a) Being in the 2-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of arrival

b) Being in the 1-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of arrival

c) Being in the 2-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of departure

d) Being in the 1-hour wide time zone surrounding local time of departure

a) Cannot rest 10 hours at least

b) Cannot rest 8 hours at least

c) Work in the middle of the night

d) Not having the optimal sleep window due to work

a) Schedule delays

b) Route, take-offs and landings

c) Flight without autopilot

d) All of the above

a) 100 hours in 30 days

b) 1000 hours in 24 months

c) 100 hours in 28 days

d) 900 hours in 13 months

a) Adjust time to flight crew activity

b) Start flight duty period according with cabin crew member´s time

c) FDP will be from takeoff to landing time

d) Cabin crew members have no time restrictions

a) The State Authority

b) The operator

c) Pilot in Command

d) None of the above

a) Proceed to the departure or destination aerodrome, it does not matter

b) Fly back to the departure aerodrome

c) Continue to the planned destination/alternate aerodrome

d) Call The operator to be authorized

a) 8 hours minimum but no more than 10 hours

b) 8 hours minimum

c) 10 hours

d) 12hours

a) The RVR and cloud ceiling at the departure aerodrome is below minima

b) The length of runway at the departure aerodrome is not long enough to allow the aircraft to roll to a standstill if the brakes fail

c) The aircraft is carrying dangerous goods and a full fuel load

d) There is insufficient time to jettison fuel to landing weight to use the departure aerodrome

a) Not more than 2 hours flying distance for a twin engine aeroplane

b) Not less than 2 hours flying distance for 3 engine aeroplane with one engine out

c) Not more than 1 hour flying distance for any aeroplane with one engine out

d) 2 hours or less flying time at “one engine out” cruise speed for a 4 engine aeroplane

a) It must be capable CAT III A operations

b) The OCH must not be less than that of the aerodrome departure

c) The RVR cloud ceiling must be at or above the aerodrome minima at the time of takeoff

d) For IFR flights the aerodrome minima must be greater than that approved by the Operator or the State of Registration and no approach have is permitted to have a visual element (ie no circling approaches)

a) Any flight for public transport over 40 Km

b) Any IFR flight unless there is reasonable certainly That at ETA a visual approach can be made

c) A flight to a remote aerodrome where no local diversion exits

d) Any flight where a takeoff diversion has been planned

a) 90 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative

b) 30 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative

c) 60 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative

d) 120 min at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative

a) 2; 2; time of arrival

b) 1; 1; time of arrival

c) 2; 2; time of departure

d) 1; 1; time of departure

a) 2 hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed

b) 2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating

c) 1 hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed

d) 1 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating

a) Non-precision minima (RVR and ceiling at or above minima)

b) Non-precision minima plus 200ft/1000m

c) RVR according to CAT I

d) Circling minima

a) RVR according to CAT I

b) Circling minima

c) Non-precision minima plus 200ft/1000m

d) Non-precision minima

a) Non-precision minima (RVR and ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200ft/1000m

b) RVR/ visibility specify in accordance with EU-OPS 1.225, and the ceiling at or above MDH

c) RVR/ visibility specify in accordance with EU-OPS 1.225

d) Circling minima

a) or descent 1000ft or descend 500ft

b) or descent 1000ft

c) or descend 500ft

d) 500ft or descend 1000ft

a) PTS + daily code

b) Position at every 10 deg latitude

c) NAT + daily code

d) OTS + daily code

a) 121.5 Mhz

b) 123.45 Mhz

c) 243 Mhz

d) 118.5 Mhz

a) 1 inertial navigation system (INS)

b) 2 inertial systems (INS)

c) 2 independent long range navigation systems (LRNS)

d) 1 long range navigation system (LNRS)

a) At FL 280 or less

b) outside schedules flight time

c) at mach number 0.7 or less

d) at a constant airspeed of 480 kts

a) The publication of the preferred route message (PRM)

b) The ATC clearance given before the boundary window

c) The complete MNSP flight plan

d) The publication of organized track system (OTS)

a) 2000 fts

b) 500 fts

c) 1000 fts

d) 1500 fts

a) 50fts

b) 100fts

c) 150fts

d) 200fts

a) Indicated airspeed

b) Mach number

c) ground speed

d) true airspeed

a) Minimum Navigation Positioning System

b) Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System

c) Military Network Performance Structure

d) Minimum Performance Navigation Specification

a) Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 10º

b) Latitude degrees with meridians spaced at 20º

c) longitude spaced at 5º intervals

d) latitude spaced at 5 intervals

a) Notify air traffic control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time

b) request authorization from control to track another aircraft

c) set a different heading approximately 45º from the previous one

d) immediately climb or descent 1000fts

a) turn left or right and climb 1000fts/ descend 500fts

b) climb or descend 500fts

c) climb 500fts

d) descend 500fts

a) 0100 UTC to 0800UTC

b) 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC

c) 1130 UTC to 1800 UTC

d) 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC

a) a period of 12 hours

b) a given travel

c) a period of 24 hours

d) aircraft flying in MNPSA

a) It draws attention to the possibility of furhter failures and their effects

b) The MEL is required by ICAO and must be approved by the State of Registration

c) The responsibility if acceptance of any unserviceability within the MEL rests ultimately over the Operator.

d) The MEL allows airplanes to be flown with unserviceabilities which would otherwise require immediate certification

a) To permit the Authority to specify what equipment must be carried in an aircraft with mas take off mass greater than 5700 Kg

b) To permit one MEL to exist for the operator´s entire fleet

c) To permit the operator to change the content of the MEL Whilst keeping a master copy

d) Not to be used as an operator MEL

a) Maintenance supervisor / any system

b) Chief Steward / the galley equipment

c) Operator / any aircraft safety system

d) Commander / any instrumentation or system of equipment

a) Operations manual

b) Flight record

c) Flight manual

d) EU-OPS

a) The operator

b) The manufacturer/the type certificate holder

c) The aircraft manufacturer list

d) The aircraft state of registry

a) The aircraft manufacturer´s list

b) The aircraft State of registry

c) The operator

d) The manufacturer

a) The most favorable temperatures for icing are between 5ºC and -5ºC

b) The most favorable temperatures for icing are between 0ºC and -10ºC

c) Icing becomes rare at -18ºC

d) While flying, we must avoid icing conditions

a) De-ice again the aircraft, then apply anti-icing fluid

b) Apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing procedures

c) Operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems

d) De-ice the aircraft

a) 1,3,5

b) 2,4,5

c) 1,2,3

d) 2,3,5

a) The T/O performance of the aircraft will not be affected

b) There is no risk of ice accretion

c) The aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type

d) A longer start procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft

a) Above 5000ft

b) Below 2500ft

c) Between 2500ft and 3500ft

d) Between 3500ft and 5000ft

a) Immediately inform the local ATS unit

b) Inform immediately the bird control unit (BCU) directly by radio

c) Submit a written hazard bird strike upon arrival and within 48 hours

d) Inform other aircraft in the vicinity by radio

a) IBHA (ICAO Bird Hazard Annex)

b) IBSA (ICAO Bird Safety Alert)

c) IBIS (ICAO Bird Strike Information System)

d) IBSR (ICAO Bird Strike Report)

a) At PIC´s discretion where safety is an issue

b) If there is work in progress on the aerodrome

c) If the RVR is less than 1500 m

d) Never, it must always be complied with

a) 1000ft

b) 2000ft

c) 1500ft

d) 3000ft

a) 1500ft above aerodrome elevation

b) 1000ft above aerodrome elevation

c) 800ft above aerodrome elevation

d) 2000ft above aerodrome elevation

a) The Operator

b) The Flight Engineer

c) Commander

d) The Authority

a) Check list

b) Standard operating procedures (SOPs)

c) Contents of the Operations manual

d) Safety procedures

a) CO2 is best used in a cargo airplane on cargo fires

b) Water is the best used on small fires

c) Halon is the best used on fires within the passenger compartment

d) Dry powder is the best used on cockpit fires

a) Put the fire shut off handle and trigger the engine fire extinguishers

b) Fight the nozzle fire with a water fire extinguisher

c) Carry out a dry cranking

d) Carry out a dump cranking

a) Paper, fabric, carpet

b) Metals

c) Flammable gases

d) Flammable liquids

a) Crash axes or crowbars

b) Water and all type of beverage

c) A hydraulic winch and a big box of tools

d) A big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets

a) Axe

b) Gloves

c) Breathing equipment

d) All of the above

a) Determine the origin of the smoke

b) Start an emergency descend

c) Put on the oxygen masks and goggles

d) Cut off all air conditioning units

a) From any direction

b) Sidewards

c) Either from the front or the rear

d) From the inboard side

a) Temperature of the hydraulic fluid

b) Pressure of the hydraulic fluid

c) Pressure of the pneumatic tires

d) Temperature of the breaks

a) 2, 4

b) 2, 3

c) 1, 3

d) 1, 4

a) 10.000fts

b) 14.000fts

c) 8.000fts

d) 12.000fts

a) To put on the oxygen mask

b) To set the transponder to 7700

c) To warn the ATC

d) To comfort your passengers

a) 1, 3

b) 1, 2, 3, 4

c) 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3

a) 1, 2

b) 1, 2, 3, 4

c) 3, 4

d) 2, 3

a) 1, 2, 3, 4

b) 1, 2, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3

a) A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance

b) A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance

c) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction variation over a short distance

d) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction variation over a large distance

a) medium

b) small

c) substantial

d) none

a) 1, 3, 5

b) 1, 4, 5

c) 1, 2, 5

d) 2, 3, 5

a) Reduce speed to V2 and hold

b) Climb away at Vat+20

c) Increase the pitch angle until the steak shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle

d) Slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb

a) Windshear (vertical and horizontal)

b) Wake turbulence

c) Supercooled water

d) Convention motion of air mass

a) Behind high buildings less than 300 m from the RWY

b) The wingtips of heavy aircraft during the T/O and landing

c) Cumulonimbus clouds

d) Wind forces greater than 50 Kts

a) 1 minute

b) 2 minute

c) 3 minute

d) 4 minute

a) 5.700kg to 100.000kg

b) 7.000 kg to 136.000kg

c) 5.700kg to 136.000kg

d) 7.001kg to 135.999kg

a) Starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices

b) Starts as soon as the airplane is running for T/O and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing

c) Starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing

d) Starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground

a) Below and downwind from the larger aircraft

b) Above and downwind from the larger aircraft

c) Above and upwind the larger aircraft

d) Below and upwind the larger aircraft

a) Remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment

b) Locked from within the compartment

c) Directly locked from outside the compartment

d) Remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment

a) Code 7700

b) Code 7600

c) Code 7500

d) Code 2000

a) You descend to the FL corresponding the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.

b) You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude

c) You limb to the maximum flight level which does not need to the use of pressurization

d) You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in clean configuration until the final approach

a) 60 sec

b) 90 sec

c) 120 sec

d) 132 sec

a) Limits such flights to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails

b) Does not permit such flight in any circumstances

c) Limits flight to up to 10 min flying time to the nearest shore

d) Limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore

a) 2, 3

b) 1, 3

c) 1, 4

d) 2, 4

a) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board

b) A landing on land or sea from which is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants

c) A voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants

d) An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board or on the surface

a) 15 min

b) 30 min

c) 60 min

d) 90 min

a) Under FL50

b) In a holding stack, after control clearance

c) In a straight line at a relatively high level

d) During final phase of approach

a) 1, 3, 4

b) 1, 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 4

d) 2, 3

a) ICAO Annex 8

b) ICAO Annex 18

c) The Washington convention

d) ICAO Annex 17

a) Accept it after visual inspection

b) Mention it on the notification to captain

c) Ensure the arrangements are made for its removal

d) Mention it on the shipper´s declaration

a) 1, 2, 3, 4

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 1, 3

d) 2, 4

a) Spanish

b) French

c) English

d) English, Spanish, French, Russian, Chinese

a) Explosives

b) Toxic

c) Radioactive

d) Flammable liquids

a) Increase your approach speed and land firmly and immediately land the nose gear

b) Increase your approach speed and land softly and keep up the nose gear

c) Decrease your approach speed and land firmly and immediately land the nose gear

d) Decrease your approach speed and land softly and keep up the nose gear

a) Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give a shiny appearance

b) Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance

c) It is covered with a film of water of less than 3mm

d) It is covered with a film of water of less than 1mm

a) Should make a positive landing, apply maximum reverse thrust and start braking as soon as possible

b) Should use maximum reverse thrust, however should start braking below the hydroplaning speed

c) Should use normal landing, braking and reverse technique

d) Must wait for landing until the risk for hydroplaning is no longer exists.