What does PHARMACODYNAMICS mean?
what the drug does to the body
what the body does to the drug
What does PHARMACOKINETICS mean?
Where should an adverse reaction be reported to?
SARSS
AMTRA
VMD
practice manager
What does i.m stand for?
intramusclar
intravenous
intraperitoneal
subcutaneous
What does i.v stand for?
intramuscular
What does i.p stand for?
What does p.o/per os mean?
by mouth
by ear
on skin
What does a.c mean?
before meals
after meals
on an empty stomach
with food
What does b.i.d stand for?
twice daily
once daily
three times daily
every 2 hours
What does e.o.d stand for?
every other day
every day
four times daily
What does o.m stand for?
other muscles
other oriffices
submuscular
every morning
every night
every hour
What does o.n. stand for?
What does p.c. stand for?
no food
What does q. stand for?
every
every 4 hours
single dose
double dose
What does q.i.d. / q.d.s. stand for?
two times daily
quarter daily
What does t.i.d. / t.d.s. stand for?
What does p.r.n. stand for?
as needed
without
What does stat stand for?
immediately
What does h. stand for?
hour
What does s.i.d. / o.d. stand for?
What does q.s. stand for?
as much as suffices
What does ad. lib. stand for?
as desired
What does amp. stand for?
ampoule
capsule
tablet
suspension
What is the proprietary name of a drug?
the name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered
the name of the active ingredient in the medication
What is the generic name of a drug?
Ketaset, keraject, ketavet and vetalar are all ____ names of the drug.
proprietary
generic
Which schedule does cannabis and LSD come under?
schedule 3
schedule 1
schedule 4
schedule 5
Which schedule of drug requires a Home Office License?
schedule 2
Which of the following schedule of drug has no use within veterinary medicine?
Morphine, methadone, pethidine, fentanyl and ketamine are all in which schedule?
Bartiurates, bupremorphine and midazolam are all in which schedule?
Which schedule of drugs are subject to strict storage, precription, dispensing, destruction and record keeping requirements?
Tramadol is in which drug schedule?
Diazepam and anabolic steroids come under which drug schedule?
Pardale, Codeine/Paracetamol are all in which drug schedule?
Schedule 3 drugs are all required to follow CD prescription writing requirements. True or False?
True
False
How long must invoices for schedule 5 drugs be kept for a minimum of?
2 years
5 years
6 months
they don't have to be kept
The five drug schedules all come under which legislation?
the misuse of drugs regulations 2001
controlled drugs regulations 2020
the medicines act 1968
the health and safety at work act 1974
How often should CDR's be recorded?
weekly
monthly
every 6 months
every fortnight
The responsibility of recording CDR ultimately lies with who?
the veterinary surgeon
the veterinary nurse
any suitably qualified person
SQP
Which of the following drugs is a schedule 3 drug?
bupremorphine
ketamine
codeine
cannabis
Which schedule 3 drug should be stored in a CD cabinet?
morphine
fentanyl
Which schedule 3 drug can be prescribed to a patient for a genuine clinical reason under the cascade?
Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
diethylpropion
methamphetamine
flunitrazepam
methadone
temazepam
Drugs from which schedule are advised to be kepy in a CD cabinet?
CD containers/cabinets should indicate that there are CD's kept inside. True or False?
What is the british standard coding for medicine cabinets?
BS 2881 : 1989
BS 2441 : 1988
BS 1986 : 2234
BS 2222 : 1111
How many levels of security should CD medicine cabinets have by the british standard coding?
three layers
two layers
one layer
five layers
The CD cabinet should be...
bolted to the wall or floor
kept in a locked room
kept away from the public
kept inside of a safe
The CD cabinet should be
double-locked with seperate keys
kept under a safe combination
kept inside a locked room
Where can a veterinary professional find further guidance on safe storage of CD's?
CDLOs (controlled drugs liason officer)
police
senior veterinary surgeons
misuse of drugs regulator
If on a call out visit how should CD's be transported safely?
a locked glove compartment, bag, box or case which must be kept locked when not in use
a locked car at all times when not being used
they cannot be transported outside of the veterinary practice
a portable steel safe with a code to access it
How should one dispose of out-of-date and returned drugs?
cat litter
denaturing kits
soapy water
down the drain
How should one dispose of residual or waste drugs?
poured down the drain
'There is no legal requirement to have the disposal of waste witnessed'. Leftover medicine (including CDs) is considered waste. True or False?
According to the RCVS pratice standards scheme, what must be written on an in use injectable medicine?
opening date or use by date
date of broachment and initials
opening date and initials
date of broachment
Which colour bin should non-hazardous medicinal waste be placed in?
blue
ornage
purple
yellow
Which one of the following processes occurs during phase II of the metabolic process to eliminate drugs from the body?
conjugation
hydrolysis
oxidation
redistribution
In which part of the nephron does glucose reabsorption occur?
collecting duct
distal convoulted tubule
proximal convoluted tubule
loop of henle
In which part of the nephron does aldosterone act to increase Na+ reabsorption?
distal convoluted tubule
What is the correct order of the pharmacokinetic process?
absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
absorption, metabolism, distribution, excretion
metabolism, absorption, distribution, excretion
metabolism, distribution, absorption, exretion
In order to acquire a marketing authorisation, a new medicinal product should have been tested for which of the following?
safety, efficacy, quality
quality, efficiency, safety
safety, cost, efficacy
efficacy, quality, reliability
Which term refers to the movement of drugs within the body?
pharmacokinetics
pharmacodynamics
pharmacology
pharmacy
In terms of drug interaction what is the term antagonism defined as?
one drug inhibits the effects of another drug
one ineffective drug enhances the effect of another drug
response is equal to the combined responses of individual drugs
response is greater than the combined responses of individual drugs
What does a 2% solution correspond to?
2g per 100ml
2g per 1000ml
2mg per 100ml
2mg per 1000ml
A 6kg dog required an injection. The dosage is 5mg/kg of a 2.5% suspension. What volume in mls should be injected?
0.8
1.2
1.5
2.4
What does the abbreviation o.n. mean when written on a prescription?
as required
once a day
Which of the following is the correct term for a medicinal product that supresses nausea and vomiting?
antiemetic
anticholinergic
sympathomimetic
antineoplastic
Which of the following controlled drugs fall under schedule 3 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations?
pethidine
Which of the following people would NOT be deemed suitable for witnessing the disposal of a controlled drug?
a VMD inspector
a veterinary surgeon from a different branch of the same company
a police drug liaison officer
a veterinary surgeon from a different practice/company
How long should a register of controlled drugs be kept for?
minimum of 2 years
minimum of 5 years
minimum of 3 years
minimum of 4 years
Of these commonly used parenteral administration routes, which results in the lowest bioavailability?
Which organ is responsible for the first-pass effect?
liver
kidney
brain
small intestine
Which of the following is NOT an example of a NSAID?
prednisolone
carprofen
grapiprant
fibrocoxib
A bacteriostatic antimicrobial has what effect on bacteria?
inhibits reproduction
kills them
inhibits development
alters their cell membrane to prevent nutrient absorption
For how long before the administration of pimobendan should food be withheld from the patient?
1 hour
2 hours
3 hours
8 hours
Which non-steriodial anti-inflammatory drug should be avoided in cats, as they are unable to metabolise it effectively?
paracetamol
meloxicam
ketoprofen
Who holds the register of approved Veterinary Practice Premises?
animal medicines training regulatory authority
royal college of veterinary surgeons
veterinary medicines directorate
department for environment, food and rural affairs
Which of the following shows all of the categories from which a SQP can prescribe and supply?
POM-VPS, NFA-VPS
POM-V, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS, AVM-GSL
NFA-VPS, AVM-GSL, POM-V
AVM-GSL, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS
For the administration of prednisolone by the owner at home, which of the following would NOT be a warning discussed with them?
keep away from cats due to toxicity risk
wear gloves during administration and wash hands after use
stop if the patient develops a corneal ulcer
do not stop the course suddenly, or without consulting the vet
How can the Safe Custody Regulations be met when storing controlled drugs in a practice car?
keep them in a locked glove
a locked container fixed within the boot of the car
a locked bag or box that is removed and constantyly attended when the vehicle is left unattended
all answers are correct
Unless specified differently on the data sheet, for how long can a medicine be used from a multi-dose vial once broached?
7 days
28 days
14 days
5 days
Which of the following patient factors are likely to reduce the onset and duration of action of a medication administered subcutaneously?
dehydration
shock
a poor regional blood supply
all of the above
What type of medicine should be dispensed into a fluted bottle?
medicines for external application
medicines for oral application
all liquid medicines
powders and granules
When did the VMD establish a joint bill with the department of health and social care?
2020
2013
2018
2015
In which part of the medicines and medical devices bill is veterinary medicine covered?
PART 1
PART 2
PART 4
PART 3
Powers in the medicines and medical devices bill do not allow creation of entirely new regulatory regimes. True or False?
true
false
What does TP stand for in regards to legislation (UK GOV)?
treatment plan
transition period
turning point
testing period
Which clause delegates the power to a specific body to make regulations about veterinary medicines?
clause 10
clause 8
clause 9
clause 7
Which clauses hold specific matters that may be amended and supply VMR appropriately?
clauses 8 and 9
clauses 9 and 10
clauses 7 and 8
clauses 8 and 10
What are the three top priorities when making regulations?
safety of veterinary medicines in relation to animals, humans and the environment, availablity of veterinary medicines, attractiveness of UK as a place in which to develop or supply veterinary medicines
safety and distribution of veterinary medicines, safety of the environment in relation to veterinary medicines, safety of animals and humans in the development of veterinary medicines
Who is the appropriate authority as set out in clause 8 of the MMD bill?
Secretary of State and/or Northern Ireland Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (DAERA)
Veterinary Medicines Directorate (VMD)
Animal Medicines Training and Regulatory Authority Medical (AMTRA)
Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (DEFRA)
Clause 9 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
manufacture, marketing, supply and field trials
manufacture and supply
manufacture, testing and supplies
marketing and supply
Clause 10 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
fees, offences, powers of inspectors, costs
marketing and distrubution
fees, offences and testing
costing and distribution
Clause 11 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
interpretation and definitions of part 2 of the bill
bills, costs and supply
marketing and distribution
fees, offences and payable fees
Which of the following is NOT true?
any proposed changes to the VMR will be subject to formal, public consulation
interested stakeholders have opportunity to provide feedback
feedback considered before revised VMR go to parliament
any propsed changes to the VMR do not require public feedback and will only be assessed by the appropriate people/organisations
Which of the following is NOT a responsiblity of the VMD?
monitoring adverse reactions
authorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines
making and enforcing UK legislation regarding veterinary medicines
responsible for representing the UK's royal veterinary surgeons community
A veterinary practice must first apply to the RCVS and then the VMD to register their practice.
Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
registering and storing CD's securely in line with the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001
a record of all POM-V and POM-VPS drugs bought, sold and administered within the practice
how medicines are stored in relation to conditions and temperature and daily minimum and maximum temperature recordings
a written record of every endo/ecto parasitic treatment and when it has been dispensed and to whom
all prescriptions are completed with the correct information
the practice has a kit and PPE to deal with medicine spillages
that any medicine dispensed in a container, other than the original, needs to be correctly labelled and that the client is provided with safety guidelines
that all medicine is labelled with the date that it was recieved into practice
if a small practice treats chickens, a record of the withdrawal period required before the eggs are safe to eat
that open medicines are used within the recommended time frame
that cytotoxic, cytostatic and certain hormonal medicines are stored, handled and disposed of correctly
the record of every cytotoxic waste in and out of the building
Which of the following is concerned with controlling the prescription and dispension procedures in veterinary practices in the UK?
the VMD
the veterinary medicines regulations 2013
the misuse of drugs act 2001
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
Monitoring adverse reactions
classification of veterinary medicines
supply of veterinary medicines - whether they can be supplied by a veterinary surgeon or a suitably qualified person
requirements for the suitably qualified person
Authorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines
precription requirements
prescribing cascade
registraton of premises
storage and disposal requirements
Which of following is true as of 2003 following a report by the competitions commission?
veterinary surgeons are obliged to offer prescriptions to allow clients to buy medicines from another practice/pharmacy
veterinary surgeons do not have to offer prescriptions
if a veterinary surgeon supplies a prescription for a veterinary brand of a medication then the pharmacist or SQP dispensing can supply any brand name or generic name of that drug
veterinary surgeons have to supply a client with the cheapest possible option of a medication
If a veterinary surgeon wishes to put an animal on a particular medication, what is the first step...
if a medication for the condition exists then they must use the medication licensed for that animal or condition
they can use any medication outside of that animals species as long as it is for animal use only
they can use any licensed medication in the UK as they see fit (inc. for humans)
they can use any licensed medication in the EU as they see fit (inc. for humans)
In the circumstance that there is no authorised medication for a specific condition in a specific species what is the first step the veterinary surgeon can take in prescribing under the cascade?
a medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species
a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used
the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
In the circumstance that there is no licensed medication in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used.
In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species
In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product authorised by another EU state use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
When using a medication that is licensed elsewhere in the EU, an import license must be obtained from the secretary of state.
The administration of medication prescribed under the cascade is carried out under the authorisation of the veterinary surgeon, but who is responsible overall for this?
the SQP
the person supplying
Which category of drugs contain narcotic substances?
POM-V
POM-VPS
NFA-VPS
AVM-GSL
Which of the following can be supplied by any retailer?
How long is the WITHDRAWAL PERIOD?
2 weeks
1 month
When treating equines as non-food animals the veterinary surgeon must obtain a declaration from the owner and this must be recorded in the equine passport.
Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
pentobarbitone
phenobarbitone
diazepam
midazolam
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
anabolic steroids
Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
How long are prescriptions for drugs in schedules 2 and 3 valid for?
30 days
Are repeat prescriptions allowed for schedule 2 and 3 drugs?
yes
no
How long are prescriptions in schedule 4 valid for?
58 days
Are schedule 4 repeat prescriptions allowed?
Which schedule includes preperations that contain a low concentration of a controlled drug such as codeine or morphine?
Who regulates controlled drugs are defined in the misuse of drugs regulations 2001?
home office
DEFRA
Which of the following schedule 2 drugs does not have to be locked in the CD's cabinet?
quinalbarbitone
What is the correct temperature in which refridgerated drugs must be kept?
2-8 degrees celcius
2-10 degrees celcius
-2-4 degrees celcius
-2-6 degrees celcius
At which temperature should drugs be kept at room temperature?
15-25 degrees
18-15 degrees
5-10 degrees
10-17 degrees
At which humidity should the room be in order to keep tablets and capsules in correct conditions?
60%
70%
20%
50%
How many members of staff are needed to record and witness the withdrawal of a schedule 2 controlled drug?
one
three
two
four
How often should a check of all records and the current level of pharmaceutical preparations/stock take be performed?
yearly
every 2 years
every 2 weeks
The controlled drugs register must be out of sight of the general public.
The species and identity of the animal must be included on a prescription.
How long should a copy of a written prescription be kept in the practice?
3 years
A record of the batch number and expiry date of the product prescribed must be kept.
Analgesic drugs are either opioid or non-opioid.
Which of the following drugs is a partial opioid agonist?
Buprenorphine
Methadone
Morphine
Pethidine
Which of the following is a natural agent?
Ketamine
Fentanyl
What are the names of the three receptors/peripheral sites that opioids bind to?
Mu delta and kappa
OP1 OP2 OP3
MOP DOP KOP
Morphine , Methadone, Codeine , Pethidine , Fentanyl , Buprenorphine and Butorphanol are all…
Non opioid analgesics
Opioid analgesics
Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
buprenorphine
Codeine
Diazepam
Butorphanol
Cannabis
Carprofen
Which of the following is a mixed agonist/antagonist?
What is a mixed agonist/antagonist?
bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
possess both properties
What is a Partial opioid agonists?
What is a Full opioid agonists?
Possesses both properties
Where are opioids metabolised?
Liver
Kidneys
Small intestine
Stomach
Where are opioids excreted from?
Bile
Kidneys or bile
Which of following antagonises the effects of opioids?
Naloxone
Antisedan
