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Aviation Interview Quiz am ATP EASA Qatar 3 RED, erstellt von mmm mmm am 23/05/2018.

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ATP EASA Qatar 3 RED

Frage 1 von 61

1

R 62.6.5.0 (4845)
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a
three dimensional fix?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 4

  • 3

  • 5

  • 6

Erklärung

Frage 2 von 61

1

R 62.6.5.0 (4846)
What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 3

  • 4

  • 6

  • 5

Erklärung

Frage 3 von 61

1

R 62.6.5.0 (4852)
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • WGS 84

  • ED 87

  • ED 50

  • EUREF 92

Erklärung

Frage 4 von 61

1

R 71.1.1.0 (4904)
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • while at their station.

  • only during take off and landing.

  • only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest
    of safety.

  • from take off to landing.

Erklärung

Frage 5 von 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4946)
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • a decision height of at least 100 ft

  • a decision height of at least 200 ft

  • a decision height of at least 50 ft

  • no decision height

Erklärung

Frage 6 von 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4948)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 550 m 1800FT

  • 350 m

  • 800 m

  • 500 m

Erklärung

Frage 7 von 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4949)
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 200 m = 700 FT

  • 100 m

  • 250 m

  • 50 m

Erklärung

Frage 8 von 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4951)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

  • a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.

  • a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.

  • no decision height.

Erklärung

Frage 9 von 61

1

R 71.1.3.1 (4989)
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • reduced range

  • increased manoeuvring limits

  • increased flight envelope

  • increased Mach number stability

Erklärung

Frage 10 von 61

1

R 71.1.3.3 (5032)
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 285 and 420.

  • 280 and 400.

  • 280 and 390.

  • 275 and 400.

Erklärung

Frage 11 von 61

1

R 71.1.3.3 (5046)
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within
NAT region?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Between FL290 and FL410.

  • Between FL275 and FL400.

  • Between FL245 and FL410.

  • Below FL290.

Erklärung

Frage 12 von 61

1

R 71.2.0.0 (5061)
According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 1 500 ft

  • 3 000 ft

  • 2 000 ft

  • 1 000 ft

Erklärung

Frage 13 von 61

1

R 71.2.2.0 (5070)
The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs
on :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The aircraft front areas.

  • The upper and lower wingsurfaces.

  • The upper and lower rudder surfaces.

  • Only the pitot and static probes.

Erklärung

Frage 14 von 61

1

71.2.2.0 (5082)
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.

  • the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.

  • the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.

  • the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied HOT

Erklärung

Frage 15 von 61

1

R 71.2.4.0 (5104)
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 300 m (1000 ft)

  • 450 m (1500 ft)

  • 150 m (500 ft)

  • 600 m (2000 ft)

Erklärung

Frage 16 von 61

1

R 71.2.4.0 (5108)
According with the ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B"", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 1 000 ft

  • 500 ft

  • 1 500 ft

  • 3 000 ft

Erklärung

Frage 17 von 61

1

R 71.2.5.0 (5111)
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.

  • possible and recommended.

  • useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.

  • useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

Erklärung

Frage 18 von 61

1

R 71.2.5.0 (5139)
A class B fire is a fire of:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • liquid or liquefiable solid

  • solid material usually of organic nature

  • electrical source fire

  • special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

Erklärung

Frage 19 von 61

1

R 71.2.6.0 (5142)
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • a rate of climb

  • a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm

  • zero

  • a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

Erklärung

Frage 20 von 61

1

R 71.2.6.0 (5149)
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 12 seconds.

  • 30 seconds.

  • 5 minutes.

  • 1 minute.

Erklärung

Frage 21 von 61

1

R 71.2.7.0 (5161)
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

  • occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

  • occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

  • can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

Erklärung

Frage 22 von 61

1

R 71.2.7.0 (5162)
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Indicated airspeed.

  • Pitch angle.

  • Vertical speed.

  • Groundspeed.

Erklärung

Frage 23 von 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5179)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 7.4 km (4 NM)

  • 9.3 km (5 NM)

  • 11.1 km (6 NM)

  • 3.7 km (2 NM)

Erklärung

Frage 24 von 61

1

R
71.2.8.0 (5187)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar 431 separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000
kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the
approach to the same runway ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes

  • 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes

  • 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

  • 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

Erklärung

Frage 25 von 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5188)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 3 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 5 minutess

  • 2 minutes

Erklärung

Frage 26 von 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5190)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 3 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 2 minutes

Erklärung

Frage 27 von 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5193)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a
    runway with a desplaced landing threshold

  • to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part
    of parallel runway separated by less 760 m

  • to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a
    runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

  • Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT
    aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

Erklärung

Frage 28 von 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5194)
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
    runway

  • LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

  • MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

  • MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
    separated by less than 760 m

Erklärung

Frage 29 von 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5195)
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are
using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar
separation minima of :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 5 NM

  • 4 NM

  • 3 NM

  • 2 NM

Erklärung

Frage 30 von 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5196)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied to :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

  • LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

  • LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by
    less than 760 m. (using whole runway)

  • LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same
    runway

Erklärung

Frage 31 von 61

1

R 71.2.9.0 (5200)
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized
aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or
    the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a
    landing approach configuration.

  • you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.

  • you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the
    airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.

  • you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.

