EASA ATP Qatar yellow 4

50.4.2.1 (3636)
Freezing fog consists of

• frozen water droplets

• supercooled water droplets

• frozen minute snow flakes

• ice crystals

50.4.2.1 (3637)
The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is :

• below 5 kt

• between 5 and 10 kt

• between 10 and 15 kt

• above 15 kt

50.4.2.2 (3639)
Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15°C and dew
point of 12°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?

• Advection fog

• Steam fog

• Radiation fog

• Frontal fog

50.4.2.2 (3640)
Advection fog can be formed when

• warm moist air flows over a colder surface

• cold moist air flows over a warmer surface

• warm moist air flows over a warmer surface

• cold moist air flows over warmer water

50.4.2.3 (3642)
Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam
fog (arctic smoke)?

• Warm air moving over cold water

• The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun

• Cold air moving over warm water

• he coastal region of the sea cools at nigh

50.5.1.1 (3647)
Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall
in mid-latitudes?

• Moderate rain with large drops.

• Heavy rain with large drops.

• Drizzle.

• Hail.

50.5.2.1 (3649)
With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
a)
b)
c
d) Stratus.

• Cumulonimbus.

• Stratocumulus.

• Nimbostratus.

• Stratus.

50.5.2.1 (3650)
Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy
precipitation ?

• CS.

• NS

• SC.

• ST

50.5.2.1 (3653)
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that

• a cold front has passed

• there are thunderstorms in the area

• freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude

• a warm front has passed

With what type of cloud is ""DZ"" precipitation most commonly associated?

• ST

• CC

• CB

• CU

50.5.2.1 (3664)
Large hail stones

• only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes

• are entirely composed of clear ice

• are typically associated with severe thunderstorms

• only occur in frontal thunderstorms

50.5.2.1 (3666)
From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?

• Stratus.

• Cumulus

• Altostratus

• Cirrostratus.

50.5.2.1 (3667)
What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ?

• Towering cumulus and altostratus.

• Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus.

• Nimbostratus.

• Altostratus and stratus.

50.6.1.1 (3669)
An airmass is unstable when

• temperature and humidity are not constant

• pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area

• an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height.

• temperature increases with height

50.6.2.2 (3685)
The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:

• 1/50

• 1/300

• 1/150

• 1/500

50.6.2.2 (3686)
In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ?

• Ahead of a cold front in the winter

• Ahead of a warm front in the winter

• Ahead of a cold front in the summer

• Behind a warm front in the summer

50.6.2.2 (3687)
How do air masses move at a warm front ?

• Warm air overrides a cold air mass

• Cold air undercuts a warm air mass

• Cold air overrides a warm air mass

• Warm air undercuts a cold air mass

50.6.2.2 (3691)
Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if

• the cold air is convectively unstable.

• the warm air is convectively unstable.

• the warm air is convectively stable.

• the cold air is convectively stable.

50.6.2.2 (3692)
On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching

• QFE and QNH increase.

• QFE and QNH decrease.

• QFE increases and QNH decreases.

• QFE decreases and QNH increases.

50.6.2.3 (3694)
After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the
cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a
marked change in temperature?

• A backing in the wind direction.

• An increase in tailwind.

• A veering in the wind direction.

• A decrease in headwind.

50.6.2.3 (3698)
Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ?

• Mainly towering clouds

• Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed

• Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed

• Mainly layered clouds

50.6.2.7 (3714)
What characterizes a stationary front ?

• The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front

• The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front

• The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air

• The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold
  front and those of a warm and very active front

50.7.2.1 (3730)
What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over
land in the winter?

• Thunderstorms.

• A tendency for fog and low ST.

• The possibility of snow showers.

• NS with continuous rain.

50.7.2.1 (3736)
A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is

• a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N

• situated between 50° and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions

• quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone

• a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia

50.7.2.1 (3737)
The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by

• convection

• subsidence

• a decrease in temperature

• a decrease in pressure

50.7.3.1 (3740)
How do you recognize a cold air pool?

• As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).

• As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).

• A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.

• A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.

50.7.3.1 (3743)
Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal
depression because of :

• surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression

• surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the
  depression2

• surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the
  depression

• surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the
  depression

50.7.3.1 (3745)
Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?

• It forms over the ocean in winter

• It forms over land in summer

• It forms over the ocean in summer

• It forms over land in winter

50.7.3.1 (3746)
Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?

• It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense

• It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary

• It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary

• It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense

50.7.4.2 (3754)
At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern
islands of Japan?

• September to January.

• July to November.

• January to May.

• May to July.

50.7.4.2 (3755)
On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the
greatest?

• SE coast

• N coast

• NE coast

• W coast

50.7.4.2 (3756)
What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean area?

• East then south.

• West deep into the USA.

• West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.

• West in the earlier stages and later turning south east

50.7.4.2 (3757)
During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern
hemisphere?

• Winter.

• Summer and autumn

• Winter and spring.

• All seasons.

50.7.4.2 (3758)
During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?

• January until April.

• July until November

• October until January.

• April until July.

50.7.4.2 (3759)
The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms
occur is

• the carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the
  USA.

• the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Réunion.

• the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese
  coastline.

• the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.

50.7.4.2 (3764)
When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the
central north coast of Australia?

• May to July

• December to April

• Not experienced at Darwin

• August to October

50.8.1.1 (3765)
At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of
prevailing westerlies?

• 30°N.

• 10°N.

• 50°N.

• 80°N

50.8.1.1 (3766)
The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in
summer is that

• the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.

• the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater
  in winter

• converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter

• the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows

50.8.1.2 (3768)
What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial
region ?

• Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but
  frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October-November.

• Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the
  year

• Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The
  greatest intensity is in July.

• Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year, the frequency is highest in January

50.8.2.2 (3769)
When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?

• December to February and July to October.

• April to July and December to February.

• March to May and October to November.

• March to May and August to October.

50.8.2.3 (3773)
In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone
most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?

• 0° - 7°N.

• 3° - 8°S.

• 8° - 12°S.

• 7° - 12°N.

50.8.2.4 (3785)
From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?

• SE

• NE

• N

• SW

50.8.2.4 (3786)
What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high
pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?

• Doldrums.

• Trade winds.

• Monsoon.

• Westerly winds.

50.8.2.4 (3787)
In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?

• In December.

• In October.

• In March.

• In June.

50.8.2.4 (3788)
What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of India its
greatest proportion of precipitation?

• Indian, maritime tropical air mass.

• South-west monsoon.

• South-east trade wind.

• Winter monsoon

50.8.2.4 (3791)
The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in

• December, January, February

• July, August, September

• September, October, November

• February, March, April

50.8.4.1 (3806)
What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern
Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?

• Ghibli.

• Bora.

• Mistral.

• Scirocco.

50.8.4.1 (3812)
The Bora is a

• squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer

• cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass

• cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts

• cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers

50.8.4.1 (3813)
The Foehn wind is a

• cold fall wind

• warm anabatic wind

• warm fall wind

• cold anabatic wind

50.8.4.1 (3814)
Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?

• Bora

• Chinook

• Scirocco

• Harmattan

50.8.4.1 (3817)
A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air
over hills or mountains is known as a

• Foehn

• Harmattan

• Bora

• Mistral

50.9.1.1 (3822)
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

• CI

• SC

• NS

• CU

50.9.1.1 (3823)
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

• CS

• NS

• AS

• SC

50.9.1.1 (3824)
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ?

• FZRA

• GR

• SHSN

• PE

50.9.1.1 (3828)
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate
of accretion ?

• Cirrus clouds.

• Freezing rain

• Stratus clouds

• Snow

50.9.1.1 (3829)
In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's
surface?

• +10°C to 0°C

• 0°C to -10°C

• -20°C to -35°C

• -35°C to -50°C

50.9.1.1 (3833)
Freezing fog exists if fog droplets

• are frozen

• are freezing very rapidly

• are supercooled

• freeze when temperature falls below zero

50.9.1.2 (3840)
Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of

• small supercooled water drops.

• water vapour

• large supercooled water drops.

• snow.

50.9.1.2 (3841)
Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur
in a CB?

