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Aviation Interview Quiz am ATP EASA Qatar , erstellt von mmm mmm am 14/05/2018.

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ATP EASA Qatar

Frage 1 von 200

1

10.1.1.4 (7)
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be
considered:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national
    difference

  • advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states

  • binding for all member states

  • binding for all airline companies with international traffic

Erklärung

Frage 2 von 200

1

10.1.2.0 (11)
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

  • may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person

  • may request such person to disembark

  • may deliver such person to the competent authorities

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Frage 3 von 200

1

10.5.1.0 (78)
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,
experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

  • Switching on and off four times the landing lights

  • The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

  • Switching on and off three times the landing lights

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Frage 4 von 200

1

10.5.1.0 (81)
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

  • The airport is unsafe, do not land

  • Continue circling and wait for further instructions

  • Give way to other aircraft in emergency

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Frage 5 von 200

1

10.5.1.0 (83)
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.

  • Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

  • An area unit for the movement of aircraft.

  • The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being
    performed.

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Frage 6 von 200

1

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight
time is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The airliner operator

  • The aircraft owner

  • The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace

  • The commander

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Frage 7 von 200

1

10.5.1.0 (86)
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Emergency aircraft

  • Military aircraft

  • VIP (Head of state) aircraft

  • Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention

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Frage 8 von 200

1

10.5.1.0 (91)
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall,
unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the
following code on mode ""A""

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 7 700

  • 7 500

  • 7 600

  • 7 000

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Frage 9 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (92)
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish
radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz

  • 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

  • 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz

  • 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

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Frage 10 von 200

1

10.5.1.0 (93)
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.

  • Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.

  • Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.

  • Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of
    flight of the intercepted aircraft.

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Frage 11 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (94)
Unless otherwise prescribed , what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

  • 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

  • 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated
    position of the aircraft

  • 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course

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Frage 12 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (96)
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions

  • Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

  • Inform the ATC unit immediately

  • Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

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Frage 13 von 200

1

10.5.1.0 (96)
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?
a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
b) Inform the ATC unit immediately
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

  • Inform the ATC unit immediately

  • If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions

  • Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

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Frage 14 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (98)
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

  • Crossing arms extended above his head

  • Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then
    clench fist

  • Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

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Frage 15 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (99)
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is
unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses
radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of
    landing

  • adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination

  • continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed
    flight plan.

  • descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations

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Frage 16 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (100)
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Come back and land.

  • Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

  • Dangerous airfield. Do not land

  • Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

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Frage 17 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (102)
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has
to be informed in case :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • it is a deviation from the track.

  • of an emergency.

  • the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.

  • the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan.

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Frage 18 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (103)
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an
aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
be for an IFR flight :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

  • at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

  • at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

  • at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

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Frage 19 von 200

1

10.5.1.0 (105)
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • this aerodrome is using parallel runways

  • landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,

  • taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,

  • glider flying is performed outside the landing area,

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Frage 20 von 200

1

An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft
from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

  • 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

  • 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

  • 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

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Frage 21 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (109)
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio
communication failure. You will :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ,

  • Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination ,

  • Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ,

  • Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

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Frage 22 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (111)
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green
flashes from the tower. The aircraft :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.

  • is cleared to land.

  • must land immediately and clear the landing area.

  • must give way to another aircraft.

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Frage 23 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (114)
While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control
tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • must vacate the landing area in use.

  • must stop.

  • must return to its point of departure.

  • may continue to taxi to the take-off area.

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Frage 24 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (115)
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light
signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.

  • must stop.

  • must return to its point of departure.

  • is cleared for take-off.

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Frage 25 von 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (116)
An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from
the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • not land because the airport is not available for landing.

  • give way to another aircraft.

  • return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.

  • not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

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Frage 26 von 200

1

10.6.2.0 (117)
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Obstacle identification surface.

  • Obstacle identification slope.

  • Obstruction in surface.

  • Obstacle in surface.