Erklärung

Frage 32 von 61

1

71.2.10.0 (5214)
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 90 seconds

  • 132 seconds

  • 60 seconds

  • 120 seconds

Erklärung

Frage 33 von 61

1

RED 71.2.13.0 (5251)
The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 24 hours

  • 12 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 3 hours

Erklärung

Frage 34 von 61

1

R 71.2.13.0 (5255)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

  • it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

  • it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

  • surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

Erklärung

Frage 35 von 61

1

R 71.2.13.0 (5254)
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • poor

  • unreliable

  • medium

  • good

Erklärung

Frage 36 von 61

1

R 81.1.3.1 (5307)
The lift formula is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S

  • L= W

  • L= CL 2 RHO V² S

  • L= n W

Erklärung

Frage 37 von 61

1

R 81.1.6.0 (5355)
What will happen in ground effect ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases

  • the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases

  • an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices

  • a significant increase in thrust required

Erklärung

Frage 38 von 61

1

R 81.1.6.0 (5356)
If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.

  • the effective angle of attack is decreased.

  • the induced angle of attack is increased.

  • drag and lift are reduced.

Erklärung

Frage 39 von 61

1

R 81.1.6.4 (5357)
Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the
    surface

  • when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface

  • when a higher than normal angle of attack is used

  • at a speed approaching the stall

Erklärung

Frage 40 von 61

1

R 81.1.6.4 (5358)
Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • increases.

  • increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.

  • does not change.

  • decreases.

Erklärung

Frage 41 von 61

1

R 81.1.8.2 (5377)
The stall speed :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • increases with an increased weight

  • decreases with an increased weight

  • does not depend on weight

  • increases with the length of the wingspan

Erklärung

Frage 42 von 61

1

R 81.1.8.2 (5381)
The following factors increase stall speed :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.

  • a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift.

  • increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.

  • a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.

Erklärung

Frage 43 von 61

1

R 81.1.8.2 (5383)
The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant)
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • pulling up from a dive.

  • weight decreases.

  • minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.

  • spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.

Erklärung

Frage 44 von 61

1

R 81.1.8.4 (5393)
Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • greater than VS.

  • 1.20 VS.

  • 1.30 VS.

  • 1.12 VS.

Erklärung

Frage 45 von 61

1

R 81.1.8.5 (5409)
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the
stall :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.

  • wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment

  • tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

  • leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

Erklärung

Frage 46 von 61

1

R 81.1.9.0 (5414)
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively
    less drag.

  • Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.

  • Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS
    EXTENDED situation.

  • Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

Erklärung

Frage 47 von 61

1

R 81.1.10.1 (5448)
When ""spoilers"" are used as speed brakes:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.

  • CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.

  • they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.

  • at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.

Erklärung

Frage 48 von 61

1

R 81.2.1.1 (5454)
The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is:

speed of sound: mach / tas 0.8/400= 500

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 500 kts

  • 320 kts

  • 480 kts

  • 600 kts

Erklärung

Frage 49 von 61

1

R 81.2.2.1 (5465)
Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.

  • the critical angle of attack is reached.

  • shockstall occurs.

  • Mach buffet occurs.

Erklärung

Frage 50 von 61

1

R 81.2.2.2 (5488)
When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Higher critical Mach number

  • Greater strength

  • Increased longitudinal stability

  • Lower stalling speed

Erklärung

Frage 51 von 61

1

R 81.2.2.3 (5491)
How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

  • It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.

  • It remains constant.

Erklärung

Frage 52 von 61

1

R 81.2.2.3 (5493)
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • increases

  • decreases

  • decreases until the tropopause

  • remains the same

Erklärung

Frage 53 von 61

1

R 81.4.3.5 (5552)
A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.

  • an increasing static longitudinal stability.

  • a better recovery performance in the spin.

  • an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).

Erklärung

Frage 54 von 61

1

81.5.1.1 (5580)
Rotation about the lateral axis is called :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • pitching.

  • rolling.

  • slipping.

  • yawing.

Erklärung

Frage 55 von 61

1

R 81.5.2.4 (5583)
The centre of gravity moving aft will:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • increase the elevator up effectiveness.

  • decrease the elevator up effectiveness.

  • not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.

  • increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.

Erklärung

Frage 56 von 61

1

R 81.5.5.0 (5599)
Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Rolling and yawing.

  • Pitching and rolling.

  • Pitching and adverse yaw.

  • Pitching and yawing.

Erklärung

Frage 57 von 61

1

R 81.6.3.2 (5643)
What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence :

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • swept wings

  • winglets

  • straight wings

  • wing dihedral

Erklärung

Frage 58 von 61

1

R 81.8.1.5 (5672)
A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding
altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • increase thrust and angle of attack.

  • increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.

  • increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.

  • increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.

Erklärung

Frage 59 von 61

1

R 81.8.1.5 (5676)
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • TAS.

  • weight.

  • load factor

  • wind.

Erklärung

Frage 60 von 61

1

R 81.8.2.10 (5683)
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery
    runways.

  • Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.

  • Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already
    been lifted off the ground.

  • Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.

Erklärung

Frage 61 von 61

1

R
How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS
    constant and decreasing density

  • increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required
    rudder force

  • increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density
    decreases

  • 1998-10-05 0:00

Erklärung