(001) What three parts of the work center mission are defined during the analysis phase?
a. Manning, purpose, and products.
b. Purpose, products, and customers.
c. Purpose, manning, and customers.
d. Manning, products, and customers.
(001) When performing a needs assessment you must look at
a. contingency tasks and product tasks.
b. additional duties and customer tasks.
c. special work requirements, product tasks, and customer tasks.
d. additional duties, recurring tasks, contingency tasks, and special work requirements.
(001) Which source usually provides the best information for identifying work center tasks?
a. Interviews.
b. Questionnaires.
c. Several sources.
d. Existing documents.
(002) Although generic in nature, the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) lists mandatory and desirable items for the various
a. positions in each Air Force specialty code (AFSC).
b. skill levels in each AFSC.
c. assignments in each AFSC.
d. subdivisions in each AFSC.
(002) The specialty training standard (STS) is part of the
a. AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record.
b. Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS)
c. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
d. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
(003) What qualifications are needed for a person to be considered a subject matter expert (SME)?
a. Recent job experience and trainer skills.
b. Field expertise and recent job experience.
c. Time in grade and supervisory experience.
d. Field expertise and familiarity with the training systems being used.
003) When preparing for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, your first step is to review the
a. management engineering team surveys.
b. applicable training standards.
c. unit’s mission statements.
d. unit’s training folders.
(003) The publication that contains information about organizations and their mission is the
a. Air Force index (AFIND).
b. Air Force instruction (AFI).
c. Air Force manual (AFMAN).
d. Air Force mission directive (AFMD).
(003) When you do research for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, the easiest tasks to identify are the
a. normal day-to-day requirements.
b. contingency requirements.
c. ancillary requirements.
d. unique requirements.
(003) In researching for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, which form identifies the duties required for civilian personnel?
a. AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.
b. AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description.
c. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
d. AF Form 125, Application for Extended Active Duty with the United States Air Force.
(003) Questions developed for a subject matter expert (SME) interview should be
a. multiple choice only.
b. yes and no answer-type only.
c. pertinent to the idea and random.
d. specific and pertinent to the subject.
(003) When conducting a subject matter expert (SME) interview, you should communicate on a level which
a. promotes mutual respect.
b. signifies the interviewee is inferior.
c. recognizes the interviewee as a superior.
d. implies that the interviewer is superior to the interviewee.
(003) When asking questions during a subject matter expert interview (SME), speak
a. clearly and forcibly.
b. distinctly and clearly.
c. forcibly and distinctly.
d. distinctly and with the correct pitch.
003) After asking a question during a subject matter expert (SME) interview, what should you do to show you care about the response?
a. Listen to the reply.
b. Establish good eye contact.
c. Proceed directly to the next question.
d. Mentally formulate another question.
(004) What are the three sections of a questionnaire?
a. Instructions, background, and questions.
b. Identification, task listing, and questions.
c. Identification, task listing, and background.
d. Instructions, background, and additional comments.
(004) Once you write the instructions for a questionnaire, what is the next step?
a. Proof read the instructions yourself.
b. Rewrite the instructions as necessary.
c. Include the instructions in the questionnaire.
d. Have someone else read the instructions and provide input.
(004) When used on a questionnaire, a closed-ended question
a. allows for additional comments.
b. allows for a wide range of answers.
c. limits the choice of possible responses.
d. requires the respondents to use their own words to describe a task.
(005) When developing a master task listing (MTL), to keep it useful, you should remember to
a. keep it as simple as possible.
b. place it in a computer system.
c. use it to the advantage of the designer.
d. make it complex and technically accurate.
(005) Which training document shows tasks that are applicable to an entire career field and can be part of a master task listing (MTL)?
a. AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record–Continuation Sheet.
b. Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).
(005) Which training document is prepared by Air Force career field managers (AFCFM) and describes a particular duty position?
a. AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record–Continuation Sheet.
(005) When completing a local training standard, what is an observable and measurable unit of work?
a. Duty.
b. Task.
c. Subtask.
d. Procedural skill.
(006) When determining training capability, at what level is the first attempt to resolve a lack of training capability made?
a. Work center.
b. Unit training.
c. Base training.
d. Major command.
