AE MQF 10 Jan 2015

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life define a ______________

Waiver authority for contents of AFI 11-2AE V3 is the ______

During operational aeromedical evacuation missions no later than ___ hour prior to landing a crew member will make the following call to update arrival time and provide _____

The MCD will coordinate with PIC to establish immediate communication with TACC/AOC and PMRC anytime:

A basic AE crew consists of ___/____ for AE missions IAW AFI 11-2AE V3 (EXCEPTION for C-21 missions)

The PIC with an augmented crew may accept an augmented FDP as long as:

Which of the following does not describe a MCD

The Squadron's CN after reviewing the ORM worksheet, may change the crew compliment to consist of no less than 1 FN and 2 AETs, and will notify the controlling c2 agency of changes if different from the mission directive

______ or designee will augment an aircrew when FDP exceeds 16 hours and the mission profile will allow augmenting members adequate time to rest en route

The _____ must designate who is going to be the MCD on a flight authorization, IAW AFI 11-401 prior to mission execution

SQ/CC shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties

What is the primary fatigue counter measure available to aircrew members?

C2 agents shall not disturb an aircrew member in crew rest except __________.

What is the purpose of the assertive statement "Time Out"?

What is the goal of the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)?

What will be accomplished prior to concurrent servicing (CS) on the C-17 or C-130?

At what point during the PRICE check of the MA-1 portable walk-around bottle do you fit and adjust your harness?

When AE crews are augmented for time, how is flight time documented on the AFTO Form 781?

If a Medical Emergency/Change in Patient Status in flight occurs, the MCD/AECMs will immediately notify the PIC regarding the gravity and nature of the situation and will also:

Which of the following are effective CBRN Passive defense measures?

If the aircraft is configured with airline seats, the ______ will check the security of all patient/passenger seats by lifting upward on the front of the seat frame and gently pushing and pulling on the seat backs. Minimal movement is acceptable.

In the AE system, transfer of physical care is complete once:

All of the following statements are correct except?

During Preflight Inspection, the interior inspection will be accomplished by using the abbreviated flight crew checklist; the _____________ is responsible for ensuring emergency passageways are clear.

When considering placement of an "H" sized compressed gas cylinder to a PSP for an AE mission, it should be secured:

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed define a____________________.

The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) is the preferred _________________ oxygen, smoke, and fume protection.

Who is responsible for ensuring there are enough EPOS units for each AECM, patient, and attendants?

The EPOS will not function without the removal of the________. If the red knob separates, grasp the lanyard to pull the __________ off the cylinder and then proceed to use the EPOS as directed.

The PBE/EEBD is a _____minute self-contained, completely disposable breathing unit, with a solid state oxygen supply source.

AECMs are responsible for refilling and discharging the MA-1 oxygen issued by Aircrew Flight Equipment (AFE). Prior to turn in the cylinder, the cylinder pressure will be reduced to between___ and ____ PSIG gage pressure.

The adult/child (A/C) LPU is the preferred LPU for AECMs and patient/passengers during ditching situations. The LPU can be used on children greater than _________ old.

PSP-S: Six PSP seats supporting up to six ambulatory patients, medical attendants or crewmembers. Each seat is rated to hold _______ LBS.

When three patients are transported on a PSP litter tower, each litter position is rated to hold____ LBS.

On the C-130 J aircraft, six 3-pin "household type" service outlets can be used with AE equipment that operates on 115 Volt/400 Hz. Each outlet will provide ___ amps for a total of ___ amps.

A primary 115V/60 Hz converter is installed on-board the C-17 which provides 60 Hz electrical power to the ____ aeromedical electrical outlet panels. There are two 115 VAC/60Hz outlets on each panel.

A minimum quantity of ____ liters of LOX is required for scheduled aeromedical evacuation missions on a C-17 originating from staged/home station.

To increase C-17 electrical amp capability, a Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter may be plugged directly into one of the 115-200V/400 Hz AC outlets located on the six aeromedical electrical outlet panels. Do not exceed 20 amps per aircraft left side and 20 amps per aircraft right side to the ______Hz system for a total of _____amps when using the Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter.

The release of TCTO 1C-135-1806 provides three additional electrical outlets on the KC-135 R/T block, 40 aircraft. The three new outlets and the galley plug provide a total of ____ amps.

When connecting the pigtail adaptor to the galley plugs on the KC-135, ensure both circuit breakers marked ____________ and __________ are pulled.

The KC-135 air conditioning system is not operated on the ground. AE crews will request ground air conditioning units when ambient air temperature is ___ degrees or greater.

Latrine capacity in the KC-135 is limited. If not equipped with the Improved Toilet Assembly (TCTO 1C-135-1596), the aircraft will depart home station with an operable latrine and a minimum of ___________________ and _________________.

A total of ___ litter patients can be floor-loaded on the C-130. An additional two pallet positions are available on the C-130J-30 model that can accommodate an additional___ litter patients.

On the C-17, a total of ____ litters patients can be floor-loaded. An additional ____ litters patients can be placed on the ramp for a maximum utilization of the aircraft.

On the KC-135 the maximum floor-loaded litter capacity is _____ patients. Maximum altitude for floor-loaded patients is flight level ______.

It is the responsibility of the ___________ to ensure each aeromedical evacuation crewmember (AECM) and/or other medical personnel supporting AE elements assigned to their unit receives training on the applicable equipment contained within this publication.

If equipment malfunction/failure occurs during an AE mission the MCD will ensure the following paperwork/actions are accomplished:

After delivery of all medical equipment from HQ AMC/SGXM, receipt of the Initial Capabilities Document, and AMC/A3TM generated training plan, the implementation phase will be as follows?

The following statements about the Minilator are correct, except:

The Next-Generation Portable Therapeutic Liquid Oxygen (NPTLOX) System when filled with liquid oxygen (LOX) will provide for an uninterrupted supply of therapeutic oxygen. The system has the capacity to store _____ of liquid oxygen (LOX) and convert the LOX to a gaseous state.

The NONIN 9550 Onyx II has a tricolor LED display provides a visual indication of the pulse signal quality. Which of the following is not true?

During all operational and Aeromedical Readiness Missions, the MCD will document on the AF Form 3829, or on the computer generated TRAC2ES cover sheet the following?

Synchronized cardioversion is permitted by ACLS flight nurses without physician supervision utilizing which piece of equipment?

_______ and __________ indicate a mandatory requirement.

The Turbo cuff function on the Propaq Encore monitor will automatically measure NIBP at what intervals?

When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System and connecting to aircraft power:

If the ______ lamp is illuminated (steady light) on the Unitron Portable Power System, move the unit control on/off switch breaker to the off position, voltage being applied to the input of the portable power system is improper for unit operation.

Which of the following is true regarding the IMPACT 326M Portable Suction Unit?

When inserting tubing into the IVAC Medsystem III infusion pump; with tubing ______, use a 45 degree _______, motion to insert cassette into channel.

Placement of the Atrium Express Dry Seal Chest Drain include:

When transporting an infant in the ALSS, take the temperature of the infant every ________unless directed otherwise by the medical attendant. Document temperature on Patient Evacuation Record (IMT 3899, Patient Movement Record).

The NATO Litter Backrest is used to provide elevation for patient's head. The 90 degree position on the NATO litter backrest will not be used during __________.

Use a minimum of ______ litter bearers to enplane The North American Rescue Over Sized Litter (OSL). However, there are four attached carrying straps on each side of the litter to accommodate up to ____ personnel.

The Aircraft Wireless Intercom System (AWIS) is approved for use on the following:

The primary goal of AE medical transport is to meet the perceived, actual, or potential health needs of the patient, while maintaining the continuum of care. _______________ are responsible for assuring the clinical currency of assigned personnel.

Matching an individual's ongoing needs with the appropriate level and type of medical, psychological, health, or social service within an organization and across multiple organizations is ________________.

DNR orders will not be more than _______ hours before the originating flight.

Documentation of double-checks will be reflected by two signatures on required forms/flow sheets or on the AF Form 3899A. This is applicable to___________________.

_____________are required and recorded on patients with elevated temperatures, suspected or known infections, or abnormal pulse rates.

__________________ and ______________ are signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax.

In normal situations, patients with recently removed chest tubes will not be airlifted until the following conditions are met, which of the following is not correct:

What conditions require immediate transport and contact with the burn team, if the situation allows.

For burn patients, fluid resuscitation calls for one-half of the total amount to be infused over the first ____ hours from the time of injury, and the second half infused over the following ____ hours.

Accurate administration of IV therapy poses one of the greatest concerns in-flight. IV drip rates will be reevaluated____________.

____________ in head injured patients can be catastrophic because cerebral blood vessels cannot auto regulate and therefore cannot constrict to preserve cerebral blood flow during hypotension. When auto regulation is lost, massive cerebral vasodilation occurs, and secondarily _______ ICP.

Prior to initiating transcutaneous pacing (TCP) with an approved AE cardiac monitor/defibrillator, the flight nurse will contact Command and Control (C2) for_______________

Casualties displaying any of the Military Acute Concussion Evaluation (MACE) "red flags" which include ______________ should be referred for additional medical evaluation as soon as operationally possible.

When caring for a Patient with a Negative-Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT) system complete the following:

Ideally, plaster casts should be at least ______ hours old to allow for possible soft tissue expansion after an acute injury.

______________ is the single most important method for preventing the spread of infection.

If a patient is exhibiting aggressive and uncontrollable behavior, is extremely agitated and violent, and/or is determined to be a danger to flight safety, self or others on the aircraft, give PRN medication as ordered. If no PRN medication is ordered, give __________________ IAW established guidance.

When utilizing leather restraints, perform observation/documentation every ____ minutes. Use AF IMT 3899G, Patient Movement Restraint Observation Flowsheet.

Hand off of epidural analgesia/peripheral nerve block infusions include:

When treating a patient for known or suspected narcotic overdose, if the patient is unresponsive to Narcan, what should be administered next?