SFPC 5 | Quiz

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Which of the following statements are true?

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Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply.)

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Which paragraph of the AT plan lists the specific task for each subordinate unit?

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Which AT plan exercise(s) uses scenario driven events to test specific portions of the AT plan?

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Which of the following are reasons why AT plan exercises are important?

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Whose primary responsibility is working with Industrial Security Representatives (IS Reps) and contractor personnel to authorize and maintain classified Information Systems?

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True or false? An employee’s need for a Personnel Security Clearance (PCL) is determined by the program manager, but the clearance level is determined by the Government Contracting Activity (GCA).

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When an employee no longer needs access to classified information, who is responsible for removing access and debriefing the employee?

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Which of the following organizations conducts periodic Security Vulnerability Assessments (SVAs) of contractor facilities as the CSO to the Department of Defense?

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When cleared contractors visit a cleared facility or government installation, whose security requirements take precedence?

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After a need is identified, the Government Contracting Activity (GCA) ___________________.

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Who administers and oversees the contractor security program?

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True or false? The Contracting Officer’s Representative (COR) is authorized to make changes to the contract, even if those changes affect price or quality.

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Which contracting document provides a record of the contractor’s commitment to comply with the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?

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The ______________ has been designated as the Cognizant Security Office (CSO) for the DoD and over 30 other non-DoD agencies.

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Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

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True or false? A contractor facility may access and store classified material as soon as the Facility Clearance (FCL) is granted.

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Which of the following topics is NOT included in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?

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Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following roles are filled by contractor employees?

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Select ALL the correct responses. The National Industrial Security Program (NISP) is:

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Select ALL the correct responses. The Cognizant Security Office (CSO) does which of the following?

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Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA) responsibilities?

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To issue a Facility Clearance (FCL), the Facility Clearance Branch (FCB) reviews which of the following?

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Who performs classified Information System assessments?

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Select ALL the correct responses. DD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification, contains which of the following?

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What is OPSEC?

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How many steps are there in the OPSEC process?

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What step in the OPSEC process is Analyzing Threats?

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____________ are like pieces of a puzzle an adversary uses to reveal a picture of our operations.

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What is the last step in the OPSEC process?

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Simonne left a safe containing classified material open while she went out for lunch. There is no evidence that anyone had access to the material while she was out, but nobody can confirm that the materials were safe from disclosure. What type of violation has occurred?

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Security violations are reported to which entity?

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Changes in a facility's storage capability are reported how?

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Cleared employees who refuse to execute Standard Form 312 are reported how?

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Loss, compromise, and suspected compromise of classified information are reported how?

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Any individual or group that represents a foreign government is considered a security threat.

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Reports on changes in KMP are required only when there is a change in the president, CEO, or FSO.

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Of the scenarios listed below, which ones must be reported to your IS Rep as change conditions affecting the facility's clearance?

a. The company has merged with another company and is under new ownership.
b. The company has hired 12 new employees to support a new major contract.
c. The company is moving to a new location to meet the needs of its growing staff.
d. The company just lost its largest contract and has filed for bankruptcy.

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Evidence of tampering with your facility's classified storage container is an example of what type of security threat?

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Which of the following is reported to PSMO-I?

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After returning from a recent professional conference, Franklin received a request for classified information from an uncleared person that he met at the conference. What kind of report should be submitted?

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The two primary methods of submitting reports to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS Field Office are _ and __.

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Working late one evening on a priority project, Helen left several classified documents visible on her desk while she stepped away from her desk for a moment. When she returned, she found a member of the cleaning crew straightening the classified documents on her desk. What type of violation has occurred?

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Of the following types of personnel-related information, which is NOT reported to PSMO-I?

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Failure to report unauthorized disclosure of classified information does not affect the service members’ safety.

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According to the NISPOM, espionage, sabotage, terrorism, or subversive activities should be reported as a(n) ___________________.

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Contractors must report to the DSS IS Rep only those violations that result in the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information.

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NISPOM paragraph 1-300 states that contractors must report certain events to the government.

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According to NISPOM paragraph 1-300, which of the following is the contractor required to report to the government?

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Assessing a vulnerability in conjunction with the threat, and then determining the impact this would have on an operation if the vulnerability is exploited determines the level of risk.

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OPSEC is a systematic, proven process to identify, control and protect classified information about a mission, operation or activity, and, thus, denying/mitigating adversary's ability to compromise/interrupt that mission, operation or activity.

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Patterns, stereotypes, and predictable actions are all types of which of the following?

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An adversary's capability is defined as his ability to do which of the following?

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What are the elements of threat?

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Which step in the OPSEC process is a decision making step because it helps the decision maker prioritize and decide whether or not to apply a countermeasure?

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The development of a countermeasure focuses directly on the

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Why do we need to have threat information?

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What is the preferred method of assessing the risk to your organization?

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Which organizations are tasked with establishing OPSEC programs under the law signed by President Reagan?

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What factor takes into account the impact that a compromise would have on your operation?

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Why should organizations use and practice OPSEC?