(006) When a question of training capability arises, what base-level tool is available to determine if there are any local personnel who hold the Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?
a. Training folders.
b. Personnel records.
c. Military Personnel data system (MILPDS).
d. Core automated maintenance system (CAMS).
(006) What training status code (TSC) is used when a training capability problem prevents a trainee from progressing in training?
a. M
b. P.
c. R.
d. S.
(007) Who can authorize automation of a specialty training standard (STS)?
a. Base training manager.
b. Major command (MAJCOM) training manager.
c. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
d. MAJCOM functional manager.
(007) When conducting an initial evaluation on a recent technical school graduate, you should base the evaluation on the tasks listed in the
a. Report of Task Evaluations.
c. Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
d. Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
(007) When conducting an initial evaluation on a reassigned individual, you determine if the individual is still qualified on work center tasks by
a. using only the specialty training standard (STS) to conduct the evaluation.
b. matching the individual’s qualifications to the work center requirements.
c. evaluating only the individual’s knowledge of the tasks required for the assigned duty position.
d. evaluating the individual’s ability to do the task based on the proficiency levels listed in the appropriate training standard.
(007) Unit review exercise (URE) questions are designed to be answered by which method?
a. Open book
b. Closed book.
c. Group study.
d. Open forum.
(008) When writing an objective, the minimum requirement is that the objective contains a
a. condition, performance/behavior, and a standard.
b. condition and standard.
c. performance/behavior.
d. standard.
(008) Which element of an objective tells a trainee the level of performance that must be met?
a. Standard.
b. Condition.
c. Performance/behavior.
d. Condition and behavior.
(009) What are the two types of test items?
a. Matching or essay.
b. Selection or supply.
c. Selection or completion.
d. Supply or multiple choice.
(009) Which type of test questions can you use in the same way as multiple-choice type questions?
a. Completion.
b. True-false.
c. Matching.
d. Essay.
(009) When you match each test question with the objective it measures, and if the questions pertain to the performance/behavior portions of each objective, then the test is
a. comprehensive.
b. objective.
c. reliable.
d. valid.
(009) If a test distinguishes between poor, average, and outstanding trainees, it is called
b. differentiating.
(010) The references or materials used by the trainee during the performance test are those
a. the MAJCOM determines are required.
b. the supervisor determines are needed.
c. used by the trainee while learning the objective.
d. the trainee determines are needed to accomplish the task.
(010) When you develop a checklist to use for scoring a performance test, you include those items
a. required by the major command (MAJCOM).
b. the trainee is to be denied.
c. required for complete performance.
d. the trainee is allowed enough time to complete during the test.
(010) Due to the error of standard, which is a common rating error that detracts from a test, the evaluator may rate the trainee either high or low based on his or her own
a. requirement to do the task.
b. qualification to do the task.
c. expertise to do the task.
d. ability to do the task.
011) After completing task breakdowns during lesson plan development, which elements become the major teaching steps?
a. Subtasks.
b. Procedural skills.
c. Supporting knowledge.
d. Elements listed in AFMAN 36–2108.
(011) A task breakdown indicates that a trainee must use a screwdriver to complete the task. Tool use is identified on the task breakdown as a
a. task.
b. subtask.
c. procedural skill.
d. supporting knowledge.
(011) Once you complete the task breakdown, who should review it next?
a. Other subject matter experts.
b. Newly assigned personnel.
c. Recent technical school graduates.
d. A 5-skill level staff sergeant (SSgt).
(012) When you develop a lesson plan, which portion of the introduction helps to focus the trainee’s attention on the first major teaching step?
a. Transition.
b. Overview.
c. Attention.
d. Motivation.
(013) One of the more versatile teaching aids available is the
a. filmstrip.
b. television.
c. chalkboard.
d. flat picture.
(013) Which training aid provides the trainee with a realistic job-type setting since it enhances transfer of learning?
a. Mockups.
b. Simulator.
c. Television.
d. Printed matter.
(014) When you coordinate a training session schedule, the more you involve the supervisors in the process the more
a. they will accept it.
b. the program is used.
c. “no-shows” you will have.
d. time it takes for coordination.
(014) When you schedule training, what are the three steps you must follow?
a. Prepare an agenda, coordinate, and conduct the training.
b. Prepare an agenda, coordinate, and assign trainees to the training session.
c. Prepare a tentative training schedule, coordinate, and conduct the training.
d. Prepare a tentative training schedule, coordinate, and assign trainees to the training session.
(015) The two types of training validation that you can use are
a. subject matter expert (SME) and trainee.
b. formal and informal.
c. SME and instructional.
d. trainee and instructional.
(015) Which type of training validation is being conducted when the people who need the training are used in the validation process?
a. Formal.
b. Trainee.
c. Instructional.
d. Subject matter expert (SME).
(015) How should you respond to errors that were identified during the training validation process?
a. Wait until the course is revised, and then correct the errors.
b. Look for the symptoms; then eliminate the errors.
c. Fix the errors as you find them.
d. Look for the root problem.
(016) The use of visits, task evaluation reports, and quality control reports allows the training manager to
a. track trainee progression.
b. revise the training schedule.
c. review the work center training program.
d. inform the commander of training program status.
016) What type of visit is being conducted when a unit training manager goes to the work center, talks with the people about potential training problems, and builds rapport?
a. Formal visit.
b. Informal visit.
c. Staff assistance visit.
d. Job performance evaluation.
(201) When a unit training manager (UTM) interviews prospective candidates retraining into Air Force specialty code 3S2X1, what are the two essential qualities the UTM must have in order to conduct a successful interview?
a. Common sense and fair judgment.
b. Technical writing skills and diplomacy.
c. Experience and at least an Associate’s degree.
d. The ability to work with people and communicate effectively.
(202) For required training that is not offered at your base, who authorizes temporary duty (TDY) to personnel to help develop and provide initial training at your base?
a. Education services.
b. Higher headquarters.
c. Unit education and training.
d. Headquarters, Air Education and Training Command.
(202) As the base education and training expert, which is not a training program area where you provide advice and assistance?
a. Resolving a unit’s lack of training capability.
b. Clarifying and explaining unit training manager (UGM) problem areas.
c. Resolving scheduling conflicts between units and training providers.
d. Resolving career development course (CDC) problems by scheduling one-on-one study sessions with the trainee.
(203) The two systems of Air Force publications are
a. standard and specialized.
b. standard and nondirective.
c. directive and nondirective.
d. directive and standard.
(203) Which document is considered a specialized publication?
a. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
b. Standard publication.
c. Air Force pamphlet.
d. Periodical.
(203) Which type of publication is directive in nature?
a. Periodical.
b. Operating instructions.
c. Non-recurring pamphlets.
d. Miscellaneous publication.
(204) The purpose of the coordination process of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is to make sure
a. everyone agrees with what is listed.
b. all local requirements are identified.
c. total user-command mission-related requirements are identified.
d. the Air Education Training Command (AETC) teaches specific major command (MAJCOM) requirements only.
(204) Which action do you take when coordinating and reviewing an Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS)?
a. Line through any tasks not required at your base.
b. Review and return it to base training without comment.
c. Forward recommendations to the major command (MAJCOM) training office.
d. Delay coordination until after the utilization and training workshop (U&TW).
(204) Who authorizes that an Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS) will be used as a stand-alone document?
a. Major command (MAJCOM) education and training manager.
b. Base education and training (E&T) manager.
c. Unit E&T manager.
d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
(205) When evaluating a waiver request package, which is not a factor to consider when determining whether the waiver request deserves approval?
a. Experience.
b. Rank/grade.
c. Education.
d. Training.
(205) Who is the approval authority for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) mandatory training waiver?
a. Major command (MAJCOM) training manager (TM).
b. MAJCOM functional manager (FM).
c. Base training manager.
d. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) commander.
(206) What document, obtained from MilPDS, is used to provide an overall picture of training progress in your unit?
a. On-the-job training (OJT) roster.
b. Career development course (CDC) report.
c. AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.
d. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation /Command JQS.
(206) How can a supervisor help a trainee overcome his or her lack of motivation toward training?
a. Promise the trainee a specific job.
b. Display a sincere interest in the training.
c. Offer rewards and incentives to motivate the trainees.
d. Give the trainee a letter of counseling for the lack of motivation.
