Phil Oklam
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Degree Pharmacology Quiz am Pharmacology Quiz, erstellt von Phil Oklam am 04/05/2015.

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Pharmacology Quiz

Frage 1 von 100

1

What is meant by pharmacodynamics?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The effect of a drug on the body - i.e. Cellular effects

  • The effect of the body on a drug - i.e. Administration Distribution Metabolism Excretion

Erklärung

Frage 2 von 100

1

What are the four main drug action targets?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Receptors

  • Enzymes

  • Carrier molecules

  • Ion channels

  • Vesicles

  • Ribosomes

Erklärung

Frage 3 von 100

1

Which of the following are true?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Agonists activate receptors as an endogenous substrate would

  • Antagonists block the action of agonists

  • An orthosteric drug binds at the same site as a substrate

  • An allosteric drug binds away from the substrate site

  • Drugs cannot act as false substrates in enzymes

Erklärung

Frage 4 von 100

1

Which of the following are the characteristics of a Class II nuclear receptor?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Present in the nucleus, form heterodimers, the ligands are lipids

  • Present in the nucleus, form homodimers, ligands are carbohydrates

  • Present in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are endocrine

  • Present in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are lipids

Erklärung

Frage 5 von 100

1

Which of the following describes a graded dose-response?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The response of a particular system measured against agonist concentration

  • The drug doses required to produce specified response determined in each member of a population

Erklärung

Frage 6 von 100

1

Bmax is a measure of receptor saturation and is the maximum amount of drug which can bind specifically to the receptors in a membrane preparation.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

Erklärung

Frage 7 von 100

1

Potency is the amount of a drug needed to produced a given effect, it is measured using the EC50. The greater the EC50 the greater the potency.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

Erklärung

Frage 8 von 100

1

Which of the following is incorrect?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Efficacy is the maximum effect an agonist can produce regardless of dose

  • A full agonist has a high efficacy and AR* is likely, even while occupying a small number of receptors

  • A partial agonist has a lower efficacy and AR* is less likely despite occupying the maximum number of receptors

  • Inverse agonists have a higher affinity for AR* state than for AR state, it produces an effect opposite to that of an agonist, yet binds to the same receptor binding-site.

Erklärung

Frage 9 von 100

1

What is the meaning of tachyphylaxis?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Desensitisation of receptors with repeated administration

  • Amplification of a response means a fraction of receptors are needed to elicit a maximal response

  • The equilibrium dissociation constant, the same for any given receptor and drug combination

  • The process by which a drug is transported in place of an endogenous substrate or inhibit their transport

Erklärung

Frage 10 von 100

1

Which of the following are true?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • All of them

  • A competitive antagonist can be overcome with increasing agonist concentration.
    Curve: parallel shift to the right

  • An irreversible antagonist forms covalent bonds with the receptor.
    Curve: parallel shift to the right and reduced maximal asymptote

  • A non-competitive antagonist has signal transduction effects rather than receptor effects.
    Curve: reduces slope and maximum of curve

  • Antagonists have no efficacy and AR* doesn't exist

Erklärung

Frage 11 von 100

1

What is the equation for dose ratio?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • (agonist + antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50

  • (agonist - antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50

  • (agonist + antagonist EC50) * agonist EC50

  • (agonist + antagonist EC50) / antagonist EC50

Erklärung

Frage 12 von 100

1

The therapeutic index (TI) is a comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the therapeutic effect to the amount that causes toxicity.
Risk: benefit ratio = TD50 / ED50 = Toxic dose / Efficient therapeutic dose

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

Erklärung

Frage 13 von 100

1

Lipid soluble compounds cross cell membranes less easily and are therefore less rapidly absorbed

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

Erklärung

Frage 14 von 100

1

Which of the following is referring to Ka?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.

  • Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.

  • Determined by the Schild plot, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.

  • Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the lower the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.

Erklärung

Frage 15 von 100

1

Which of the following drug administration routes would be used for a drug that is poorly absorbed and unstable in the GI tract, it also gives the most control over the delivered dose and has a rapid onset of action.