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OPSEC focuses on what type of critical information?

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Lack of proper training, use of non-secure communications, and poor system design are all examples of

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When dealing with countermeasure development, what is the bottom line?

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Identifying what an adversary already knows about your operation helps you to

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In order to determine our critical information, we need to consider both the friendly and adversary points of view.

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Which of the following statements concerning activity tip-offs is correct?

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The level of risk is indirectly proportional to all three factors of risk.

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The more we know about an adversary's intent and capability, the better we can judge how and why he may collect the information that he needs.

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Identifying a unit based upon how they deploy their equipment is an example of

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Which of the following is NOT a step in the OPSEC process?

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Which step in the OPSEC process requires you to look at your operation through the eyes of the adversary?

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Which of the following statements BEST describes the risk status if any one element of risk shrinks to zero?

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Specific facts about friendly intentions, capabilities, and operations vitally needed by adversaries to plan and act effectively is called

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Which of the following countermeasures may be necessary if routine activities provide an adversary with tip-offs to critical information?

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An advantage of incorporating the use of OPSEC surveys is that it

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Which of the following countermeasures should be used sparingly because of its expense and maintenance difficulty?

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Your knowledge of which factors impact your capability to analyze your vulnerabilities?

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Which of the following BEST identifies the goal of OPSEC?

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What document signed by President Reagan directed the establishment of OPSEC programs, and in what year did this document become law?

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Observable and detectable items that can be pieced together through analysis to reveal sensitive information about your operation are called

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Which of the following countermeasures is considered among the most effective for all organizations?

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It's often the little things we do every day that can develop into vulnerabilities and cause damage to our operation.

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An advantage of incorporating OPSEC principles in the planning stage of any operation is that it

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An advantage of using good OPSEC principles during contingencies is that it

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Because each adversary may have different intentions and capabilities, you may need to enact different scenarios for different adversaries.

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Which of the following, when looked at by itself or in conjunction with something else, can point to a vulnerability that an adversary can exploit?

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What is defined as a weakness that can be exploited by an adversary?

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Risk is a function of the

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An advantage of integrating OPSEC principles in your day-to-day operations is that it

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OPSEC differs from other programs because it requires you to look at yourself through the eyes of the adversary.

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Anyone who opposes or acts against your interest is called a(n)

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In analyzing the threat, we are concerned with adversaries that

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Stan has recently witnessed some unusual behavior from a co-worker. He’s not sure if he should report it, but he knows it is better not to report an incident or behavior than to make a potentially false report.

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Jorge is a security official for a DoD organization. Where can he find reporting procedures that pertain to his organization?

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Security officials should seek out and consider threat information only from official, government sources.

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Which of the following is an objective of the DSS CI Directorate?

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Specific reporting procedures vary widely across agencies and contractor facilities. While imminent threats should be reported directly to the FBI, employees should use their agency’s or facility’s reporting procedures to report other threats through their chain of command.

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Incorporating counterintelligence and threat awareness into a security program can potentially prevent theft, espionage, and loss of life.

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Jack is his organization’s Facility Security Officer. He is working with other company officials to identify the organization’s assets. When they identify assets, they should include only classified information.

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Sam is a Facility Security Officer for a cleared defense contractor. Which of the following should Sam refer to for counterintelligence and threat awareness requirements for contractors?

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A cleared U.S. company received a request to sell export-controlled technology to an Eastern European security organization. This is an example of _____________________.

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Select ALL the correct responses. Adam is an expert in his organization’s dual use technology. He is invited to speak at a foreign conference. He knows seminars, conventions, and exhibits can be used by adversaries to target knowledgeable resources like him. What are some of the indicators Adam should look out for?

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Anna is her organization’s Facility Security Officer. When considering assets, she knows that the greatest target of our adversaries is ___________.

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Which step of the analytical risk management process includes considering the impact to military and strategic advantage?

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Which of the following is a secure online environment offered by the OPM Center for Federal Investigative Services?

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The Secretary of Defense is the Executive Agent of the National Industrial Security Program and is responsible for overall implementation of the program.

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The Cognizant Security Office (CSO) for the DoD is Director of National Intelligence (DNI).

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Which government entity is responsible for providing National Industrial Security Program (NISP) policy direction?

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What document does DSS publish and post on its website to change or clarify existing policy requirements in the NISPOM?

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Only select Cognizant Security Agencies (CSAs) have hotlines for reporting industrial security issues.

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XYZ Industries is a cleared facility that is moving its headquarters to a less expensive office space. This need to be reported to the company’s IS Rep?

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Which of the following includes all the steps necessary for processing a facility clearance and a list of the documents and information that the Facility Security Officer (FSO) must gather to prepare for the Facility Clearance Branch (FCB) telephonic survey?

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In the NISPOM, what location does “1-302” represent?

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The domestic delivery services approved for overnight domestic delivery of Secret and Confidential information are listed in the ______________________.

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When is an SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, executed?

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Which of the following would not be reported to the Personnel Security Management Office for Industry (PSMO-I)?

