Microbiology/Pathology III

A) Myxoma

B) Papillary fibroelastoma

C) Rhabdomyoma

D) Chordoma

E) Leiomyoma

A) Bone marrow sites

B) Corticomedullary junctions in the thymus

C) Primary follicles of the lymph nodes and of the spleen

D) Germinal centers of the lymph nodes and of the spleen

E) Paracortex of the lymph nodes and periarteriolar lymphoid sheath of the spleen

A) Blastomyces dermatitidis

B) Coccidioides immitis

C) Sporothrix schenckii

D) Rhizopus spp.

E) Histoplasma capsulatum

A) polypropylene

B) polyvinyl chloride

C) polystyrene

D) polyethylene

E) polyurethane

A) Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

B) Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

C) Interleukin-3 (IL-3)

D) Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

E) Interleukin-5 (IL-5)

A) Silent mutation

B) Missense mutation

C) Point mutation

D) Nonsense mutation

E) Frameshift mutation

A) Retrovirus

B) Togavirus

C) Orthomyxovirus

D) Reovirus

E) Rhabdovirus

A) D-cycloserine

B) Bacitracin

C) Clindamycin

D) Penicillin

E) Tetracycline

A) magnification by the ocular lens and the wavelength of the light

B) numerical aperture

C) numerical aperture and the wavelength of the light

D) level of magnification by the ocular lens

E) wavelength of light

A) Endoplasmic reticulum

B) Cytoplasmic membrane

C) Nuclear membrane

D) Golgi bodies

E) Mitochondria

A) T lymphocytes

B) Basophils

C) Natural killer cells

D) B lymphocytes

E) Preformed antibodies

A) Interleukin 1 (IL-1)

B) Interleukin 6 (IL-6)

C) Interleukin 8 (IL-8)

D) Transforming Growth Factor - beta (TGF-beta)

E) Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF

A) Clostridium and Staphylococcus

B) Clostridium and Bacillus

C) Mycoplasma and Bordetella

D) Streptococcus and Mycoplasma

E) Mycoplasma and Bacillus

A) Salk polio vaccine

B) Hepatitis B vaccine

C) Yellow fever vaccine

D) Thyphoid vaccine

E) Cholera vaccine

A) MHC-class I

B) MHC-class II

C) MHC-class III

D) CD4

E) CD8

A) cytomegalovirus

B) rabies

C) measles

D) Leprosy

E) poliomyelitis

A) rheumatic mitral valve disease

B) calcific aortic stenosis

C) infective endocarditis

D) mitral valve prolapse

E) chronic cor pulmonale

A) Cri-du-chat syndrome

B) Down's syndrome

C) Klinefelter's syndrome

D) Turner's syndrome

E) Edward's syndrome

A) It magnifies in two steps

B) It has two specimen stages

C) It produces its resolution in two steps

D) It can be adjusted to either to polarize or not to polarize light

E) It produces both magnification and resolution

A) Presence of Eosinophils

B) Peripheral aggregation of chromatin

C) Inflammation

D) Disaggregation of polyribosome

E) Karyolysis

A) Measles virus

B) Mumps virus

C) Rubella virus

D) Respiratory synctial virus

E) Parainfluenza virus

A) Treponema pallidum

B) Toxoplasma gondii

C) Mumps

D) Cytomegalovirus

E) Rubella virus

A) Mitral valve dysfunction

B) Cardiac rupture

C) Ventricular aneurysm

D) Pericarditis

E) Mural thrombosis with embolus

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Type III

D) Type IV

A) Tetanus toxin

B) Shiga-like toxin

C) TSST-1

D) Cholera toxin

E) Pertussis toxin

A) persistence

B) latency

C) tolerance

D) virulence

E) opportunism

A) Syphilis

B) Atherosclerosis

C) Thromboangiitis obliterans

D) Kawasaki's disease

E) Polyarteritis nodosa

A) Both statements are TRUE.

B) Both statements are FALSE.

C) The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE.

D) The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa has peritrichous flagella while Escherichia coli has polar flagella

B) Escherichia coli can ferment lactose while Pseudomonas aeruginosa cannot

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces exotoxin A while Escherichia coli does not

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa can synthesize pyocyanin while Escherichia coli cannot

E) Both Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Escherichia coli have cytochromes in their electron transport chains

A) Homocystinuria

B) Tay-Sachs disease

C) Spina bifida

D) Down syndrome

E) Phenylketonuria

A) thyroid

B) ovary

C) breast

D) pancreas

E) colon

A) At initial presentation, the central nervous system is almost invariably involved

B) An older age group is involved in African than American Burkitt's lymphoma

C) Usually does not occur in children older than five years of age

D) Bone marrow involvement is less frequent in American than African Burkitt's lymphoma

E) Isolated jaw involvement is more common in African than American Burkitt's lymphoma

A) buccal mucosa

C) soft palate

D) lateral border of the tongue

E) floor of mouth

A) gastrointestinal tract and respiratory system

B) respiratory system and urothelial

C) skin and gastrointestinal tract

D) respiratory and vascular systems

E) liver and skin

A) significantly higher in keloids

B) highest in normal skin

C) significantly lower in hypertrophic scars

D) significantly lower in keloids

E) significantly higher in hypertrophic scars than keloids

A) Salk polio vaccine induces IgA whereas Sabin polio vaccine does not

B) Sabin polio vaccine requires only one administration whereas Salk polio vaccine requires three administrations

C) Sabin polio vaccine induces cytotoxic T cells whereas Salk polio vaccine does not

D) Sabin polio vaccine is safer because it is an inactivated vaccine where Salk polio vaccine is an attenuated live virus

E) Sabin polio vaccine is administered through an intramuscular injection whereas Salk polio vaccine is administered orally

A) Dilantin (diphenylhydantoin)

B) HIV infection

C) Rheumatoid arthritis

D) Rubeola

E) Syphilis

A) activation of adenylate cyclase

B) cleavage of 28S ribosomal RNA

C) inactivation of elongation factor-2

D) activation of guanylate cyclase

E) inactivation of DNA polymerase I

A) Viruses can not make their own protein or energy

B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites

C) Viruses do not reproduce by binary fission or division

D) Viruses are free living saprophytes

E) Viruses can be often destroyed by antibiotics

A) acute diverticulitis

B) acute pancreatitis

C) acute cholangitis

D) acute proctitis

E) acute appendicitis

A) Hodgkin's disease

B) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma)

C) Mantle cell lymphoma

D) Mycosis fungoides

E) Small lymphocytic lymphoma

A) Substantia nigra

B) Caudate

C) Globus pallidus

D) Amygdale

E) Red nucleus

A) Osteitis fibrosa cystica

B) Osteoporosis

C) Rickets

D) Osteosarcoma

E) Paget's disease of the bone

A) anterior gingival tissue

B) hard palate

C) posterior gingival tissue

D) soft palate

A) antigenic stabilization

B) antigenic shift

C) antigenic inactivation

D) antigenic drift

E) antigenic denaturation

A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus

B) Staphylococcus epidermidis

C) Staphylococcus haemolyticus

D) Staphylococcus hominis

E) Staphylococcus aureus

A) characterized by epithelial dysplasia

B) characterized by little or no associated inflammation

C) most commonly seen on the lateral borders of the tongue

D) typically asymptomatic

E) commonly associated with candidal organisms in the parakeratin

A) Anti-HBeAg

B) HBcAg

C) HBsAg

D) Anti-HBs

E) Anti-HBc

A) Human immunodeficiency virus infects monocytes

B) CD4 to CD8 ratio is increased

C) GP120 protein on the viral envelope binds to CD4 protein receptor on target cell

D) Human immunodeficiency virus causes functional inactivation and lysis of helper T cells

E) Human immunodeficiency virus can be acquired via sexual contact and blood products

A) Gall bladder

B) Liver

C) Spleen

D) Pancreas

E) Kidney