often should manual fire alarm devices be tested? (480)
B. Semiannually
C. Annually
D. Biannually
64. How often should all parts of auxiliary fire-alarm systems be checked to ensure working order? (480)
65. How often should fire-detection components of remote station and proprietary systems be checked? (480)
