a) The space segment the user segment and the ground segment

b) A ground segment and the INMARSAT geostationary satellites

c) A master control station, a back-up control station and five monitoring stations

d) A master control station, a back-up control station, five monitoring station and the INMARSAR geostationary satellites

a) Wgs90

b) Pz90

c) Wgs84

d) Pz84

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

a) 12

b) 21

c) 24

d) 30

a) 0.25 nm

b) 2 nm

c) 1 nm

d) 0.5 nm

a) Twin DME

b) VOR/DME

c) Twin VOR

d) Any of the above

a) 15nm

b) 20nm

c) 25nm

d) 30nm

a) In Pitch, roll and yaw

b) In pitch and roll

c) In pitch and roll but only when 0º tilt has been selected

d) In pitch and roll whether the stabilization is on or off

a) Flying over land with the Land/sea switch in the sea position

b) Flying over mountainous terrain

c) There is cloud and precipitation between the aircraft and a cloud target

d) Attempting to use the mapping beam for mapping in excess of 50nm.

a) Aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies.

b) Aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses

c) Aircraft reject pulses not synchronized with its own random pulse recurrence rate

d) Each aircraft has its own frequency allocation

a) 3% of rangev

b) 1.25% of range

c) 0.5 nm

d) +/-0.25 +/-1.25% of range 

a) Utilizes paired pulses transmitted from ground station to the aircraft at a specific spacing

b) Utilizes paired pulses transmitted from the aircraft to a ground station at a specific spacing

c) Utilizes paired pulses transmitted from ground station to the aircraft at a specific frequency

d) Utilizes paired pulses transmitted from the aircraft to a ground station at a specific frequency

a) Provides ground distance from aircraft to the station. By applying a simple formula can also know the slant Range

b) The GS provided by the DME equipment can be consider valid when distance(DME) is minor than the height in thousands of feet 100

c) Above 5000 feet GS can always be considered exact, it doesn’t matter the DME distance.

d) All the options are false.

a) 1.5

b) 2

c) 1.2

d) 0.5

a) With 1radial anticipation

b) With 4 radial anticipation

c) With 2 radial anticipation

d) No anticipation is needed

a) Aparece banderola Nav

b) Aparece banderola HDG

c) Aparece banderola NDB

d) No hay indicación

a) Consist of a Flight Management Computer(FMC), one or more Control Display Units(CDU), one or more Display Unit(DU), a Data Base and an Emergency Navigation System

b) The FMS utilizes aircraft sensors and navigation database information to compute and display aircraft position, performance data, and navigation information during all phases of flight.

c) Both are correct

d) None are correct

a) Three marker beacons are located along ILS final to “mark” a specific position along the approach course, and are depicted on the terminal chart by the letters OM, MM an IM,. All of them must always be installed for every ILS approach.

b) Minimum are normally reached at or near de MM whereby if an aircraft is on glideslope, it will be at an altitude of approximately 200 feet above the elevation of the touchdown zone. The MM may not be used as the sole method of identifying the MAPt.

c) Inner marker- A marker beacon located between the MM and the OM, transmitting a radiation pattern keyed at six dots per second and indicating to the pilot, both aurally and visually, that he/she is at the designated decision height(DH), normally 100 feet above touchdown zone elevation.

d) Marker beacons are not installed for navigation purposes, but indicate a specific point on the localizer course to provide information of aircraft position in relation to the runway. If it were not possible to install marker beacons would be wishable to have a DME system associated.

a) Two highly directional transmitting systems

b) As many as three marker beacons or compass locators

c) Optional DME transmitters

d) Malfunction indication system

a) True

b) False

a) An energy wave comprising an electrical field in the same plane as a magnetic field

b) An electrical field alternating with a magnetic field

c) An energy wave where there is an electrical field perpendicular to a magnetic field

d) An energy field with an electrical component

a

b

a) 4298 GHz

b) 4,298 GHz

c) 429,8 GHz

d) 42,98 GHz

a) 80kHz

b) 8MHZ

c) 80MHz

d) 800kHz

a) Absortion

b) Diffraction

c) Attenuation

d) ionisation

a) Further from the coast

b) Closer to the coast

c) Co-incident

d) Inaccurate due to the transmitted wave front decelerating

a) Static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo’s Fire

b) The aircraft’s major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming NDB transmissions.

c) Station interference and/or night effect

d) NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation path.

a) Is most marked at night

b) Can be minimized by using beacons situated well inland

c) Can be minimized by taking bearings where the signal crosses the costline at right angles

d) Os most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset

a) The DVOR provides DME distance to the station

b) The DVOR is second generation VOR but provides the same signal quality and accuracy as a regular VOR

c) The DVOR is the combination of TACAN and VOR

d) The DVOR avoids errors caused by reflected signals

a) 10º, 35

b) 35º, 10

c) 35º, 17

d) 25º, 25

a) ±8 out to 10nm

b) ±10º out to 8nm

c) ±12º out to 17nm

d) ±35º out to 25nm

a) Will receive false on-course or reverse sense signals

b) Will not normally receive signals

c) Will receive signals without coding

d) Can expect signals to give control indications.

a) 20nm; 20000ft; 40 degrees

b) 35nm; 5000ft; 40 degrees

c) 35nm; 5000ft; 30 degrees

d) 17nm; 2000ft; 35 degrees

a) Black, yellow, green, magenta

b) Black, green, yellow, magenta

c) Grey, green, yellow, red

d) Black, green, yellow, red.

a) Primary 8800Mhz SHF

b) Secondary 9.375Mhz UHF

c) Secondary 9375Mhz SHF

d) Primary 9375 Mhz SHF

a) It causes a momentary distinctive display to appear on the controller’s screen.

b) An identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35µ sec before the last framing pulse

c) An identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 10 seconds, 4.35µ sec after the las framing pulse.

d) An identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds 4.35µ sec after last framing pulse

a) 7700; 7600; 2000; 7500

b) 7700; 7600; 7500; 2000

c) 7600; 7500; 2000; 7700

d) 7500; 7600; 2000; 7700

a) A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft

b) A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground based

c) A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft or a ground based transponder

d) A quiescent target

a) Initiate the required manoeuver immediately

b) Make a note of the details

c) Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC

d) Do nothing until a TA is received

a) Threat, climb; threat, descend

b) Climb left, Climb right, Descend left, Descend right.

c) Climb, descend, increase climb, increase descent

d) Turn left, Turn right, Increase turn, Decrease turn.

a) Has an FM refenrence signal and an AM variable signal

b) Has a 150Hz reference signal and a 90Hz variable signal

c) Has an AM reference signal and a 150Hz variable signal

d) Has an AM reference signal and a FM variable signal

a) From the glideslope needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse sense indications and from the localizer needle intermittent and incorrect indications.

b) The aircraft’s receiver is not detecting any transmissions and the ILS needle OFF flags are visible

c) From the localizer needle the captain may be receiving false course and intermittent indications and from the glideslope needle reverse sense and incorrect indications.

d) From the localizer needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse sense indications and from the glideslope needle intermittent and incorrect indications.

a) RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC

b) RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity

c) RAs mist never be disregarded

d) RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary.