50.4.2.1 (3636) Freezing fog consists of
frozen water droplets
supercooled water droplets
frozen minute snow flakes
ice crystals
50.4.2.1 (3637) The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is :
below 5 kt
between 5 and 10 kt
between 10 and 15 kt
above 15 kt
50.4.2.2 (3639) Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15°C and dew point of 12°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?
Advection fog
Steam fog
Radiation fog
Frontal fog
50.4.2.2 (3640) Advection fog can be formed when
warm moist air flows over a colder surface
cold moist air flows over a warmer surface
warm moist air flows over a warmer surface
cold moist air flows over warmer water
50.4.2.3 (3642) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?
Warm air moving over cold water
The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
Cold air moving over warm water
he coastal region of the sea cools at nigh
50.5.1.1 (3647) Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes?
Moderate rain with large drops.
Heavy rain with large drops.
Drizzle.
Hail.
50.5.2.1 (3649) With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated? a) b) c d) Stratus.
Cumulonimbus.
Stratocumulus.
Nimbostratus.
Stratus.
50.5.2.1 (3650) Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation ?
CS.
NS
SC.
ST
50.5.2.1 (3653) The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that
a cold front has passed
there are thunderstorms in the area
freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
a warm front has passed
With what type of cloud is ""DZ"" precipitation most commonly associated?
CC
CB
CU
50.5.2.1 (3664) Large hail stones
only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes
are entirely composed of clear ice
are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
only occur in frontal thunderstorms
50.5.2.1 (3666) From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?
Cumulus
Altostratus
Cirrostratus.
50.5.2.1 (3667) What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ?
Towering cumulus and altostratus.
Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus.
Altostratus and stratus.
50.6.1.1 (3669) An airmass is unstable when
temperature and humidity are not constant
pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height.
temperature increases with height
50.6.2.2 (3685) The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:
1/50
1/300
1/150
1/500
50.6.2.2 (3686) In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ?
Ahead of a cold front in the winter
Ahead of a warm front in the winter
Ahead of a cold front in the summer
Behind a warm front in the summer
50.6.2.2 (3687) How do air masses move at a warm front ?
Warm air overrides a cold air mass
Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
Cold air overrides a warm air mass
Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
50.6.2.2 (3691) Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if
the cold air is convectively unstable.
the warm air is convectively unstable.
the warm air is convectively stable.
the cold air is convectively stable.
50.6.2.2 (3692) On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching
QFE and QNH increase.
QFE and QNH decrease.
QFE increases and QNH decreases.
QFE decreases and QNH increases.
50.6.2.3 (3694) After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature?
A backing in the wind direction.
An increase in tailwind.
A veering in the wind direction.
A decrease in headwind.
50.6.2.3 (3698) Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ?
Mainly towering clouds
Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed
Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed
Mainly layered clouds
50.6.2.7 (3714) What characterizes a stationary front ?
The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front
50.7.2.1 (3730) What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter?
Thunderstorms.
A tendency for fog and low ST.
The possibility of snow showers.
NS with continuous rain.
50.7.2.1 (3736) A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is
a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N
situated between 50° and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions
quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone
a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
50.7.2.1 (3737) The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by
convection
subsidence
a decrease in temperature
a decrease in pressure
50.7.3.1 (3740) How do you recognize a cold air pool?
As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.
A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.
50.7.3.1 (3743) Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression because of :
surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression
surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression2
surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression
surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression
50.7.3.1 (3745) Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?
It forms over the ocean in winter
It forms over land in summer
It forms over the ocean in summer
It forms over land in winter
50.7.3.1 (3746) Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?
It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense
It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary
It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense
50.7.4.2 (3754) At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan?
September to January.
July to November.
January to May.
May to July.
50.7.4.2 (3755) On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
SE coast
N coast
NE coast
W coast
50.7.4.2 (3756) What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean area?
East then south.
West deep into the USA.
West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.
West in the earlier stages and later turning south east
50.7.4.2 (3757) During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere?
Winter.
Summer and autumn
Winter and spring.
All seasons.
50.7.4.2 (3758) During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?
January until April.
July until November
October until January.
April until July.
50.7.4.2 (3759) The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is
the carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the USA.
the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Réunion.
the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline.
the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
50.7.4.2 (3764) When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia?
May to July
December to April
Not experienced at Darwin
August to October
50.8.1.1 (3765) At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?
30°N.
10°N.
50°N.
80°N
50.8.1.1 (3766) The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer is that
the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.
the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter
converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter
the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows
50.8.1.2 (3768) What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region ?
Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October-November.
Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the year
Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest intensity is in July.
Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year, the frequency is highest in January
50.8.2.2 (3769) When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?
December to February and July to October.
April to July and December to February.
March to May and October to November.
March to May and August to October.
50.8.2.3 (3773) In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
0° - 7°N.
3° - 8°S.
8° - 12°S.
7° - 12°N.
50.8.2.4 (3785) From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
SE
NE
N
SW
50.8.2.4 (3786) What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
Doldrums.
Trade winds.
Monsoon.
Westerly winds.
50.8.2.4 (3787) In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?
In December.
In October.
In March.
In June.
50.8.2.4 (3788) What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation?
Indian, maritime tropical air mass.
South-west monsoon.
South-east trade wind.
Winter monsoon
50.8.2.4 (3791) The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in
December, January, February
July, August, September
September, October, November
February, March, April
50.8.4.1 (3806) What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
Ghibli.
Bora.
Mistral.
Scirocco.
50.8.4.1 (3812) The Bora is a
squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
50.8.4.1 (3813) The Foehn wind is a
cold fall wind
warm anabatic wind
warm fall wind
cold anabatic wind
50.8.4.1 (3814) Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
Bora
Chinook
Scirocco
Harmattan
50.8.4.1 (3817) A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is known as a
Foehn
Mistral
50.9.1.1 (3822) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
CI
SC
50.9.1.1 (3823) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
CS
AS
50.9.1.1 (3824) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ?
FZRA
GR
SHSN
PE
50.9.1.1 (3828) In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion ?
Cirrus clouds.
Freezing rain
Stratus clouds
Snow
50.9.1.1 (3829) In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's surface?
+10°C to 0°C
0°C to -10°C
-20°C to -35°C
-35°C to -50°C
50.9.1.1 (3833) Freezing fog exists if fog droplets
are frozen
are freezing very rapidly
are supercooled
freeze when temperature falls below zero
50.9.1.2 (3840) Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of
small supercooled water drops.
water vapour
large supercooled water drops.
snow.
50.9.1.2 (3841) Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?
Between -20°C and -30°C
Between -30°C and -40°C
Between -2°C and -15°C
Close to the freezing level
50.9.1.2 (3842) Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :
large supercooled water drops
snow
small supercooled water drops
50.9.1.2 (3843) During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze
slowly and do not spread out
rapidly and do not spread out
rapidly and spread
slowly and spread out
50.9.1.2 (3845) Clear ice forms as a result of
water vapour freezing to the aircraft
ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
supercooled droplets freezing on impact
50.9.1.2 (3847) The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be
hoar frost
rime ice
clear ice
cloudy ice
50.9.1.2 (3848) Clear ice is dangerous because it
is translucent and only forms at the leading edges
is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
spreads out and contains many air particles
is not translucent and forms at the leading edges
50.9.1.3 (3853) How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land?
He descends to the warm air layer below.
He ascends to the cold air layer above.
He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.
He continues to fly at the same altitude.
50.9.1.3 (3854) At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change of course and/or altitude desirable"" recommendation be followed?
Moderate
Severe
Light
Extreme
50.9.1.3 (3855) At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change course and/or altitude immediately"" instruction be followed?
50.9.1.3 (3856) At what degree of icing can ICAO's ""No change of course and altitude necessary"" recommendation be followed?
50.9.1.3 (3857) The most dangerous form of airframe icing is
clear ice.
hoar frost.
dry ice.
50.9.2.1 (3859) How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude.
Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily.
Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.
Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.
50.9.2.1 (3861) What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
Change of flight level.
Change of course.
Decrease of speed.
Increase of speed.
50.9.2.2 (3864) The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the
intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
height of the aircraft
intensity of the solar radiation
stability of the air
50.9.3.2 (3869) Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night
and early morning only in winter
in association with radiation inversions
in unstable atmospheres
and early morning only in summer
50.9.3.2 (3870) The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt
near valleys and at the windward side of mountains..
50.9.4.1 (3872) Where is a squall line to be expected?
In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.
Behind a cold front.
At the surface position of a warm front
In front of an active cold front.
50.9.4.1 (3873) What are squall lines?
The surface weather associated with upper air troughs.
Bands of intensive thunderstorms.
The paths of tropical revolving storms.
Unusual intensive cold fronts.
50.9.4.1 (3874) What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?
Strong steady rain
Thunderstorms
Fog
Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels
50.9.4.1 (3875) At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB?
From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450.
From the ground up to about FL 200.
From the ground up to about FL 100.
From the base of the clouds up to FL 200.
50.9.4.1 (3876) A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered
at an occluded front
in an airmass with cold mass properties
ahead of a cold front
behind of a stationary front
50.9.4.1 (3877) In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously?
Cumulus stage
Mature stage
Dissipating stage
In all stages
50.9.4.2 (3882) During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur ?
Mature stage.
Cumulus stage.
Dissipating stage.
Cumulus stage and mature stage.
50.9.4.2 (3884) Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may lead to thunderstorm development ?
AC lenticularis.
AC castellanus.
Halo.
Red cirrus
50.9.4.2 (3890) Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
dissipating stage.
mature stage.
cumulus stage.
period in which precipitation is not falling.
50.9.4.2 (3891) What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
Water vapour and high pressure
A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
50.9.4.2 (3893) In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered ?
Polar
Tropical
Subtropical
Temperate
50.9.4.4 (3897) What is a microburst?
An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.
A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air.
A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air.
A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.
50.9.4.5 (3903) Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct?
An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a ""Faradays cage"", which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock
Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing.
Aircraft made by composite material can´t conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck.
An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.
50.9.5.1 (3906) The diameter of a typical tornado is
only a few metres
100 to 150 metres
about 2 to 6 km
in the order of 10 km
50.10.1.1 (3918) The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
1 m above the runway.
On the roof of the weather station.
50.10.1.1 (3919) What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""BKN""?
5 - 7 oktas.
3 - 4 oktas.
6 - 8 oktas.
8 oktas.
50.10.1.1 (3920) When is the RVR reported at most airports?
When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.
When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.
When the RVR decreases below 800 m.
When the RVR decreases below 2000 m
50.10.1.1 (3921) When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
With gusts of at least 25 knots
With gusts of at least 35 knots
50.10.1.1 (3922) While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR runway 23: 400mThis information indicates the
meteorological visibility on runway 23.
portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in service.
length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23.
minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.
50.10.1.1 (3925) The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above
the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
airfield level
mean sea level
the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
50.10.1.4 (3929) Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?
Hail
Water vapour
Any cloud
50.10.2.1 (3931) In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?
500 hPa chart.
Significant Weather Chart.
24 hour surface forecast.
300 hPa chart
50.10.2.1 (3932) On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream?
Wind / temperature chart.
Significant weather chart.
Surface chart.
Upper air chart.
50.10.2.1 (3933) Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing level ?
500 hPa chart
700 hPa chart
Significant weather chart
Surface chart
50.10.2.1 (3934) What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?
The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chart
The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart
50.10.2.4 (3950) How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?
EMBD CB
OCNL CB.
SOL CB
FREQ CB.
50.10.3.1 (3966) What does the abbreviation ""nosig"" mean?
No report received
No significant changes
No weather related problems
Not signed by the meteorologistu
50.10.3.1 (3967) In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway?
SIGMET
METAR
GAFOR
TAF
50.10.3.1 (3968) In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest?
VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =
VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =
00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =
50.10.3.1 (3969) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =
50.10.3.1 (3970) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =
LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =
LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =
50.10.3.1 (3972) Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux ?
Continuous moderate rain
Light drizzle and fog
Heavy rain showers
Moderate snow showers
50.10.3.1 (3980) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam?
250 FT
500 FT
500 m
800 FTD
50.10.3.1 (3981) In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time:EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc =EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst mov e wkn =Which decision is correct?
Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).
Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.
You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be flown.
You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route would demand too much of the passengers
50.10.3.1 (3984) What does the term METAR signify?
A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report.i
A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervals.
A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.
A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
50.10.3.1 (3986) What is a SPECI?
A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.
A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required.
A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have been observed.
An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours
50.10.3.1 (3987) Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428What must you consider when making performance calculations?
The runway will be wet.
The friction coefficient is 0.28
The braking action will be medium to good
Aquaplaning conditions
50.10.3.1 (3988) Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the ""BECMG"" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.
Many short term changes in the original weather.
The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
Many long term changes in the original weather.
50.10.3.1 (3990) Refer to the following TAF extract,BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""PROB30"" mean?
Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.
Probability of 30%
Change expected in less than 30 minutes
The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT
50.10.3.1 (3991) What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?
The average speed of the previous 10 minutes
The strongest gust in the previous hour
The average speed of the previous 30 minutes
The actual speed at the time of recording
50.10.3.1 (3993) What does the term TREND signify?
It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals
It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
50.10.3.1 (3994) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?
SN
FZFG
BCFG
HZ
50.10.3.1 (3996) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?
DZ
TS
SA
SQ
50.10.3.1 (3997) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf =
Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps
Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380
Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260
Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 380
50.10.3.1 (3998) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst nc =
Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west
Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant
The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR
Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC
50.10.3.1 (4000) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:
1000 FT.
1500 FT.
1500 m.
5000 FT.
50.10.3.1 (4001) The following weather reportEDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001is a :
9 hour TAF
24 hour TAF.
SPECI.
50.10.3.1 (4002) In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the
QFE rounded to the nearest hPa.
QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa
QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa.
QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa
50.10.3.1 (4003) What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""SCT"" ?
3 - 4 oktas
1 - 2 oktas
5 - 7 oktas
1 - 4 oktas
50.10.3.1 (4007) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours?
34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG =
23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =
16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 =
50.10.3.1 (4008) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours?
1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG =
1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =
1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =
1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =
50.10.3.1 (4009) In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the coming night the highest?
1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =
1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
50.10.3.1 (4010) Look at this TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z =Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?
Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C.
Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots.
Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3000 feet, wind 250°, temperature 18°C.
Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts up to 35 knots.
50.10.3.1 (4011) Refer to the TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 =Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC?
Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloudbase 500 feet
Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
50.10.3.1 (4013) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""?
34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =
00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =
27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =
50.10.3.1 (4015) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100 metres
RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres
50.10.3.1 (4018) The validity of a TAF is
between 6 and 9 hours
2 hours
stated in the TAF
9 hours from the time of issue
50.10.3.1 (4020) Runway visual range can be reported in
a METAR
a SIGMET
a TAF
both a TAF and a METAR
50.10.3.1 (4021) SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to
all aircraft
VFR operations only
light aircraft only
heavy aircraft only
50.10.3.1 (4022) A SPECI is
a warning for special weather phenomena
an aviation routine weather report
an aviation selected special weather report
a forecast for special weather phenomena
50.10.3.1 (4024) The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the
average value of the A-, B- and C-position
value representative of the touchdown zone
lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position
highest value of the A-, B- and C-position
50.10.3.1 (4025) At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td = -1,5°C.In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the ""temperature group"" will be:
00/M01
M00/M01
M01/M01
M01/M02
50.10.3.2 (4028) ATIS information contains
operational information and if necessary meteorological information
meteorological and operational information
only meteorological information
only operational information
50.10.3.3 (4086) A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in
METAR and SIGMET
SWC and SIGMET
TAF and SIGMET
TAF and METAR
50.10.3.5 (4087) What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
kt
kt/100 FT.
m/100 FT
m/sec.
61.1.2.0 (4109) The diameter of the Earth is approximately:
6 350 km
12 700 km
40 000 km
18 500 km
61.1.2.0 (4116) The circumference of the earth is approximately:
5400 NM
10800 NM
21600 NM
43200 NM
61.1.3.0 (4124) The duration of civil twilight is the time:
between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon
needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6°
agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes
between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below the true horizondified: Tue, 0
61.1.3.0 (4133) The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the:
earth's rotation
inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth
relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
61.1.4.0 (4138) Isogonic lines connect positions that have:
0° variation
the same elevation
the same variation
the same angle of magnetic dip
61.1.4.0 (4139) Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:
Magnetic North and Compass North
True North and Magnetic North
the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field
True North and Compass North
61.1.4.0 (4140) The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called :
variation
deviation
compass error
drift
61.1.5.0 (4147) The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N 007°30'W) is:
300 NM
450 NM
600 NM
150 NM
61.4.1.0 (4359) Given the following:True track: 192°Magnetic variation: 7°EDrift angle: 5° leftWhat is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?
190°
194°
180°
204°
61.4.4.0 (4463) A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and:
fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is obtained
set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or railway
fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained
fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained
61.4.5.0 (4465) Given:FL 350,Mach 0.80,OAT -55°C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound (LSS)?
237 kt, LSS 296 kt
461 kt , LSS 576 kt
461 kt , LSS 296 kt
490 kt, LSS 461 kt
61.4.5.0 (4468) What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?
-50°C
-56°C
-66°C
-81°C
61.4.5.0 (4471) Given:Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa.What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
680 FT
1680 FT
320 FT
- 320 FT
61.4.5.0 (4473) Given:Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airportElevation of airport 720 FT.QNH is 1003 hPa.OAT at FL150 -5°C.What is the true altitude of the aircraft?(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
15 280 FT
15 840 FT
14 160 FT
14 720 FT
61.4.5.0 (4474) An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32°C).Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately :
4 000 FT
6 000 FT
6 400 FT
6 800 FT
61.4.7.0 (4481) Given:AD = Air distance GD = Ground distanceTAS = True AirspeedGS = GroundspeedWhich of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance (GD) gone?
GD = (AD - TAS)/TAS
GD = (AD X GS)/TAS
GD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GS
GD = TAS/(GS X AD)
61.5.2.0 (4510) Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?
16.0 NM
19.2 NM
26.7 NM
38.4 NM
61.5.2.0 (4512) An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:
49 NM
59 NM
69 NM
79 NM
61.5.2.0 (4520) What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS?
Mach number remains constant, TAS increases
Mach number increases, TAS increases
Mach number increases, TAS remains constant
Mach number decreases, TAS decreases
61.6.4.0 (4587) Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the Mode Selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?
OFF - ALIGN - NAV - ATT
OFF - ON - ALIGN - NAV
OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV
OFF - ALIGN - ATT - NAV
61.6.4.0 (4588) ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:
only attitude information
only attitude and heading information
altitude, heading and position information
navigation information
61.6.5.0 (4602) Where and when are the IRS positions updated?
IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button at the start of the take-off rol
Only on the ground during the alignment procedure
Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR station or NDB)
During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC
61.6.5.0 (4603) The sensors of an INS measure:
acceleration
the horizontal component of the earth's rotation
velocity
precession
62.1.2.0 (4610) An aircraft is ""homing"" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing :
left drift
zero drift
right drift
a wind from the west
62.1.2.0 (4614) 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
the effect of the Aurora Borealis
interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB
62.1.2.0 (4615) Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
skywave/groundwave contamination
misalignment of the loop aerial
62.1.2.0 (4616) Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:
inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
62.1.2.0 (4619) Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
Frequency drift at the ground station
Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
62.1.2.0 (4621) Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
200 - 1750 kHz
200 - 2000 kHz(Aÿÿ¾Æ<M
255 - 455 kHz
300 - 3000 kHz
62.1.2.0 (4623) Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
height error - station interference - mountain effect
static interference - station interference - latitude error
static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect
62.1.2.0 (4624) Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
Quadrantal error
Coastal effect
Local thunderstorm activity
Precipitation interference
62.1.3.0 (4627) Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
night effect
uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
quadrantal error
static interference
62.1.3.0 (4628) If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
interference from other transmitters
sky wave interference from the same transmitter
noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter
sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency
62.1.3.0 (4635) An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
255°
262°
278°
285°
62.1.3.0 (4639) Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
VHF
UHF
HF
SHF
62.1.3.0 (4641) An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
064° with the TO flag showing
064° with the FROM flag showing
244° with the FROM flag showing
244° with the TO flag showing
62.1.3.0 (4642) What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
147 NM
156 NM
184 NM
220 NM
62.1.3.0 (4645) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
151 NM
170 NM
190 NM
230 NM
62.1.3.0 (4646) If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
constant magnetic track
rhumbline track
great circle track
line of constant bearing
62.1.3.0 (4647) An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :
90 NM
100 NM
110 NM
120 NM
62.1.3.0 (4648) An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :
123 NM
130 NM
135 NM
142 NM
62.1.3.0 (4649) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:
163 NM
183 NM
204 NM
245 NM
62.1.3.0 (4652) An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
NW
62.1.3.0 (4656) The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :
108 to 117.95 MHz
108 to 111.95 MHz
118 to 135.95 MHz
108 to 135.95 MHz
62.1.3.0 (4657) If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be :
030°
210°
330°
150°
62.1.3.0 (4659) The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?
1230 km
12.3 NM
123 km
62.1.3.0 (4660) Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,Selected course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:
behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
62.1.4.0 (4661) A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
14 NM
16 NM
15 NM
17 NM
62.1.4.0 (4666) The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
108 to 118 MHz
329 to 335 MHz
962 to 1213 MHz
962 to 1213 kHz.
62.1.4.0 (4669) A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
10 MHz
100 MHz
100 GHz
1000 MHz
62.1.4.0 (4670) Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniquess
UHF band and is a secondary radar system
UHF band and is a primary radar system
62.1.4.0 (4672) On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:
airborne equipment failure
the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search
ground equipment failure
62.1.4.0 (4674) The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
DME transmits twin pulses
62.1.5.0 (4684) A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
50 feet above ILS reference point
200 feet above the runway threshold
runway surface
200 feet above the inner marker
62.1.5.0 (4692) ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
back-scattering of antennas
multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
ground returns ahead of the antennas
spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles
62.1.5.0 (4693) What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
white - amber - blue
blue - amber - white
amber - white - green
blue - green - white
62.1.5.0 (4695) An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
50 FT/MIN
150 FT/MIN
250 FT/MIN
100 FT/MIN
62.1.5.0 (4697) In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
EHF
62.1.5.0 (4698) Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display represent :
0.5 degrees
1.5 degrees
2.0 degrees
2.5 degrees
62.1.5.0 (4702) The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately:
800 FT/MIN
850 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN
670 FT/MIN
62.1.5.0 (4703) Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline
At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the extended centreline
On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended centreline
At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdowng