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Frage 27 von 200

1

RED ! 10.6.2.0 (118)
What does the abbreviation DER mean?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Depature end of runway.

  • Distance end of runway.

  • Distance end of route.

  • Departure end of route.

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Frage 28 von 200

1

RED ! 10.6.2.0 (119)
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid
within a sector of :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 30 NM

  • 25 NM

  • 10 NM

  • 15 NM

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Frage 29 von 200

1

10.6.3.0 (121)
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.

  • To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.

  • To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.

  • To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.

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Frage 30 von 200

1

10.6.3.0 (122)
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Airspace restrictions.

  • Navigation aids.

  • ATC requirements.

  • The terrain surrounding the airport.

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Frage 31 von 200

1

RED ! 10.6.3.0 (123)
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the
departure end of runway equals:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 0 ft.

  • 3.3 % gradient.

  • 35 ft.

  • 0.8 % gradient.

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Frage 32 von 200

1

RED 10.6.3.0 (124)
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway
centre line within:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 15°.

  • 30°.

  • 12.5°.

  • 45°.

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Frage 33 von 200

1

RED 10.6.3.0 (126)
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

  • 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

  • 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

  • 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

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Frage 34 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (127)
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.

  • Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

  • Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.

  • Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

Erklärung

Frage 35 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (128)
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 600m (1968 ft).

  • 450m (1476 ft).

  • 300m (984 ft).

  • 150m (492 ft).

Erklärung

Frage 36 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (129)
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and
descent for landing are made is called:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Initial approach segment.

  • Intermediate approach segment.

  • Arrival segment.

  • Final approach segment.

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Frage 37 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (130)
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • FAP.

  • FAF.

  • MAP.

  • IF.

Erklärung

Frage 38 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (132)
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight

  • When the aircraft has the control tower in sight

  • When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet

  • When seems possible to land

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Frage 39 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (137)
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA
should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual
reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle
clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination
regrouping all the correct answers is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 1, 2, 3.

  • 1, 3.

  • 2, 3.

  • 1, 2.

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Frage 40 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (135)
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Mean sea level.

  • Aeredrome reference point.

  • Relevant runway threshold.

  • Aerodrome elevation.

Erklärung

Frage 41 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (140)
How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Up to 5.

  • Up to 4.

  • 3.

  • 4.

Erklärung

Frage 42 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (141)
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • At the IF.

  • At the IAF.

  • At the FAF.

  • At the final en-route fix.

Erklärung

Frage 43 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (145)
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Shuttle.

  • Procedure turn.

  • Racetrack pattern.

  • Based turn.

Erklärung

Frage 44 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (146)
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

  • 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).

  • 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).

  • 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

Erklärung

Frage 45 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (147)
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • One and a half of scale deflection.

  • A quarter of scale deflection.

  • Half a scale deflection.

  • One scale deflection.

Erklärung

Frage 46 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (148)
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 6m.

  • 12m.

  • 9m.

  • 3m.

Erklärung

Frage 47 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (149)
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Initial, intermediate and final.

  • Arrival, intermediate and final.

  • Initial and final.

  • Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

Erklärung

Frage 48 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (150)
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 0.8%.

  • 5%.

  • 3.3%.

  • 2.5%.

Erklärung

Frage 49 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (151)
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.

  • At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.

  • At the missed approach point.

  • At the point where the climb is established.

Erklärung

Frage 50 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (152)
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Visual manoeuvring (circling).

  • Aerodrome traffic pattern.

  • Contact approach.

  • Visual approach.

Erklärung

Frage 51 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (154)
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle
clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.

  • For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them

  • Only for categories A and B aircraft.

  • For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.

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Frage 52 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (155)
A circling approach is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • A contact flight manoeuvre.

  • A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.

  • A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.

  • A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.

Erklärung

Frage 53 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (156)
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is
expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • FAF.

  • Landing runway.

  • Final missed approach track.

  • MAP.

Erklärung

Frage 54 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (157)
If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre,
what actions should be taken ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Initiate a missed approach

  • Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact

  • Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude

  • If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact

Erklärung

Frage 55 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (158)
What action should be taken if contact is losT with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Initiate a missed approach

  • Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude

  • Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome

  • Request an amended clearance

Erklärung

Frage 56 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (159)
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot
does not deviate from the centre line more than :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

  • half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline.

  • full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath
    indicator.

  • full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

Erklärung

Frage 57 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (160)
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • the operator

  • the state

  • the pilot-in-command ,

  • the ""flight-operations"" of the company

Erklärung

Frage 58 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (161)
On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered
acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 20 degrees or less

  • 10 degrees or less

  • 30 degrees or less

  • 40 degrees or less

Erklärung

Frage 59 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (162)
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 5%.

  • 8%.

  • 6,5%.

  • 7%.

Erklärung

Frage 60 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (165)
During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 300 m (984 ft)

  • 120 m (394 ft)

  • 210 m (690 ft)

  • 150 m (492 ft)

Erklärung

Frage 61 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (166)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 30 m (98 ft)

  • 50 m (164 ft)

  • 90 m (295 ft)

  • 120 m (384 ft)

Erklärung

Frage 62 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (167)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 30 m (98 ft)

  • 50 m (164 ft)

  • 90 m (295 ft)

  • 120 m (384 ft)

Erklärung

Frage 63 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (168)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 50 m (164 ft)

  • 120 m (384 ft)

  • 30 m (98 ft)

  • 90 m (295 ft)

Erklärung

Frage 64 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (169)
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the
IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 5 NM

  • 25 NM

  • 10 NM

  • 20 NM

Erklärung

Frage 65 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (170)
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • ± 12.5 NM

  • ± 2.5 NM

  • ± 5 NM

  • ± 10 NM

Erklärung

Frage 66 von 200

1

10.6.4.0 (172)
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 100 ft

  • 200 ft

  • 250 ft

  • 150 ft

Erklärung

Frage 67 von 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (174)
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 3.3%

  • 2.5%

  • 2%

  • 5%

Erklärung

Frage 68 von 200

1

10.6.5.0 (175)
What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Follow the radio communication failure procedure.

  • it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.

  • a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.

  • inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.

Erklärung

Frage 69 von 200

1

10.6.5.0 (176)
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.

  • maximum bank angle of 25°.

  • rate of 3°per second.

  • rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser BANK

Erklärung

Frage 70 von 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (177)
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum
speed ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 230 kt IAS.

  • 230 kt TAS.

  • 240 kt IAS.

  • 240 kt TAS.

Erklärung

Frage 71 von 200

1

10.6.5.0 (178)
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • To the left.

  • To the right.

  • First right and then to the left.

  • Teardrop to the left and then to the right.

Erklärung

Frage 72 von 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (179)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 1 minute

  • 2 minutes

  • 1,5 minutes

  • 30 sec

Erklärung

Frage 73 von 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (180)
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound,
inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Off set.

  • Direct.

  • Parallel

  • Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"".

Erklärung

Frage 74 von 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (181)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 2 minutes 30 seconds.

  • 2 minutes.

  • 1 minute.

  • 1 minute 30 seconds.

Erklärung

Frage 75 von 200

1

10.6.5.0 (182)
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Course.

  • Bearing.

  • Track.

  • Heading.

Erklärung

Frage 76 von 200

1

10.6.5.0 (185)
In a standard holding pattern turns are made :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • in a direction depending on the entry ,

  • in a direction depending on the wind direction

  • to the left

  • to the right

Erklärung

Frage 77 von 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (186)
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound

  • Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound

  • Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

  • Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

Erklärung

Frage 78 von 200

1

RED 10.6.6.0 (187)
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Transition level.

  • Transition altitude.

  • Transition layer.

  • The level specified by ATC.

Erklärung

Frage 79 von 200

1

10.6.6.0 (189)
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • according pilot's choice.

  • as hlight level.

  • as height.

  • as altitude.

Erklärung

Frage 80 von 200

1

10.6.6.0 (191)
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • altitude above mean sea level during climb

  • flight level during descent

  • altitude above mean sea level during descent

  • either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb

Erklärung

Frage 81 von 200

1

RED 10.6.6.0 (192)
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • only at transition altitude.

  • at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

  • at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.

  • only at transition level.

Erklärung

Frage 82 von 200

1

RED 10.6.6.0 (194)
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Within the transition layer

  • When passing the transition level

  • When passing the transition altitude

  • When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL

Erklärung

Frage 83 von 200

1

10.6.7.0 (197)
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Mode A code 7500.

  • Mode A code 7600.

  • Mode B code 7600.

  • Mode A code 7700.

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Frage 84 von 200

1

10.6.7.0 (200)
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 7600.

  • 2000.

  • 7500.

  • 7700.

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Frage 85 von 200

1

10.6.7.0 (201)
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 7700.

  • 7500.

  • 7600.

  • 7000.

Erklärung

Frage 86 von 200

1

10.6.7.0 (204)
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.

  • Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.

  • Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.

  • Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.

Erklärung

Frage 87 von 200

1

10.7.1.1 (227)
Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis

  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis

  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis

  • plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis

Erklärung

Frage 88 von 200

1

10.7.1.1 (231)
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels

  • 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100

  • 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100

  • 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195

Erklärung

Frage 89 von 200

1

10.7.1.1 (234)
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Not applicable

  • 260 KT IAS

  • 250 KT IAS

  • 250 KT TAS

Erklärung

Frage 90 von 200

1

10.7.1.1 (243)
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Airspace D

  • Airspace E

  • Airspace B

  • Airspace A

Erklärung

Frage 91 von 200

1

10.7.1.2 (249)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 5 minutes.

  • 3 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 15 minutes.

Erklärung

Frage 92 von 200

1

10.7.1.2 (250)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 15 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 5 minutes.

  • 3 minutes.

Erklärung

Frage 93 von 200

1

10.7.1.2 (251)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 3 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 5 minutes.

  • 6 minutes.

Erklärung

Frage 94 von 200

1

10.7.1.2 (254)
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track,
the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

  • 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

  • 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

  • 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

Erklärung

Frage 95 von 200

1

RED 10.7.1.2 (257)
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraftpreceding a 'Light' aircraft

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 10 km

  • 6 NM

  • 3 NM

  • 2 km

Erklärung

Frage 96 von 200

1

10.7.1.3 (265)
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

  • below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

  • below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

  • cumulonimbus

Erklärung

Frage 97 von 200

1

10.7.1.4 (268)
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.

  • uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.

  • uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.

  • uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

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Frage 98 von 200

1

10.7.1.5 (272)
Alert phase is defined as follows:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of
    emergency.

  • A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.

  • An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened
    by a danger.

  • A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

Erklärung

Frage 99 von 200

1

10.7.3.0 (277)
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 10 minutes prior to departure.

  • 60 minutes prior to departure.

  • 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

  • 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

Erklärung

Frage 100 von 200

1

10.7.3.0 (278)
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the
pilot shall:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.

  • Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations -
    Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.

  • Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.

  • Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.

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Frage 101 von 200

1

10.7.3.0 (280)
A strayed aircraft is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established

  • only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track

  • An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which
    reports that it is lost

  • only that aircraft which reports that it is lost

Erklärung

Frage 102 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.1 (283)
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

  • Crossing arms extended above his head.

  • Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then
    clenching fist.

  • Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.

Erklärung

Frage 103 von 200

1

BLUE 10.7.3.1 (284)
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be
amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

  • 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

  • 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

  • 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

Erklärung

Frage 104 von 200

1

10.7.3.1 (286)
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the
order listed:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and
    time over.

  • Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.

  • Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and
    time over and ensuing significant point.

  • Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and
    ensuing significant point.

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Frage 105 von 200

1

10.7.3.1 (287)
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The pilot in command.

  • The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.

  • The aircraft operator.

  • The ATC.

Erklärung

Frage 106 von 200

1

10.7.3.1 (290)
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been
submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and
the old one cancelled, when:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.

  • The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.

  • The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.

  • The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

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Frage 107 von 200

1

10.7.3.1 (295)
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight
plan form...

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
    name of theairport.

  • write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
    name of the airport

  • write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the
    name of theairport

  • write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information)
    ALTN/followed by the name of theairport.

Erklärung

Frage 108 von 200

1

BLUE 10.7.3.1 (296)
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the
flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • estimated ground speed (G/S).

  • true air speed at 65% power.

  • indicated air speed (IAS).

  • true air speed (TAS).

Erklärung

Frage 109 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (298)
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way
communication failure?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Return to the aerodrome of departure.

  • Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
    conditions.

  • Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.

  • Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.

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Frage 110 von 200

1

10.7.3.2 (301)
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.

  • The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed
    with ATC.

  • He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.

  • He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

Erklärung

Frage 111 von 200

1

10.7.3.2 (303)
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed
as:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.

  • the weather permits.

  • Prescribed by the aircraft operations.

  • Decided on pilot's discretion.

Erklärung

Frage 112 von 200

1

10.7.3.2 (305)
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled
airspace below FL 290 is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 2500 feet (750 m).

  • 1000 feet (300 m).

  • 2000 feet (600 m).

  • 500 feet (150 m).

Erklärung

Frage 113 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (306)
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled
airspace above FL 290 is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 4000 feet (1200 m).

  • 1000 feet (300 m).

  • 500 feet (150 m).

  • 2000 feet (600 m).

Erklärung

Frage 114 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (309)
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the
same direction is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 3 000 feet.

  • 1 500 feet.

  • 4 000 feet.

  • 2 000 feet.

Erklärung

Frage 115 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (311)
A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level
is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on
track"" way-point. This minimum is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 20 NM.

  • 50 NM.

  • 80 NM.

  • 60 NM.

Erklärung

Frage 116 von 200

1

10.7.3.2 (316)
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight
level 290?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 500 feet

  • 1000 feet

  • 1500 feet

  • 2000 feet

Erklärung

Frage 117 von 200

1

10.7.3.2 (317)
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight
level (FL)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Above the transition altitude when applicable

  • only in airspace class A

  • When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa

  • if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet

Erklärung

Frage 118 von 200

1

10.7.3.2 (323)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 3 minutes

  • 2 minutes

  • 10 minutes

  • 5 minutes

Erklärung

Frage 119 von 200

1

10.7.3.2 (325)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
will be

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 10 minutes

  • 15 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 3 minutes

Erklärung

Frage 120 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.3 (331)
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • the pilot is following the published approach procedure

  • the aircraft gets radar vectors ,

  • the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight,

  • all mentioned answers are correct

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Frage 121 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.3 (343)
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is,
when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 3.0 NM

  • 1.0 NM

  • 2.0 NM

  • 5.0 NM

Erklärung

Frage 122 von 200

1

10.7.3.3 (345)
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall
be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track at an angle not greater than :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 30 degrees

  • 25 degrees

  • 20 degrees

  • 15 degrees

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Frage 123 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.3 (346)
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
    display

  • 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted
    on the radar display

  • 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar DISPLAY

  • 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
    display

Erklärung

Frage 124 von 200

1

10.7.3.4 (352)
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Medium/poor

  • Good

  • Poor

  • Medium

Erklärung

Frage 125 von 200

1

10.7.3.4 (355)
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes

  • light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

  • medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes

  • medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

Erklärung

Frage 126 von 200

1

10.7.3.4 (357)
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite
direction runway separated by :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 730 m

  • Less than 730 m

  • 760 m

  • Less than 760 m

Erklärung

Frage 127 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.4 (358)
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 2 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 3 minutes

  • 1 minute

Erklärung

Frage 128 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.4 (359)
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
using the same runway ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 2 minutes

  • 3 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 1 minute

Erklärung

Frage 129 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.5 (362)
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 2 minutes

  • 3 minutes

  • 1 minute

  • 5 minutes

Erklärung

Frage 130 von 200

1

10.7.3.6 (364)
Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft
subjected to unlawful interference?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Code 7500.