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Parenteral route

  • Vaginal route

  • Transdermal route

  • Sublingual route

  • Inhaled route

Erklärung

Frage 16 von 100

1

Which of the following are pharmacological parameters?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Cmax - max concentration of a compound after administration

  • Tmax - the time at which Cmax is reached

  • AUC - a measure of systemic exposure (area under curve / time of curve)

  • Bioavailability (F) - the extent of absorption after extravascular administration

  • Volume of distribution (Vd) - the amount of a compound in the body vs. plasma concentration

  • Clearance (CL) - the volume of plasma cleared of compound per unit of time

  • Ke - elimination rate constant

Erklärung

Frage 17 von 100

1

The half life of a drug in the plasma is not the elimination half life of the drug from the tissues

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

Erklärung

Frage 18 von 100

1

Which of the following are plasma proteins that bind drugs making them stay in systemic circulation rather than distributing into tissues or organs.

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Albumin (HSA) - produced by the liver, binds acidic and neutral drugs

  • Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and neutral drugs

  • Albumin (HSA) - produced by the spleen, binds acidic and neutral drugs

  • Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and acidic drugs

Erklärung

Frage 19 von 100

1

Which enzymes carry out phase II metabolism?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • UDP - glucuronosyl transferases (UGTs)

  • Cytochrome P450 family

Erklärung

Frage 20 von 100

1

The half life of a drug is the time it takes for the concentration of the compound to reach 50% of its current value, what is the formula to calculate it?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Half life = 0.693 / Ke

  • Half life = 0.693 / CL

  • Half life = 0.963 / Ka

  • Half life = 0.936 / F

Erklärung

Frage 21 von 100

1

Which of the following are correct when describing the cytochrome P450 enzyme family?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • They are heme co-factor containing enzymes

  • They are individually referred to as isozymes

  • They are always found in the ER of the cell regardless of the organ/tissue

  • They are mainly found in the liver (hepatocytes) and intestines (enterocytes)

  • Enzyme inhibition = decreased metabolism and decreased drug exposure

  • Enzyme induction = increased gene transcription, increased metabolism and decreased drug exposure

Erklärung

Frage 22 von 100

1

What is the name given to the conjugation reaction that occurs with an endogenous substrate if phase I metabolites are too lipophilic to be retained in the kidney tubular fluid?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Glucuronidation

  • Acidification

  • Glucomodification

  • Metabolishment

  • Glomerular Filtration

Erklärung

Frage 23 von 100

1

Which of the following compounds enter phase II metabolism directly?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Those containing -OH

  • Those containing -NH2

  • Those containing -COOH

  • Those containing -SS

  • Those containing -C2H6

Erklärung

Frage 24 von 100

1

Which of the following systems involves NA as well as ACh?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Sympathetic nervous system: short preganglionic nerves and long postganglionic nerves

  • Parasympathetic nervous system: long preganglionic nerves and short postganglionic nerves

  • Somatic nervous system: neuromuscular junction

Erklärung

Frage 25 von 100

1

Which of the following are G protein linked (metabotropic) receptors?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • muscarinic receptors (mACh) - M1,2,3 found in postganglionic parasympathetic synapses

  • nicotinic receptors (nACh) - Neuronal type found in the brain and autonomic ganglia

  • nicotinic receptors (nACh) - Muscle type found in the neuromuscular junction

Erklärung

Frage 26 von 100

1

Which of the following causes nervous system confusion and are therefore not clinically useful?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Neuronal type nicotinic agonists and antagonists

  • Muscle type nicotinic agonists and antagonists

Erklärung

Frage 27 von 100

1

Which of the following cause a depolarising block and can therefore be used in surgery to cause temporary paralysis?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Nicotinic agonists (muscle type)

  • Nicotinic antagonists (muscle type)

  • Nicotinic agonists (neuronal type)

  • Nicotinic antagonists (neuronal type)

Erklärung

Frage 28 von 100

1

The release of which neurotransmitter is blocked by botulinium toxin causing motor and parasympathetic paralysis?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Acetylcholine

  • Serotonin

  • Botulin

  • Noradrenaline

  • Adrenaline

  • Histamine

  • Dopamine

Erklärung

Frage 29 von 100

1

ACh metabolism by acetylcholineesterase is inhibited by what?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Neostigmine

  • Botulinium toxin

  • Choline

  • Acetyl hydroxylase

  • Lipolysis

  • Salbutamol

Erklärung

Frage 30 von 100

1

What are the enzymes involved in the conversion of Tyrosine to Noradrenaline?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Tyrosine Hydroxylase