• Between -20°C and -30°C

• Between -30°C and -40°C

• Between -2°C and -15°C

• Close to the freezing level

50.9.1.2 (3842)
Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :

• water vapour

• large supercooled water drops

• snow

• small supercooled water drops

50.9.1.2 (3843)
During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze


• slowly and do not spread out

• rapidly and do not spread out

• rapidly and spread

• slowly and spread out

50.9.1.2 (3845)
Clear ice forms as a result of

• water vapour freezing to the aircraft

• ice pellets splattering on the aircraft

• supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process

• supercooled droplets freezing on impact

50.9.1.2 (3847)
The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that
have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be

• hoar frost

• rime ice

• clear ice

• cloudy ice

50.9.1.2 (3848)
Clear ice is dangerous because it

• is translucent and only forms at the leading edges

• is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces

• spreads out and contains many air particles

• is not translucent and forms at the leading edges

50.9.1.3 (3853)
How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to
deice, nor land?

• He descends to the warm air layer below.

• He ascends to the cold air layer above.

• He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.

• He continues to fly at the same altitude.

50.9.1.3 (3854)
At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change of course and/or altitude
desirable"" recommendation be followed?

• Moderate

• Severe

• Light

• Extreme

50.9.1.3 (3855)
At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change course and/or altitude
immediately"" instruction be followed?

• Severe

• Extreme

• Light

• Moderate

50.9.1.3 (3856)
At what degree of icing can ICAO's ""No change of course and altitude necessary""
recommendation be followed?

• Light

• Severe

• Moderate

• Extreme

50.9.1.3 (3857)
The most dangerous form of airframe icing is

• rime ice

• clear ice.

• hoar frost.

• dry ice.

50.9.2.1 (3859)
How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?

• Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in
  altitude or attitude.

• Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of
  control momentarily.

• Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control
  at all times.

• Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.

50.9.2.1 (3861)
What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?

• Change of flight level.

• Change of course.

• Decrease of speed.

• Increase of speed.

50.9.2.2 (3864)
The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the

• intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear

• height of the aircraft

• intensity of the solar radiation

• stability of the air

50.9.3.2 (3869)
Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night

• and early morning only in winter

• in association with radiation inversions

• in unstable atmospheres

• and early morning only in summer

50.9.3.2 (3870)
The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered

• when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms

• during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys

• in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt

• near valleys and at the windward side of mountains..

50.9.4.1 (3872)
Where is a squall line to be expected?

• In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.

• Behind a cold front.

• At the surface position of a warm front

• In front of an active cold front.

50.9.4.1 (3873)
What are squall lines?

• The surface weather associated with upper air troughs.

• Bands of intensive thunderstorms.

• The paths of tropical revolving storms.

• Unusual intensive cold fronts.

50.9.4.1 (3874)
What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?

• Strong steady rain

• Thunderstorms

• Fog

• Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels

50.9.4.1 (3875)
At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with
a CB?

• From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450.

• From the ground up to about FL 200.

• From the ground up to about FL 100.

• From the base of the clouds up to FL 200.

50.9.4.1 (3876)
A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered

• at an occluded front

• in an airmass with cold mass properties

• ahead of a cold front

• behind of a stationary front

50.9.4.1 (3877)
In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and
downdrafts simultaneously?


• Cumulus stage

• Mature stage

• Dissipating stage

• In all stages

50.9.4.2 (3882)
During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by
roll clouds most likely to occur ?

• Mature stage.

• Cumulus stage.

• Dissipating stage.

• Cumulus stage and mature stage.

50.9.4.2 (3884)
Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level
instability which may lead to thunderstorm development ?

• AC lenticularis.

• AC castellanus.

• Halo.

• Red cirrus

50.9.4.2 (3890)
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

• dissipating stage.

• mature stage.

• cumulus stage.

• period in which precipitation is not falling.

50.9.4.2 (3891)
What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

• A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture

• Water vapour and high pressure

• A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion

• An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action

50.9.4.2 (3893)
In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms
encountered ?

• Polar

• Tropical

• Subtropical

• Temperate

50.9.4.4 (3897)
What is a microburst?

• An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.

• A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding
  air.

• A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the
  surrounding air.

• A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.

50.9.4.5 (3903)
Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least
temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one
of the following statements is correct?

• An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a ""Faradays cage"", which means
  that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine
  failure. The crew may get a shock

• Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be
  blinded and temporarily lose the hearing.

• Aircraft made by composite material can´t conduct a lightning and will therefore very
  seldom be struck.

• An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will
  follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.

50.9.5.1 (3906)
The diameter of a typical tornado is

• only a few metres

• 100 to 150 metres

• about 2 to 6 km

• in the order of 10 km

50.10.1.1 (3918)
The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an
anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?

• On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.

• Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.

• 1 m above the runway.