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What DSS organization provides security education and training to DoD and other U.S. government personnel and contractors?

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What legally binding document must be executed between the Department of Defense and a contractor to obtain a facility clearance?

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One purpose of the National Industrial Security Program (NISP) is to preserve our nation’s economic and technological interests.

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Which resource guides Facility Security Officers (FSOs) through the self-inspection process and provides techniques to improve the quality of self-inspections?

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Company ABC was recently issued a facility clearance and has been awarded its first classified contract. Which form should the company receive with the contract that provides specific guidance about what information is classified and at what classification level?

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As defined in the NISPOM, ______ is the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified information.

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What security control measure outlines the specific export-controlled information that has been authorized for release during a foreign visit and delineates how a company will control access?

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If the visitor organization and host organization both use the DoD System of Record, visit notifications are sent electronically, which speeds the approval process.

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When the host organization approves a visit request, this approval constitutes _____.

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If there is not a contractual relationship between the visitor’s organization and the host organization, where must the host organization obtain authorization for disclosure of classified information?

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What security control measures must the host organization implement for a classified meeting?

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An individual’s access level is directly related to the employer organization’s Facility Clearance level and the level of access needed for the individual to do his or her job.

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When is it appropriate for the visitor’s organization to submit a visit authorization letter (VAL)?

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Where are actions, such as Personnel Security Clearance terminations, upgrades, downgrades, and reinstatements, on contractor employees entered?

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Which of the following is a good security practice in areas where classified information may be subject to unauthorized disclosure?

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Select ALL of the correct responses. Which of the following are security briefing topics for visitors?

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_____ describes the level of information to which a person is authorized access based on a background investigation.

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Who must submit the RFV when a foreign national needs to visit a U.S. contractor facility to discuss classified information?

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What system may be used to verify a company’s Facility Clearance status?

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Who sponsors classified meetings in the NISP?

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What is a final security control in the NISP when the purpose of a visit has been accomplished?

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Government employees temporarily stationed at a contractor facility ______ control of their work products to the contractor.

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Who sends the NATO Request for Visit (RFV) approval to the NATO site?

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When does a host need to coordinate with the visitor’s organization regarding the Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement (SF-312)?

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International visit requirements apply when information to be disclosed is classified or unclassified but related to classified contracts or otherwise subject to export controls under the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) or Export Administration Regulations (EAR).

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NATO briefings require a signed certificate.

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Which of the following is used in the PCL process to determine a candidate’s eligibility?

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Who makes the interim eligibility determination?

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To whom does the FSO submit the applicant’s completed SF-86 and both signed release forms?

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How is the FSO notified that a cleared employee may be due for a periodic reinvestigation?

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The only requirement for employees to access classified information is to have a favorable eligibility determination.

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A contractor facility has been awarded classified contracts that require access to information classified at the Confidential and Secret levels. What is the level of FCL required by the contractor?

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What is the purpose of an annual clearance justification review?

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One of the conditions required for a pre-existing eligibility determination issued by one federal agency to be accepted by another federal agency is for the determination to be based on an investigation of sufficient scope that is current to within _________.

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The thirteen adjudicative guidelines involve assessing a candidate using criteria that addresses a specific concern that can impact the candidate’s ability to protect national security.

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If a candidate has a record in the DoD system of record (JPAS/DISS) and a pre-existing eligibility determination, the FSO assesses whether that determination may be accepted in lieu of initiating a new investigation to determine eligibility.

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The __________________ develops and implements a facility’s security program.

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A company cleared at the Secret level hires a new employee. The new employee has a current Top Secret eligibility, which was granted by her previous employer. What is the highest level of classified access she may have for work performed for her new employer?

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Which investigation type is required for an initial Secret clearance?

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The FSO submits the applicant’s completed SF-86 using which of the following?

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How is the applicant’s FSO notified if the applicant receive an unfavorable eligibility determination?

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Which of the following provides policy about PCLs and defines access criteria?

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Which investigation is used for a periodic reinvestigation of an individual possessing a Secret or Confidential clearance eligibility?

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Facility employees may be processed for personnel security clearances concurrently with the processing of, or after the award of, a facility’s FCL.

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During which stage of the personnel security clearance process are the thirteen guidelines used?

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Who has primary responsibility for the adjudication of personnel security background investigations?

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An interim eligibility determination grants the applicant permanent access to classified information by bypassing the remainder of the PCL process.

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Which investigation type is required for an initial Top Secret Clearance?

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Which of the following items must the FSO report to the PSMO-I?

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To whom may eligibility decisions be appealed if the DoD CAF denies eligibility?

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Which of the following government entities typically determines personnel security clearance eligibility?

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Which type of security training typically informs cleared employees of changes or updates to security regulations?

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Which activities are recommended as part of continuous evaluation program at a cleared facility?
a. periodic reinvestigations
b. annual clearance justification reviews
c. reporting required information

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Which of the following government entities adjudicates unfavorable eligibility determinations that are appealed?

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When is an applicant required to submit fingerprints in addition to his/her security application?