  • Code 7700.

  • Code 7600

  • Code 2000.

Erklärung

Frage 131 von 200

1

10.7.3.6 (365)
Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight
    instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

  • ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you
    are advised that contact has been lost.

  • You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
    radar contact has been lost.

  • Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
    contact with this radar facility.

Erklärung

Frage 132 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (366)
What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation""
after you have been vectored to an airway?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.

  • You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

  • Radar Service is terminated.

  • Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

Erklärung

Frage 133 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (367)
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR
mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the
required direction by:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • More than 300 ft.

  • 300 ft.

  • +/- 300 ft.

  • More than 200 ft.

Erklärung

Frage 134 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (368)
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 2.0 NM.

  • 3.0 NM.

  • 5.0 NM.

  • 1.5 NM.

Erklärung

Frage 135 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (374)
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on
the airway and to ""resume own navigation"". This phrase means that:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.

  • You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

  • Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports.

  • You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

Erklärung

Frage 136 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (389)
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR
mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.

Erklärung

Frage 137 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (385)
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the
localizer course shall be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

  • 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

  • 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.

  • 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

Erklärung

Frage 138 von 200

1

BLUE 10.7.3.6 (386)
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information
displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • +/- 250 ft.

  • +/- 300 ft.

  • +/- 200 ft.

  • +/- 500 ft.

Erklärung

Frage 139 von 200

1

10.7.3.6 (382)
When ""Secondary Radar"" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the
following procedures:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from
    ""ON"" to ""STBY"" and back to ""ON"".

  • To request pilot to set transponder on position ""ON"".

  • To request pilot to set transponder on position ""OFF"".

  • To request pilot to switch from ""ON"" to ""STDBY"".

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Frage 140 von 200

1

10.7.3.6 (387)
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar
separation minimum shall be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 3.0 NM.

  • 5.0 NM.

  • 10.0 NM.

  • 3.5 NM.

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Frage 141 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (388)
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by
an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
criterion):

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • +/- 300 ft.

  • +/- 200 ft.

  • +/- 150 ft.

  • +/- 250 ft.

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Frage 142 von 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (389)
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR
mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 250 ft of the assigned level

  • +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

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Frage 143 von 200

1

10.7.3.6 (391)
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the
pilot?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft

  • The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

  • The aircraft is subject to positive control

  • Position reports may be omitted

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Frage 144 von 200

1

10.8.1.0 (403)
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas
and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • GEN.

  • RAC.

  • COM.

  • MET.

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Frage 145 von 200

1

RED 10.8.1.0 (418)
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a
change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This
information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic
eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is
reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour
code is

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • RED

  • YELLOW

  • GREEN

  • ORANGE

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Frage 146 von 200

1

10.8.1.0 (419)
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing
charts

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Visibility minima

  • DME-frequencies

  • OCH or OCA

  • Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector

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Frage 147 von 200

1

10.8.1.0 (421)
ASHTAM

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • GVATAM

  • NAVTAM

  • VULTAM

  • 1999-06-08 0:00

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Frage 148 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (432)
""TODA"" take-off distance available is:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if
    provided).

  • The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if
    provided).

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Frage 149 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (433)
""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

  • Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

  • Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.

  • Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

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Frage 150 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (439)
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off
run available prepared as a suitable area where:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.

  • A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.

  • A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

  • An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

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Frage 151 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (440)
""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway
    provided) .

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if
    provided) .

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

  • The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).

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Frage 152 von 200

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RED 10.9.1.2 (442)
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

  • Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.

  • Flashing white.

  • Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.

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Frage 153 von 200

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RED 10.9.1.2 (443)
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Flashing green.

  • Flashing white.

  • Fixed green

  • Fixed white.

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Frage 154 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (448)
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Fixed lights showing green.

  • Fixed lights showing blue

  • Fixed lights showing yellow.

  • Fixed lights showing white

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Frage 155 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (449)
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar
lights shall be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

  • Flashing lights showing variable white.

  • Fixed lights showing variable green.

  • Flashing lights showing variable green.

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Frage 156 von 200

1

10.9.1.2 (446)
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light
sources on the centre line have a length of:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 300 m.

  • 150 m.

  • 200 m.

  • 250 m.

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Frage 157 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (454)
Taxiway edge lights shall be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Fixed showing blue.

  • Fixed showing green.

  • Fixed showing yellow.

  • Flashing showing blue.

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Frage 158 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (455)
Runway end lights shall be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.

  • Fixed lights showing variable red.

  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

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Frage 159 von 200

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RED 10.9.1.2 (456)
Runway threshold lights shall be:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the
    runway.

  • Fixed lights green colours.

  • Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

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Frage 160 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (459)
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway
CAT II :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 900m

  • 150m

  • 300m

  • 600m

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Frage 161 von 200

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RED 10.9.1.2 (461)
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and
visual aids intended for operations down to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

  • a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

  • a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

  • a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

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Frage 162 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (462)
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence
at :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 300 m from threshold

  • 150 m from threshold

  • 450 m from threshold

  • 600 m from threshold

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Frage 163 von 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (463)
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ,

  • always of a straight row of lights towards the runway

  • of flashing lights only,

  • of an arbitrary amount of green lights,

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Frage 164 von 200

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RED 10.9.1.2 (464)
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes
is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What
should be the length of this approach light system?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 900 metres

  • 420 metres

  • 1000 metres

  • 1200 metres

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Frage 165 von 200

1

RED 21.1.5.0 (555)
On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • will wear at the shoulders

  • it's tread will deteriorate faster

  • will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed

  • will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway

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Frage 166 von 200

1

RED 21.1.8.3 (602)
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • decreases

  • increases

  • remains constant

  • may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
    taken.

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Frage 167 von 200

1

RED 21.1.8.3 (620)
The ""cabin differential pressure"" is:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.

  • approximately 5 psi at maximum.

  • approximately 15 psi at maximum.

  • the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

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Frage 168 von 200

1

RED 21.3.3.2 (958)
In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • rotor - stator

  • stator - stator - rotor

  • rotor - rotor - stator

  • stator - rotor

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Frage 169 von 200

1

RED 21.4.5.0 (1097)
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 100%

  • normal.

  • emergency.

  • on demand.

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Frage 170 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.1 (1119)
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port
open causes the airspeed indicator to :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • react like an altimeter

  • read a little high.

  • read a little low.

  • freeze at zero.

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Frage 171 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.1 (1120)
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following
instrument (s) :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • altimeter only.

  • airspeed indicator only.

  • vertical speed indicator only.

  • airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

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Frage 172 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1126)
If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
will:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured

  • under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
    blocked

  • over-read

  • gradually return to zero

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Frage 173 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1123)
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near
the source is known as:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • position pressure error.

  • barometric error.

  • instrument error.

  • hysteresis effect.

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Frage 174 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1124)
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the
instrument will:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured

  • gradually indicate zero

  • under-read

  • indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

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Frage 175 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1133)
The density altitude is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the
    actual density of the atmosphere

  • the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the
    standard temperature

  • the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point

  • the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point

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Frage 176 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1135)
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • overread.

  • underread.

  • be just as correct as before.

  • show the actual height above ground.

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Frage 177 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1136)
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must
not exceed :
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • +/-60 feet

  • +/-75 feet

  • +/-30 feet

  • +/-70 feet

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Frage 178 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1138)
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in
flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • the replies from the transponders of other aircraft

  • the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system

  • the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board

  • both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes

Erklärung

Frage 179 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1146)
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed
indicator would cause it to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • under-read.

  • over-read.

  • over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.

  • under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.

Erklärung

Frage 180 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1148)
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
descent the instrument will:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • over-read

  • read zero

  • continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage

  • under-read

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Frage 181 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1149)
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed
(IAS) :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • an instrument and position/pressure error correction.

  • an antenna and compressibility correction.

  • and instrument and density correction.

  • a compressibility and density correction.

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Frage 182 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1150)
VNO is the maximum speed :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

  • which must never be exceeded.

  • with flaps extended in landing position

  • at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

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Frage 183 von 200

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RED 22.1.1.3 (1152)
VLO is the maximum :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.

  • flight speed with landing gear down.

  • speed with flaps extended in a given position.

  • cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

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Frage 184 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1154)
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will
indicate in descent a :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • decreasing speed.

  • constant speed.

  • increasing speed.

  • fluctuating speed.

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Frage 185 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1159)
After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
and finds that the indicated airspeed :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • decreases steadily

  • increases abruptly towards VNE

  • increases steadily

  • decreases abruptly towards zero

Erklärung

Frage 186 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1160)
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure
probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • increases steadily

  • increases abruptly towards VNE

  • decreases stadily

  • decreases abruptly towards zero

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Frage 187 von 200

1

RED 22.1.1.4 (1176)
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 661 kt.

  • 1059 kt.

  • 644 kt.

  • 332 kt.

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Frage 188 von 200

1

RED 22.1.2.4 (1224)
A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Contains its own separate gyro

  • Only works of there is a complete electrical failure

  • Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation

  • Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails

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Frage 189 von 200

1

RED 22.1.2.5 (1236)
The rate-of-turn is the:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • yaw rate in a turn

  • change-of-heading rate of the aircraft

  • aircraft speed in a turn

  • pitch rate in a turn

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Frage 190 von 200

1

RED 22.1.4.0 (1282)
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.

  • height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.

  • height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.

  • altitude of the aircraft.

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Frage 191 von 200

1

RED 22.1.5.0 (1284)
The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • weather situation.

  • piloting.

  • engines and alarms.

  • systems.

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Frage 192 von 200

1

RED 22.2.2.0 (1326)
An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called ""FAIL...:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • ""OPERATIONAL""

  • ""PASSIVE""

  • ""SAFE""

  • ""REDUNDANT"

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Frage 193 von 200

1

RED 22.2.2.0 (1327)
An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually
in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called ""FAIL....""

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • ""PASSIVE""

  • ""OPERATIONAL""

  • ""SAFE""

  • ""REDUNDANT""

Erklärung

Frage 194 von 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1377)
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

  • 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

  • 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

  • 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

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Frage 195 von 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1375)
The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :
1 - vertical speed
2 - radio altimeter height
3 - pressure altitude
4 - glidepath deviation
5 - gear and flaps position
6 - angle of attack
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 1,2,5,6

  • 1,2,4,5

  • 1,3,4,5,6

  • 2,3,4,6

Erklärung

Frage 196 von 200

1

22.3.3.0 (1376)
The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes :
1- excessive descent rate
2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
4- too high descent attitude
5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7- excessive glidepath deviation
The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 1,2,5,6,7

  • 3,4,5,6

  • 1,2,4,6,7

  • 2,3,5,7

Erklärung

Frage 197 von 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1383)
A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning
System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of :
1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.
2 - dangerous ground proximity.
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed
approach.
4 - wrong landing configuration.
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 2,3,4,5

  • 2

  • 1,3,4

  • 2,5

Erklärung

Frage 198 von 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1384)
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • the ground to 1 000 ft

  • 50 ft to 2 500 ft

  • 30 ft to 5 000 ft

  • the ground to 500 ft

Erklärung

Frage 199 von 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1385)
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases :
1- excessive rate of descent
2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

  • 2, 4, 5, 6

  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

  • 3, 4, 5, 6

Erklärung

Frage 200 von 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1388)
The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:
1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed)
2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Angle of Attack
7- Landing Gear (position)The combination of correct statement is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 1,2,3,5,7

  • 2,3,4,5,7

  • 1,2,5,6,7

  • 1,2,5, 8 7

Erklärung