• On the roof of the weather station.

50.10.1.1 (3919)
What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""BKN""?

• 5 - 7 oktas.

• 3 - 4 oktas.

• 6 - 8 oktas.

• 8 oktas.

50.10.1.1 (3920)
When is the RVR reported at most airports?

• When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.

• When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.

• When the RVR decreases below 800 m.

• When the RVR decreases below 2000 m

50.10.1.1 (3921)
When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?

• When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed

• When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed

• With gusts of at least 25 knots

• With gusts of at least 35 knots

50.10.1.1 (3922)
While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR
runway 23: 400mThis information indicates the

• meteorological visibility on runway 23.

• portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with
  runway 23 in service.

• length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the
  threshold of runway 23.

• minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.

50.10.1.1 (3925)
The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above

• the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation

• airfield level

• mean sea level

• the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station

50.10.1.4 (3929)
Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?

• Hail

• Water vapour

• Fog

• Any cloud

50.10.2.1 (3931)
In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?

• 500 hPa chart.

• Significant Weather Chart.

• 24 hour surface forecast.

• 300 hPa chart

50.10.2.1 (3932)
On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a
jetstream?

• Wind / temperature chart.

• Significant weather chart.

• Surface chart.

• Upper air chart.

50.10.2.1 (3933)
Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing
level ?

• 500 hPa chart

• 700 hPa chart

• Significant weather chart

• Surface chart

50.10.2.1 (3934)
What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?

• The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart

• The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the
  chart

• The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart

• The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart

50.10.2.4 (3950)
How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?

• EMBD CB

• OCNL CB.

• SOL CB

• FREQ CB.

50.10.3.1 (3966)
What does the abbreviation ""nosig"" mean?

• No report received

• No significant changes

• No weather related problems

• Not signed by the meteorologistu

50.10.3.1 (3967)
In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing
conditions on the runway?

• SIGMET

• METAR

• GAFOR

• TAF

50.10.3.1 (3968)
In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog
formation, in the coming night, the highest?

• VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =

• VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =

• 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =

• 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (3969)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)

• LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =

• LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =

• LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =

• LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (3970)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)

• LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =

• LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =

• LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =

• LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (3972)
Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999
SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA
=Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast
on the approach to Bordeaux ?

• Continuous moderate rain

• Light drizzle and fog

• Heavy rain showers

• Moderate snow showers

50.10.3.1 (3980)
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT
6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000
RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from
Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for
arrival at Amsterdam?

• 250 FT

• 500 FT

• 500 m

• 800 FTD

50.10.3.1 (3981)
In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from
Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance
at the time:EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn
fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500
mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc =EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet
nr01 valid 0800/1200 for london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn
52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst mov e wkn =Which decision
is correct?

• Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at
  planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).

• Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.

• You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be
  flown.

• You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route
  would demand too much of the passengers

50.10.3.1 (3984)
What does the term METAR signify?

• A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic
  report.i

• A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally
  issued in half-hourly intervals.

• A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.

• A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.

50.10.3.1 (3986)
What is a SPECI?

• A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.

• A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required.

• A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change
  of the weather conditions have been observed.

• An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours

50.10.3.1 (3987)
Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428What must
you consider when making performance calculations?

• The runway will be wet.

• The friction coefficient is 0.28

• The braking action will be medium to good

• Aquaplaning conditions

50.10.3.1 (3988)
Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
2124 0500 FG VV001What does the ""BECMG"" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour
time frame?

• A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.

• Many short term changes in the original weather.

• The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC

• Many long term changes in the original weather.

50.10.3.1 (3990)
Refer to the following TAF extract,BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""PROB30"" mean?

• Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.

• Probability of 30%

• Change expected in less than 30 minutes

• The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT

50.10.3.1 (3991)
What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?

• The average speed of the previous 10 minutes

• The strongest gust in the previous hour

• The average speed of the previous 30 minutes

• The actual speed at the time of recording

50.10.3.1 (3993)
What does the term TREND signify?

• It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly
  intervals

• It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions

• It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report

• It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily

50.10.3.1 (3994)
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time
they are observed?

• SN

• FZFG

• BCFG

• HZ

50.10.3.1 (3996)
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time
they are observed?