  • DOPA decarboxylase

  • DA -B-hydroxylase

  • Tyrosine decarboxylase

  • DA decarboxylase

  • L-DOPA Hydrogenase

Erklärung

Frage 31 von 100

1

Which of the following are true about noradrenergic receptors?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • They exist as A1,2 and B1,2,3

  • They exist as A1,2,3 and B1,2

  • They are G protein coupled

  • They are tyrosine kinase receptors

  • They are found in the effector tissues of the sympathetic system

  • They are found in the effector tissues of the parasympathetic system

Erklärung

Frage 32 von 100

1

Which of the following is a negative feedback presynaptic receptor?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • A1 noradrenergic receptor

  • A2 noradrenergic receptor

  • B1 noradrenergic receptor

  • B2 noradrenergic receptor

  • B3 noradrenergic receptor

Erklärung

Frage 33 von 100

1

Which drug given subcut can prolong and isolate local anaesthesia and by what mechanism?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Adrenaline by A1 mediated vasoconstriction

  • Adrenaline by B1 mediated vasoconstriction

  • Noradrenaline by A1 mediated vasodilation

  • Salbutamol bt A2 mediated vasoconstriction

  • Botulinium toxin by A1 mediated vasodilation

Erklärung

Frage 34 von 100

1

Which of the following are noradrenergic agonists?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Clonidine - A2

  • Dobutamine - B1

  • Prazosin - A1

  • Salbutamol - B2

  • Atenolol - B1

  • Timolol - B2

Erklärung

Frage 35 von 100

1

What is the pathway of the false substrate that decreases overall noradrenergic neurotransmission?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • meDOPA > meDA > meNA

  • meDOPA > meNA > meDA

  • L-DOPA > L-DA > L-NA

  • DA > DOPAC > HVA

  • Tyrosine > DOPA > DA > NA

Erklärung

Frage 36 von 100

1

What is the name of the drug that disrupts storage of NA in synaptic vesicles?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Reserpine

  • Dobutamine

  • Atenolol

  • MAOI

  • COMT

  • NA reuptake inhibitors

  • Neostigmine

Erklärung

Frage 37 von 100

1

Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of airway smooth muscle?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Parasympathetic bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion

  • Circulating adrenaline causing bronchodilation

  • Nonadrenergic Noncholinergic transmitters e.g. inhibitory NO or excitatory substance P or neurokinin A

  • Sensory receptors - chemical and physical stimuli

  • Circulating dopamine causing broncoconstriction

Erklärung

Frage 38 von 100

1

Which of the following is the delayed phase of asthma?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Bronchoconstriction

  • Inflammation/Damage in response to mediators

Erklärung

Frage 39 von 100

1

Glucocorticoids suppress the immune system and therefore are good at treating the delayed phase of asthma. Which of the following do they decrease the production of?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • LTC4, LTD4 - spasmogens

  • LTB4 - chemotaxins

  • PGE2, PGI2 vasodilators, cytokines

  • LTC4 - chemotaxins

  • LTB4, LTC4, - spasmogens

  • PGE5, PGL2, chemotaxins

Erklärung

Frage 40 von 100

1

Where is the cough centre located?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Hypothalamus

  • Oesophagus

  • Adrenal medulla

  • Cerebral cortex

Erklärung

Frage 41 von 100

1

Which of the following are true of local anaesthetics?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
    2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
    3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form
    4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
    5. Most are weak bases
    6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond

  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
    2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
    3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form
    4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
    5. Most are weak bases
    6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds

  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels
    2. Interact with B subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
    3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form
    4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
    5. Most are weak acids
    6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond

  • 1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated K+ channels
    2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore
    3. Binds in the unionised (hydrophobic) form
    4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane
    5. Most are weak bases
    6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds

Erklärung

Frage 42 von 100

1

Antidysrhythmic drugs treat disturbances of cardiac rhythm and consist of...

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Class I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels

  • Class I blocking calcium channels and Class II blocking sodium channels

  • Class I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking potassium channels

  • Class I blocking potassium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels

Erklärung

Frage 43 von 100

1

What do anticonvulsant drugs target?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Voltage gated sodium channels

  • Ligand gated sodium channels

  • Voltage gated potassium channels

  • G protein receptors

  • Tyrosine kinase receptors

Erklärung

Frage 44 von 100

1

Which condition is categorised by the degeneration of DAergic neurones of the nigrostriatal tract and loss of DA transmission in striatum via D2 receptors?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Parkinson's disease

  • Depression

  • Paralysis

  • Psychosis

  • Hyperthyroidism

  • Cushing's syndrome

Erklärung

Frage 45 von 100

1

Which of the following enzymes are found in the conversion of tyrosine to dopamine?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Tyrosine hydroxylase

  • DOPA decarboxylase

  • DA B-hydroxylase

  • Tyrosine decarboxylase

  • DOPA hydroxylase

  • Carbonic Anhydrase

Erklärung

Frage 46 von 100

1

The metabolism of DA sees it converted to DOPAC and then HVA, catalysed by which enzymes?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Monoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase

  • Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase, then Monoamine oxidase

  • Monoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Decarboxylase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase

Erklärung

Frage 47 von 100

1

Which of the following are true of DA receptors?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • They are G protein linked

  • They are ligand gated ion channels

  • D2-like receptors are inhibitory
    D1-like receptors are excitatory

  • D1-like receptors are inhibitory
    D2-like receptors are excitatory

  • Inhibitory receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels

  • Excitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase

  • Inhibitory receptors inhibit DOPA decarboxylase

  • Excitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels

Erklärung

Frage 48 von 100

1

In the treatment of Parkinson's disease, giving L-DOPA and a decarboxylase inhibitor (carbidopa) would have what effect?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Increase dopamine

  • Decrease dopamine

  • Increase DOPA decarboxylase

  • Increase reuptake by DAT

  • Increase transport of DA into vesicles by VMAT

Erklärung

Frage 49 von 100

1

What is the name and action of a MAO inhibitor?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Selegiline - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles

  • Selegiline - inhibits MAO-B, decreasing the DA content of vesicles

  • Carbidopa - inhibits MAO-A, increasing the DA content of vesicles

  • Prazosin - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles

Erklärung

Frage 50 von 100

1

Which of the following neural pathways are thought to be involved in the development of depression?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Locus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the mid brain and the hypothalamus, and the hippocampus and cortex

  • Dorsal and median raphe nuclei contain cell bodies with projections to the hypothalamus, hippocampus and cortex

  • Dorsal and median locus coeruleus contain cell bodies with projections to the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and adrenal medulla

  • Locus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the andrenal medulla, cortex, and dorsal ventricular brain centre

Erklärung

Frage 51 von 100

1

Which of the following is the correct pathway for 5-HT synthesis?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Tryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT

  • Tryrosine (Tyrosine hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT

  • Tryptophan (Tryptophan decarboxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP hydroxylase) > 5-HT

  • Tryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTS (5-HTS decarboxlase) > 5-HT

  • Tryptophan (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HTP (5-HT hydroxylase) > 5-HT

Erklärung

Frage 52 von 100

1

What is the end product in the metabolism of 5-HT?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 5-HIAA

  • 5-HTP

  • Tryptophan

  • DA

  • NA

  • 5-HITP

Erklärung

Frage 53 von 100

1

What is the last enzyme involved in NA metabolism and what is the final product?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing MHPG

  • Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing DOPEG

  • Monoamine Oxidase producing MHPG

  • Aldehyde dehydrogenase producing 5-HIAA

  • Monoamine Oxidase producing DOPAC

  • Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing HVA

Erklärung

Frage 54 von 100

1

Which of the following is a ligand gated ion channel?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 5-HT-3

  • 5-HT-1(A-F)

  • 5-HT-2(A-C)

Erklärung

Frage 55 von 100

1

Which of the following autoreceptors can be found on the cell body?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • NA A2 and 5-HT-1B

  • NA A2 and 5-HT-1A

  • NA A1 and 5-HT-1B

  • 5-HT-1A and 5-HT-1B

Erklärung

Frage 56 von 100

1

Which of the following is the action of oestrogen?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Sensitises LH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium, inhibits release of FSH

  • Renders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, LH and GRH

  • Inhibits GRH, sensitises FSH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium

  • Renders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, sensitises LH releasing cells

Erklärung

Frage 57 von 100

1

Blocking of which hormones induces a pharmacological menopause?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • FSH

  • LH

  • GRH

  • Progesterone

  • Oestrogen

  • human chorionic gonadotropin

Erklärung

Frage 58 von 100

1

What is the action of prolactin?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Released from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing GRH release

  • Released from hypothalamus, acts on anterior pituitary preventing GRH release

  • Released from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing FSH release

  • Released from hypothalamic nuclei, acts on mammary tissue preventing LH release

Erklärung

Frage 59 von 100

1

Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Warmth

  • Pain

  • Oedema (swelling)

  • Erythema (redness)

  • Oedema (redness)

  • Erythema (swelling)

  • Inc dopamine

  • Dec immune response

Erklärung

Frage 60 von 100

1

Which of the following are vasoactive mediators that will increase vascular permeability leading to oedema?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • histamine

  • 5HT

  • Leukotrienes

  • Prostaglandins

  • Platelet activating factor (PAF)

  • C5a

  • LTB4

  • Cytokines

Erklärung

Frage 61 von 100

1

What do non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) do?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids

  • inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids

  • inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of eicosanoids

  • stimulate cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids

  • stimulate cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids

Erklärung

Frage 62 von 100

1

Which of the following are actions of steroidal anti-inflammatories?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Dec synthesis of prostanoids through inhibition of phospholipase 2

  • Dec prostaglandin-H-synthase transcription

  • Dec cytokines

  • Inhibit cyclooxygenase activity

  • Suppression of the immune system

Erklärung

Frage 63 von 100

1

Which of the following are true of histamine?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Synthesised from the amino acid Histidine

  • Synthesised from the amino acid tyrosine

  • Stored in granules in mast cells and basophils

  • Stored in vesicles in macrophages

  • Released by the complement system and IgEs

  • Released by IgMs

  • G protein coupled receptors: H1-4

  • Tyrosine Kinase receptors: H1-2

Erklärung

Frage 64 von 100

1

What is the meaning of selective toxicity?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Agents that destroy parasites while being relatively non-toxic to the host

  • Agents that destroy the majority of pathogens without disturbing host cells

  • Agents that selectively destroy particular parasites

  • Agents that can target cells of specific organs in order to kill tumour cells

Erklärung

Frage 65 von 100

1

Which of the following is not a major class of antibiotics?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Penicillins

  • Sulphonamides

  • Fluoroquinolones

  • Macrolides

  • Tetracyclines

  • Quinolides

Erklärung

Frage 66 von 100

1

Metastasis is the development of secondary malignant growths at a distance from a primary site of cancer

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

Erklärung

Frage 67 von 100

1

Which of the following is false?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Platinum based drugs cross link DNA with other bases and proteins damaging it

  • Carboplatin has the same mechanism as cisplatin with fewer side effects

  • Daunorubicin is an antibiotic used to treat cancer, blocking the enzyme that normally untangles strands of DNA

  • The Philadelphia translocation results in the genes BCR and abl being joined, switching off cell division by activating other proteins

  • Imatinib inhibits the BCR-abl protein kinase

Erklärung

Frage 68 von 100

1

The Philadelphia translocation occurs on which chromosomes and in which disease?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 9 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

  • 9 and 23, Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

  • 9 and 22, Parkinsons

  • 8 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

Erklärung

Frage 69 von 100

1

Which of the following species of malaria has the quickest onset and is the most severe?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • P. falciparum

  • P. malarie

  • P. Vivax

  • P. Ovale

  • P. Sporozoa

Erklärung

Frage 70 von 100

1

Which stage of the life cycle are plasmodiums at when they re-enter the liver and lay dormant?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Sporozoites

  • Gametocytes

  • Meterozoites

  • Trophozoites

Erklärung

Frage 71 von 100

1

Drug therapy for malaria takes the forms of radical cure, clinical cure and prophylaxis. Which of the following is not a category of anti-malarial drugs?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • 4-aminoquinolines

  • Quinine-methanols

  • 8-aminoquinolines

  • Antifolates

  • Hydroxynapthoquinone

  • Macrolides

Erklärung

Frage 72 von 100

1

What is the treatment for paracetamol overdose longer than one hour after ingestion?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Activated charcoal

  • N-acetylcysteine (NAC)

  • Glutathione infusion

  • Sulphate bypass

  • Glucuronidation

  • NAPQI

Erklärung

Frage 73 von 100

1

A secondary adverse effect of a drug is indirectly caused, secondary to the drug

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 74 von 100

1

Who is least at risk of adverse drug reactions?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Adults

  • Neonates

  • Children

  • Elderly

  • People on medication

  • Females

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Frage 75 von 100

1

Which of the following are correct?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Type A drug reaction: Augmented pharmacological effect

  • Type B drug reaction: Basic - predictable on basis of pharmacology of the drug

  • Type C drug reaction: Chronic effects - occur after prolonged treatment

  • Type D drug reaction: Delayed, effects occur remote from treatment (or in the child of the treated)

  • Type E drug reaction: Expected - common side effects of a drug

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Frage 76 von 100

1

Addiction imbalances involve which two areas of the brain?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Amygdala (Impulsive)

  • Pefrontal cortex (Reflective)

  • Prefrontal cortex (Impulsive)

  • Amygdala (Reflective)

  • Hypothalamus (Impulsive)

  • Anterior pituitary (Reflective)

  • Hypothalamus (Reflective)

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Frage 77 von 100

1

Which of the following are correct when measuring addiction?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • There are a total of 11 addictive traits on the scale

  • There are a total of 9 addictive traits on the scale

  • Mild = 2/3 symptoms

  • Mild = 1-4 symptoms

  • Moderate = 4/5 symptoms

  • Moderate = 5/6 symptoms

  • Severe = 6+ symptoms

  • Severe = 7+ symptoms

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Frage 78 von 100

1

ADH is released from the posterior pituitary in response to low blood volume/pressure or high osmolarity and acts upon the kidney to cause water reabsorption, increasing blood volume

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

Erklärung

Frage 79 von 100

1

Which form of diabetes is categorised by copius hypotonic urine resulting from decreased ADH secretion?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Diabetes Mellitus

  • Diabetes Insipidus

Erklärung

Frage 80 von 100

1

Which parts of the brain does cortisol have negative feedback on and what effect does this have on the hormones they produce?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Hypothalamic nuclei, decreasing CRH
    Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH

  • Hypothalamic nuclei, decreasing ACTH
    Anterior pituitary, decreasing CRH

  • Adrenal cortex, decreasing CRH
    Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH

  • Anterior Pituitary, decreasing CRH
    Adrenal Cortex, decreasing ACTH

Erklärung

Frage 81 von 100

1

Which of the following are under tropic control?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • ADH

  • ACTH

  • Cortisol

  • CRH

  • Insulin

Erklärung

Frage 82 von 100

1

Which of the following are actions of cortisol?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Inc. and maintains normal glucose levels in blood

  • Dec. protein synthesis

  • Inc. gluconeogenesis

  • Dec. glucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue

  • Inc. protein synthesis and dec. lipolysis

  • Inc. glucogenolysis

  • Dec. and maintain glucose levels in the blood

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Frage 83 von 100

1

Which of the following inhibits cortisol synthesis by blocking 11B-hydroxylating enzyme?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Metyrapone

  • Albumin

  • Creatinine

  • Neostigmine

  • Reserpine

  • COMT

  • Glucocorticoids

Erklärung

Frage 84 von 100

1

What is the definition of tropic control?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Hormone released in response to stimulation from another hormone

  • Hormone released directly in response to neural stimulation

  • Hormone directly influenced by circulating blood levels of substrate that the hormone itself controls

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Frage 85 von 100

1

What do sulphonylureas do?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Increase insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

  • Increase insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing hyperpolarisation)

  • Decrease insulin secretion from A cells by opening K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

  • Decrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking Na-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

  • Decrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

Erklärung

Frage 86 von 100

1

If there is fertilisation of the egg, what hormone does the ovum secrete?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Human chorionic gonadotrophin

  • Progesterone

  • Oestrogen

  • FSH

  • LH

  • GRH

  • Human chorionic gonadotrophin and oestrogen

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Frage 87 von 100

1

Which of the following drugs are used to aid fertility?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • GRH agonists

  • GRH antagonists

  • Mefipristone

  • Oestrogen and progesterone pill

  • FSH agonists

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Frage 88 von 100

1

Which of the following innate responses to inflammation occurs 8hrs-6days after injury?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Systemic effects

  • Microvascular events

  • Mediator release

  • Healing

  • Inflammatory cell accumulation

Erklärung

Frage 89 von 100

1

What is the purpose of chemotactic factors e.g. C5a, LTB4, Cytokines?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Recruitment of inflammatory cells leading to inflammation

  • Increased vascular permeability

  • Dilation of arterioles increasing blood flow to site

  • Constriction of venules decreasing blood flow away from site

  • Production of oedema

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Frage 90 von 100

1

Monocytes arrive before leucocytes and transform into macrophages, producing mediators, removing microorganisms/debris and secreting lipocortin

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

Erklärung

Frage 91 von 100

1

What do vascular endothelial cells secrete that causes the smooth muscle in the area of inflammation to relax?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • NO

  • Noradrenaline

  • Acetylcholine

  • Leukotrienes

  • Eicosanoids

  • PAF

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Frage 92 von 100

1

NSAIDS preferentially target PGHS1

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

Erklärung

Frage 93 von 100

1

What is a short term side effect of glucocorticoid therapy?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Cushing's syndrome

  • Hyperglycemia

  • Hypoglycemia

  • Hypertension

Erklärung

Frage 94 von 100

1

Gastric acid secretion is coupled with which histamine receptor?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • H1

  • H2

  • H3

  • H4

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Frage 95 von 100

1

Which of the following is an action that both H3 and H4 receptors share?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Decrease intracellular cAMP

  • Increase intracellular cAMP

  • Activate proton pump

  • Adenyl cyclase coupled

  • Phospholipase C coupled

Erklärung

Frage 96 von 100

1

Which of the following are associated with Penicillin's?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Examples include: Ampicillin, Amoxycillin (developed to have an improved duration)

  • Examples include: Ciprofloxacin and Streptogramins

  • Early forms were effective against gram positives and only a few gram negatives

  • Early forms were effective against gram negatives and gram positives

  • Expanded spectrum versions are effective against pseudomonads

  • Reversed spectrum versions have greater activity on gram positives

  • Can exist in B-lactamase resistant forms (Fludoxacillin)

  • Excreted by the kidney in levels that can be reduced by probenecid

  • Excreted in the bile in levels that can be increased by N-acetylglucosamine

  • Inhibit transpeptidases that establish cross links in peptidoglycan from N-acetylmuramic acid causing bacteria to swell and rupture (bacteriocidal)

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Frage 97 von 100

1

Which of the following are true of sulphonamides?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Selectively targets metabolic pathways: Folate biosynthesis

  • Targets prokaryotic ribosomes and protein synthesis

  • Bacteriocidal

  • The normal substrate the drugs block is PABA

  • Their use is declining outside dentistry

  • Oral administration is given as protected tablets to prevent them being inactivated by gastric juice

Erklärung

Frage 98 von 100

1

Which of the following are Tetracyclines?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Bacteriostatic

  • Half life of 30-80 minutes

  • Half life of 6-18 hours

  • Use is declining outside of dentistry

  • Excreted in the kidney and the bile

  • Interrupts the termination phase of protein synthesis in bacterial ribosomes

  • Don't usually enter the CSF (unless meninges inflammation)

Erklärung

Frage 99 von 100

1

Which of the following is true of fluoroquinolones?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • They are based on naladixic acid

  • Target DNA replication via type II topoisomerases

  • Examples include ciprofloxacin

  • Target protein synthesis

  • Inhibitor of CYP1A2

  • Inhibits DNA gyrase in gram positives and DNA topoisomerase IV in gram negatives

  • Examples include streptogramins and lincosamides

Erklärung

Frage 100 von 100

1

Which of the following is true of macrolides?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Streptogramins such as erythromycin are effective for gram positives and spirochaetes but not gram negatives

  • Lincosamides such as clindamycin are effective for gram positive cocci and anaerobes

  • Target 30S ribosomal subunit

  • Block translocation of newly forming peptide by binding to site near RNA exit tunnel causing peptidyl-transferase RNA drop off

  • Administered IV to bypass metabolism in the stomach

  • Administered orally in protected tablets

  • Excreted in the kidneys

  • Crosses the placenta but not the blood brain barrier

  • Do not enter the CSF

  • Metabolised by demethylation (CYP3A4)

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