(206) In reference to problem solving as a distinct method of counseling, which is not a phase of the three-phase process or cycle of helping?
a. Self-exploration.
b. Self-understanding.
c. Self-actualization.
d. Trainee action.
(207) How can you determine and verify that your unit has a lack of training capability problem?
a. Ask base training to inspect your unit.
b. Make sure the technical school curriculum is current.
c. Find out if the career development course (CDC) and list of training references are current.
d. Find out if the necessary training can be provided in your unit.
(207) If you have everything necessary for your training program, but you do not have the necessities in sufficient quantity, you have a
a. lack of training capacity.
b. training deficiency.
c. training capability.
d. resource shortage.
(208) Which alternate training resources course type usually occurs with the purchase of new equipment by the Air Force?
a. Locally developed courses.
b. Civilian contracted courses.
c. Formal technical training courses.
d. Department of Defense (DOD) extension courses.
(209) Which is not considered a form of distance learning (DL)?
a. Classroom stand-up instruction.
b. Computer-based instruction.
c. Correspondence courses.
d. Satellite broadcasts.
(209) In reference to managing job site training (JST), which point of contact (POC) performs the technical tasks necessary to implement distance learning (DL) at his or her base?
a. Administrative site coordinator (ASC)
b. Information technology (IT) specialist.
c. Technical site coordinator (TSC)
d. JST coordinator.
(210) Job site training (JST) distance learning (DL) training requests submitted after the annual data call are considered
a. late.
b. out-of-cycle.
c. just in time.
d. specialized.
(210) How often does a satellite broadcast center submit requirements for new equipment?
a. Monthly.
b. Annually.
c. Biannually.
d. Semiannually.
(210) When using a satellite broadcast for delivery of job site training (JST), the JST point of contact (POC) is responsible for all of these tasks except
a. verifying there is sufficient amount of course material.
b. making sure course material is inventoried.
c. sending no-show letters to commanders.
d. safeguarding test material.
(211) What are the basic steps in identifying and managing local training requirements?
a. Research, authorize, and forward the request.
b. Justify, validate, and process the request.
c. Review, validate, consolidate and prioritize, and process the request.
d. Validate, evaluate, and authorize the request.
(211) How often does Second Air Force direct major commands (MAJCOM) to initiate screening (data call) to all units via the base training manager?
a. Quarterly.
b. Biannually.
c. Annually.
d. Biennially.
(212) Which form do you use to submit an out-of-cycle training request?
a. AF Form 403, Request for Special Technical Training.
b. AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.
c. AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action.
d. AF Form 3933, MAJCOM Mission Training Request.
(212) After the member has acquired the appropriate signatures on the training report on individual personnel (RIP) and returned the completed RIP to you, what is your next step?
a. Coordinate with other agencies for more class quotas.
b. Forward the RIP to the formal training section.
c. Review the RIP for accuracy.
d. File the RIP.
(213) The Customer Service Information process (CSIP) is a method the field can use to identity whether training problems exist. A training problem CSIP can help identify is if the graduate
a. meets the required proficiency levels listed on the specialty training standard (STS.)
b. recommends deleting training course standards of conduct.
c. cannot meet performance requirements on local assigned tasks.
d. does not meet some proficiency levels for tasks listed on the STS.
213) As part of the training feedback process, within how many months of course completion are field evaluation questionnaires (FEQ) sent to technical school graduates?
a. 1 to 3.
b. 4 to 6.
c. 7 to 9.
d. 10 to 12.
(214) The purpose of reviewing unit statistics during pre-visit preparations for conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV) is to
a. determine which sections need to be visited.
b. get an overall view of the unit training program.
c. determine which supervisors are doing their jobs.
d. determine where all the training deficiencies are located.
(214) Compiling and reviewing unit statistics during pre-visit preparations for conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV) reveals the following except
a. rank/grade of personnel.
b. number of personnel in upgrade training (UGT).
c. percentage of personnel that have not finished the Air Force Training Course (AFTC).
d. percentage of personnel enrolled in career development courses (CDC).
(215) When conducting a staff assistance visit (SAV), always begin the visit
a. with a supervisor’s interview.
b. by interviewing the trainees.
c. with a review of the task evaluations.
d. by briefing the commander and other unit leaders.
215) If you have a high number of trainees and a low number of trainers in the work center or section, you may have a
a. high trainer-to-trainee ratio.
b. lack of training capability.
c. haphazard training.
d. lack of training capacity.
(216) After the staff assistance visit (SAV), you complete post-visit procedures, which consists of out-briefing appropriate officials, preparing the report, and
a. directing the required actions.
b. completing the corrective actions.
c. assisting with the corrective actions.
d. assigning and suspensing the corrective actions.
(216) Within how many days after the staff assistance visit (SAV) is the follow-up visit due?
a. 30 duty days.
b. 30 calendar days.
c. 60 calendar days.
d. 60 duty days.
(217) The Air Force Training Course (AFTC) includes these topics of instruction except
a. initiating the training process.
b. initiating a staff assistance visit (SAV).
c. planning, scheduling, conducting, and evaluating training.
d. responsibilities and characteristics of key personnel in the training program.
(217) Who is the target audience for the Air Force Training Course (AFTC)?
a. Supervisors only.
b. Supervisors, trainers, and task certifiers only.
c. Supervisors, trainees, trainers, and task certifiers only.
d. Supervisors, trainees, trainers, task certifiers, and evaluators.
(218) When you conduct an education and training meeting, make sure your training meeting is successful by
a. addressing training problems.
b. having a purpose or objective.
c. keeping personnel informed about training.
d. communicating and keeping an open forum.
(218) When preparing the education and training meeting minutes, use the date the
a. meeting occurred.
b. minutes are typed.
c. minutes are signed.
d. minutes are distributed.
(219) The completed status of training (SOT) slides are sent to all pertinent personnel before the SOT briefing for
a. formatting.
b. distribution to the unit.
c. reviewing for brevity.
d. reviewing for accuracy.
(219) How often is the unit training manager (UTM) required to brief the status of training (SOT) to the commander?
a. Weekly.
b. Monthly.
c. Quarterly.
d. Annually.
(219) How often is the base training manager (BTM) required to brief the status of training (SOT) to the wing commander?
(219) How long is the base training manager (BTM) required to maintain the status of training (SOT) data on file?
a. 1 month.
b. 6 months.
c. 12 months.
d. 24 months.
(220) Within the maintenance complex, who is required to keep the maintenance group commander informed on the status of training (SOT)?
a. Unit education and training manager.
b. Base education and training office.
c. Maintenance training flight.
d. Maintenance supervisor.
(221) Unit training managers (UTM) manage the maintenance training program in accordance with what Air Force instructions (AFI)?
a. AFI 36–2201 and AFI 36–2232.
b. AFI 36–2201 and AFI 21–101.
c. AFI 36–2232 and AFI 21–101.
d. AFI 36–2201 and AFI 10–248.
(221) Who does the maintenance training manager coordinate with if there is a lack of training capability in the unit?
a. Maintenance training flight (MTF).
b. Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC).
c. Wing commander.
d. Base training manager.
222) How many days before the class start date does the maintenance training flight (MTF) scheduler provides the class roster to the training provider?
a. 1.
b. 3.
c. 10.
d. 30.
(223) What training provides individuals with mission-essential training needed to meet the requirements of an assignment to a long- or short-tour location?
a. Special.
b. Contracted.
c. Enroute.
d. Type 6.
(223) Enroute training is only authorized for tour lengths less than
a. 12 months.
b. 18 months.
c. 3 years.
d. 4 years.
(224) How often is a training detachment (TD) required to perform an instructional system review (ISR) for each course taught?
b. Quarterly.
50. (225) On what date does the fiscal year begin?
a. 1 October.
b. 1 September.
c. 1 January.
d. 30 September.
(226) Who is responsible for using procured funds for training personnel to meet mission needs effectively?
a. Wing commander.
b. Unit commander.
c. Resource advisor (RA).
d. Unit training manager (UTM).
(227) AFI 36–2306, The Education Services Program, is the basic authority for which Air Force program?
b. Professional military education.
c. Active Duty service commitments.
d. Developing, managing, and conducting training.
(227) A condition for civilian personnel to participate in an on-base educational opportunity is
a. career status.
b. space available.
c. tuition assistance.
d. position classification.
(227) Which organization is responsible for determining whether an educational institution is discriminating in its admission or treatment of students?
a. HQ USAF.
b. Major command (MAJCOM).
c. Education services officer (ESO).
d. Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support (DANTES).
(228) What form is used by nonautomated education service centers (ESC) to report academic progress to the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) for Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) input?
a. AF Form 118.
b. AF Form 616.
c. AF Form 898.
d. AF Form 186.
(228) In the Air Force Automated Education Management System (AFAEMS), the student record (AF Form 186, Individual Record – Education Services Program) stores the participant’s
a. workplace history.
b. upcoming course schedule.
c. education level and progress.
d. tuition assistance payments.
(228) What action does the Education Service Center (ESC) take upon verifying a future out-processing student has missing grades or outstanding reimbursement action?
a. Leave the reimbursement action for the gaining base.
b. File the student’s education folder as “Action Pending.”
c. Update the out-processing checklist to “Complete” in virtual out processing.
d. Update the out-processing checklist to “Visit Reqd” in virtual out processing.
(229) Students who receive tuition assistance (TA) to obtain course credit by examination and then fail to take the examination are required to
a. reimburse the TA in all cases.
b. reimburse the TA unless waived by the education services officer (ESO).
c. reimburse up to 75 percent of the amount of the TA.
d. take the same course in-residence at their own expense.
(229) How many days are students given to reply to tuition assistance (TA) reimbursement determinations?
a. 180.
b. 90.
c. 45.
(230) Applications for a fellowship, scholarship, or grant must include a copy of the offer or award (if available), transcripts of previous academic work, a narrative outline of work to be undertaken, and
a. a financial statement.
b. proof of US citizenship.
c. a one-page essay of career goals.
d. proof of available temporary duty (TDY) funds.
(231) Which is not a goal of the Community College of the Air Force (CCAF)?
a. Awareness - Increase recognition of the value of the college.
b. Excellence - Conduct the mission of the college by educating and training personnel to high standards.
c. Resources - Secure adequate staffing, funding, facilities, equipment, systems, and training to administer programs.
d. Programs - Provide quality credentialing programs responsive to the needs of the Air Force and its enlisted personnel.
(231) Who developed the concept of the Service member’s Opportunity Colleges (SOC) program?
a. Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) board of visitors.
b. CCAF Policy Council.
c. Education services officers.
d. Civilian and military educators.
63. (232) The purpose of an educational deferment is to prevent
a. a delay in assignment.
b. duty requirements for a student during the temporary duty (TDY) period.
c. extension of the obligated period for degree completion.
d. departure of a student on a permanent change of station (PCS) assignment before completing a specific educational program.
(232) Which individual would qualify for an educational deferment?
a. A person with an established assignment selection date.
b. A first-term Airman with a total service commitment of four years.
c. A person requesting a deferment to complete a thesis or research paper.
d. A person completing a second baccalaureate degree that directly applies to the Air Force specialty code (AFSC).
(233) The purpose of the Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT) is to
a. develop, conduct, and administer professional and technological educational requirements for the Air Force.
b. provide technical and scientific programs to enhance the occupational competence of Air Force enlisted personnel.
c. ensure undergraduate and graduate programs offer specialized professional correspondence courses for selected officers.
d. provide scientific and management programs for selected applicants applying for an Air Force commissioning program.
(233) Officers may be eligible for a second Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT) tour after completing an interim duty assignment of at least
a. 1 year.
b. 2 years.
(233) The total career Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT) education for an individual may not exceed
a. 36 months.
b. 42 months.
c. 48 months.
d. 54 months.
(234) Which course is not written specifically for the professional military development of noncommissioned officers?
a. Airman Leadership School (ALS).
b. Career Development Course (CDC).
c. Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA).
d. Senior Noncommissioned Officer Academy (SNCOA).
(235) Which program is intermediate in the three-tier professional military education (PME) program for officers?
a. Air War College.
b. Squadron Officer School.
c. National Security Management.
d. Air Command and Staff College.
(235) Which program is at the top-level in the three-tier professional military education (PME) program for officers?
c. Air Command and Staff College.
d. National Security Management.