• DZ

• TS

• SA

• SQ

50.10.3.1 (3997)
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?LSAW
SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst
north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf =

• Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the
  Alps

• Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps.
  Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380

• Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps.
  Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260

• Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area
  above FL 380

50.10.3.1 (3998)
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?SIGMET
VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst
nc =

• Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving
  west

• Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The
  thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant

• The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above
  the western part of the Athens FIR

• Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of
  Athens by 1820 UTC

50.10.3.1 (4000)
Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050
BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT
4000 RA OVC010=The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:

• 1000 FT.

• 1500 FT.

• 1500 m.

• 5000 FT.

50.10.3.1 (4001)
The following weather reportEDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG
1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001is a :

• 9 hour TAF

• 24 hour TAF.

• METAR

• SPECI.

50.10.3.1 (4002)
In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the


• QFE rounded to the nearest hPa.

• QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa

• QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa.

• QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa

50.10.3.1 (4003)
What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""SCT"" ?

• 3 - 4 oktas

• 1 - 2 oktas

• 5 - 7 oktas

• 1 - 4 oktas

50.10.3.1 (4007)
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few
hours?

• 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG =

• 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =

• 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =

• 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 =

50.10.3.1 (4008)
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the
next few hours?

• 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG =

• 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =

• 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =

• 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =

50.10.3.1 (4009)
In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the
coming night the highest?

• 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =

• 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =

• 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =

• 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (4010)
Look at this TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012
BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG
2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z =Which of these statements best describes the
weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?

• Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C.

• Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45
  knots.

• Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3000 feet, wind
  250°, temperature 18°C.

• Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts up to
  35 knots.

50.10.3.1 (4011)
Refer to the TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001
BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000
SCT007 =Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be
expected at 1200 UTC?

• Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloudbase 500 feet

• Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm

• Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots

• Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots

50.10.3.1 (4013)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""?

• 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =

• 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =

• 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =

• 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (4015)
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?00000KT
0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =

• Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C,
  vertical visibility 100 metres

• RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological
  visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours

• Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical
  visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost

• Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
  more than 1500 metres

50.10.3.1 (4018)
The validity of a TAF is

• between 6 and 9 hours

• 2 hours

• stated in the TAF

• 9 hours from the time of issue

50.10.3.1 (4020)
Runway visual range can be reported in

• a METAR

• a SIGMET

• a TAF

• both a TAF and a METAR

50.10.3.1 (4021)
SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to

• all aircraft

• VFR operations only

• light aircraft only

• heavy aircraft only

50.10.3.1 (4022)
A SPECI is

• a warning for special weather phenomena

• an aviation routine weather report

• an aviation selected special weather report

• a forecast for special weather phenomena

50.10.3.1 (4024)
The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the

• average value of the A-, B- and C-position

• value representative of the touchdown zone

• lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position

• highest value of the A-, B- and C-position

50.10.3.1 (4025)
At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are
respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td = -1,5°C.In the METAR message transmitted by this
station, the ""temperature group"" will be:

• 00/M01

• M00/M01

• M01/M01

• M01/M02

50.10.3.2 (4028)
ATIS information contains

• operational information and if necessary meteorological information

• meteorological and operational information

• only meteorological information

• only operational information

50.10.3.3 (4086)
A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in

• METAR and SIGMET

• SWC and SIGMET

• TAF and SIGMET

• TAF and METAR

50.10.3.5 (4087)
What units are used to report vertical wind shear?

• kt

• kt/100 FT.

• m/100 FT

• m/sec.

61.1.2.0 (4109)
The diameter of the Earth is approximately:

• 6 350 km

• 12 700 km

• 40 000 km

• 18 500 km

61.1.2.0 (4116)
The circumference of the earth is approximately:

• 5400 NM

• 10800 NM

• 21600 NM

• 43200 NM

61.1.3.0 (4124)
The duration of civil twilight is the time:

• between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon

• needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6°

• agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes

• between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below the true horizondified: Tue, 0

61.1.3.0 (4133)
The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration,
is due to the:

• earth's rotation

• inclination of the ecliptic to the equator

• gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth

• relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic

61.1.4.0 (4138)
Isogonic lines connect positions that have:

• 0° variation

• the same elevation

• the same variation

• the same angle of magnetic dip

61.1.4.0 (4139)
Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:

• Magnetic North and Compass North

• True North and Magnetic North

• the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field

• True North and Compass North

61.1.4.0 (4140)
The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called :

• variation

• deviation

• compass error

• drift

61.1.5.0 (4147)
The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N
007°30'W) is:

• 300 NM

• 450 NM

• 600 NM

• 150 NM

61.4.1.0 (4359)
Given the following:True track: 192°Magnetic variation: 7°EDrift angle: 5°
leftWhat is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?

• 190°

• 194°

• 180°

• 204°

61.4.4.0 (4463)
A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the
aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and:

• fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is
  obtained

• set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or
  railway

• fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained

• fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained

61.4.5.0 (4465)
Given:FL 350,Mach 0.80,OAT -55°C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of
sound (LSS)?

• 237 kt, LSS 296 kt

• 461 kt , LSS 576 kt

• 461 kt , LSS 296 kt

• 490 kt, LSS 461 kt

61.4.5.0 (4468)
What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?

• -50°C

• -56°C

• -66°C

• -81°C

61.4.5.0 (4471)
Given:Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa.What is the approximate airport
pressure altitude?(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)

• 680 FT

• 1680 FT

• 320 FT

• - 320 FT

61.4.5.0 (4473)
Given:Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airportElevation of airport 720 FT.QNH is
1003 hPa.OAT at FL150 -5°C.What is the true altitude of the aircraft?(Assume 1
hPa = 27 FT)

• 15 280 FT

• 15 840 FT

• 14 160 FT

• 14 720 FT

61.4.5.0 (4474)
An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963
hPa, temperature = 32°C).Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second
altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately :

• 4 000 FT

• 6 000 FT

• 6 400 FT

• 6 800 FT

61.4.7.0 (4481)
Given:AD = Air distance GD = Ground distanceTAS = True AirspeedGS =
GroundspeedWhich of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground
distance (GD) gone?

• GD = (AD - TAS)/TAS

• GD = (AD X GS)/TAS

• GD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GS

• GD = TAS/(GS X AD)

61.5.2.0 (4510)
Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending
15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?

• 16.0 NM

• 19.2 NM

• 26.7 NM

• 38.4 NM

61.5.2.0 (4512)
An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80.
Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The
minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:

• 49 NM

• 59 NM

• 69 NM

• 79 NM

61.5.2.0 (4520)
What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with
constant CAS?

• Mach number remains constant, TAS increases

• Mach number increases, TAS increases

• Mach number increases, TAS remains constant

• Mach number decreases, TAS decreases

61.6.4.0 (4587)
Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the Mode
Selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?

• OFF - ALIGN - NAV - ATT

• OFF - ON - ALIGN - NAV

• OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV

• OFF - ALIGN - ATT - NAV

61.6.4.0 (4588)
ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:

• only attitude information

• only attitude and heading information

• altitude, heading and position information

• navigation information

61.6.5.0 (4602)
Where and when are the IRS positions updated?

• IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button at the start of the
  take-off rol

• Only on the ground during the alignment procedure

• Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR
  station or NDB)

• During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC

61.6.5.0 (4603)
The sensors of an INS measure:

• acceleration

• the horizontal component of the earth's rotation

• velocity

• precession

62.1.2.0 (4610)
An aircraft is ""homing"" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of
zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing :

• left drift

• zero drift

• right drift

• a wind from the west

62.1.2.0 (4614)
'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors
from NDB transmissions, is due to:

• static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band

• skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk

• the effect of the Aurora Borealis

• interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB

62.1.2.0 (4615)
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
equipment are caused by:

• signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring

• signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces

• skywave/groundwave contamination

• misalignment of the loop aerial

62.1.2.0 (4616)
Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are
maximum when the NDB is:

• inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

• inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

• near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

• near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

62.1.2.0 (4619)
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?

• Frequency drift at the ground station

• Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day

• Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night

• Mutual interference between aircraft aerials

62.1.2.0 (4621)
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?

• 200 - 1750 kHz

• 200 - 2000 kHz(Aÿÿ¾Æ<M

• 255 - 455 kHz

• 300 - 3000 kHz

62.1.2.0 (4623)
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:

• height error - station interference - mountain effect

• static interference - station interference - latitude error

• static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system

• coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect

62.1.2.0 (4624)
Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest
inaccuracy in ADF bearings?

• Quadrantal error

• Coastal effect

• Local thunderstorm activity

• Precipitation interference

62.1.3.0 (4627)
Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

• night effect

• uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces

• quadrantal error

• static interference

62.1.3.0 (4628)
If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors
could be caused by: