(203) What design standards do you need to be aware for all military construction?
Military and government only.
Military, industrial, and government.
Military, industrial, and local ordinances
Metropolitan ordinances, military, and industrial.
(203) Where can you find the military design standards for military construction?
AFMC.
AFCESA.
US Army Corps of Engineers.
Unified Facilities Guide Specification.
(204) In the Unified Soils Classification System, what type of soil group does the letter “M” designates?
Silt.
Sand.
Gravel.
Highly organic.
(204) At least what percent of the soil must be retained on the No. 200 sieve for it to be classified as coarse grained?
10 percent.
20 percent.
40 percent.
50 percent.
(204) What size sieve is used to distinguish between gravels and sands?
No. 4
No. 10
No. 40
No. 200
(204) Which of these properties indicate whether or not soil contains clay?
Cohesion.
Plasticity.
Compaction.
Permeability.
(204) When wet soil is air-dried in a laboratory, the moisture is removed by evaporation until
a constant weight is attained.
the meniscus in the pore openings restricts the rate of capillary rise.
the hygroscopic moisture in the soil is in equilibrium with the moisture vapor in the air.
the capillary fringe in the soil recedes to a point where it is in equilibrium with hygroscopic moisture.
(204) What is the plasticity index of a soil with a liquid limit of 28 and a plastic limit of 21?
0.75.
1.33
7.00
49.0
(205) What do we call the particle size distribution of a soil aggregate?
Angularity
Durability.
Gradation.
Granularity.
(205) A soil whose individual grains cover a narrow range of particle sizes is
un-graded.
gap-graded.
well-graded.
poorly graded.
(205) What should be done if a structure is likely to be affected by the ground water table or by capillary action?
Lower the grade line.
Raise the ground water table.
Keep the site location regardless of cost.
Change the site location if there is enough cause.
(206) To prevent the flow of water from standing in low places and seeping into the ground, the minimum longitudinal grade of a ditch should be
0.2 percent.
0.5 percent.
2 percent.
5 percent
(206) The maximum grade of ditch side slopes is determined by
the nature of the soil.
the area to be drained.
specification limitations.
the equipment available.
(206) Which of these conditions is a function of subsurface drainage?
To lower the water table.
To raise the water table.
To maintain underground springs.
To collect water in pools or layers beneath the surface.
(206) What is the minimum distance required between the top of the base course and the natural water table if frost action is to be prevented?
2 feet
3 feet
4 feet
5 feet
(207) Asphalt cement is usually made fluid by
heating
adding alcohol
mixing with coal tar
adding ascorbic acid
(208) Which of these is not one of the functions of aggregate in a bituminous pavement mix?
Provide a nonskid surface.
Provide a binder for the bitumen.
Transmit the load to the base course.
Take the abrasive action of the traffic.
(208) Which of these can determine an aggregate’s affinity for water?
Wash test.
Stripping test
Distillation test
Mohs hardness test
(209) Which variables affect the final mix-design of a bituminous pavement?
Moisture content and aggregate size.
Moisture content, intended use, gradation, and angularity.
Intended use, binder type, loading, and maximum aggregate size.
Plasticity, binder type, maximum aggregate size, and angularity.
(209) A bituminous pavement mixture should be
durable, workable, and porous.
able to withstand traffic loads, durable, and porous
able to withstand traffic loads, workable, and durable.
workable, able to withstand traffic loads, and durable.
(210) Water’s main function in concrete mix is to
make the mix workable and inhibit hydration.
make the mix workable and start hydration.
increase the weight of mix and inhibit hydration.
decrease the amount of mix and start hydration.
(210) Fine aggregate used in cement paste should have a
rough shape to promote workability.
round shape to promote workability.
round shape to promote uniformity.
rough shape to promote uniformity.
(210) To be suitable for construction, concrete should be
strong, watertight, durable, and workable.
economical, strong, watertight, and uniform.
durable, watertight, workable, and uniform.
well graded, economical, strong, and watertight.
(211) Which of these plastic concrete properties is affected as you add more aggregate to a given amount of cement paste?
Non-segregation.
Workability.
Uniformity.
(211) Which of these factors affects the watertightness of a concrete mix?
Aggregate size.
Aggregate gradation.
Water to cement ratio.
Cement amount in mix.
(212) The acceptable range for air content in air-entrained concrete is
2 to 5.5 percent.
3 to 6.6 percent
4 to 7.5 percent.
5 to 8.5 percent.
(212) When too much silt and clay are present in a concrete mixture, the concrete surface
cannot withstand abrasion.
may be covered by hair cracks.
has large cracks.
is shiny.
(213) Cracks in concrete may be controlled by
reducing restraint through the use of joints and increasing moisture to the concrete mix.
reducing steel stresses at service load conditions and increasing restraint through the use of joints.
increasing moisture to the concrete mix and providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement.
providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement and reducing restraint through the use of joints.
(213) Which type of joint is used to allow placement of separate construction elements at different times?
Control joints.
Seismic joints.
Expansion joints.
Construction joints.
(214) The loads present within a structure are classified as
uniformly distributed loads and concentrated loads.
uniformly distributed loads and live loads.
concentrated loads and dead loads.
live loads and dead loads.
(214) Which kind of stress in a structure occurs on the side opposite the load?
Shear
Torsion
Tension
Compression
215) Walls, columns, piers, or pilasters resting on footings are used with
spread foundations.
mat foundations.
raft foundations.
pile foundations.
(215) In general, footings should be located so that they
rest on compacted organic soil.
are at a minimum of 5 feet below undisturbed soil.
are above the ground water table and above the frost line.
are above the ground water table but below the frost line.
(215) A foundation that develops the load bearing capacity through friction with the adjacent soil
uses isolated footings.
uses continuous footings.
is a type of pile foundation.
is a type of spread foundation.
(216) What type of concrete masonry unit CMU is not used for Air Force facilities?
Type I, moisture controlled.
Type II, moisture controlled.
Type I, non-moisture controlled.
Type II, non-moisture controlled.
(217) When may structural steel for buildings be permanently exposed to weather?
When using hollow steel columns.
When using exterior structural steel.
When overall efficiency and economy will result.
When using non-expansion and non-contraction joints.
(217) Temperature and deflection movements in a structural steel framing system are controlled by
rigid framing techniques.
the spacing between members.
expansion and contraction joints.
welding the connections instead of using rivets or bolts.
(218) The dimensional stability of plywood is improved through
additional layers.
cross-lamination.
the use of waterproof glue.
additives impregnated into the fibers.
(218) In regard to wood framing, values known as allowable unit stresses consider the
species and grade of wood members.
stress values within the wood members.
necessary dimensions for wood members.
effects of strength reducing characteristics such as knots.
(218) The stiffness of a wood beam is measured by its
strength.
allowable unit stress.
modulus of elasticity.
resistance to bending.
(219) When constructing a facility what factors determine the design of the plumbing system?
Quantity and types of fixtures, length of storm drainage, capacities of water main, and total number of building population.
Capacity of water main, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and total number of building population.
Total number of building population, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and capacities of equipment and tanks.
Capacities of equipment and tanks, total number of building population, length of storm drainage, and quantity and types of fixtures.
(220) Any part of a piping system, other than a main riser or stack piping, leading from the runout to the individual fixture is called a
branch vent
loop vent
relief vent
branch
(220) The single sloping drain from the base of a soil or waste stack to its junction with the main building drain or with another branch is
a runout.
an interceptor.
a primary branch.
a building sewer.
(221) Which of the following pipe is used for hot and cold water distribution systems and venting piping?
Fiber.
Cast-iron.
Wrought-iron
Copper tubing.
(222) Sewage systems are made up of the
main, drain, and vent piping systems.
main, waste, and vent piping systems.
main, drain, and waste piping systems.
drain, waste, and vent piping systems.
(223) The proportions of gases that make up dry air
are substantially constant at all points on the earth’s surface.
change with the amount of water vapor present in the air.
change with variations in temperature.
vary with the barometric pressure.
(224) Which of the following provides positive and reliable means for controlling temperature, humidity, and moisture condensation?
Cooling by forced or natural ventilation with outside air.
Cooling by the effects of heat conduction into the surrounding earth.
Mechanical cooling and dehumidifying with refrigeration or well water.
Capitalizing on natural elements by orienting facilities to shade and prevailing wind.
(225) Outside air temperatures usually drop after sundown while inside temperatures are kept up by heat absorbed by the structure. Therefore, one way to effectively cool the building is
ventilating the building with outside air during the heat of the day only.
ventilating the building with small quantities of outside air after sundown.
ventilating the building with large quantities of outside air after sundown.
ventilating the building with moderate quantities of outside air throughout the day.
(226) High-pressure heating systems are defined as those which operate at pressures in excess of
150 psi.
100 psi.
30 psi.
15 psi.
(226) A low-pressure heating system requires
less radiator surface but larger pipes than a high-pressure system.
the same radiator surface and pipe size as a high-pressure system.
less radiator surface and smaller pipes than a high-pressure system.
greater radiator surface and larger pipes than a high-pressure system.
(227) What type of ventilation can be used only in areas such as storage buildings and hangars?
Unit.
Gravity.
Comfort.
Mechanical.
(227) The two general classifications of fans are
vane and tube.
axial and vane.
axial and centrifugal.
tube and centrifugal.
(227) Most air filters in use today are the
viscous type.
air washer type.
electrostatic precipitators.
permanent and reusable type.
(228) Which of the following principles are used in the refrigeration cycle?
Evaporation, expansion, and pressure of liquids.
Temperature, pressure, and expansion of liquids.
Expansion, evaporation, and pressure of liquids.
Evaporation, pressure, and temperature of liquids.
(228) A direct expansion system is best used to effectively cool
multistory buildings.
single-story buildings.
a group of buildings.
small single offices.
(229) What type of dual-temperature system uses a two or four-pipe system?
All air system.
All water system.
Air and water system.
Radiant heating system.
(230) A unit of electrical measure that shows current drain is
amp
watt
ohm
volt
(231) In electrical design, what should generally be the minimum size of a conductor for a branch circuit?
8 gauge.
10 gauge.
12 gauge.
14 gauge.
(232) What funding document is used to initially request and authorize funds toward design and/or construction requirements?
AF IMT 9, Request For Purchase.
AF IMT 103, Work Clearance Request.
AF IMT 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request.
DD Form 1391, FY __ Military Construction Project Data.
(233) All construction design projects, whether designed in-house or by an Architectural- Engineering (A-E firm), are required to go through a
conceptual design review.
constructability review.
contractibility review.
contingency review
(234) Which IDIQ contract has been tailored to support MILCON Air Force Military Family Housing (MFH) and other light commercial construction projects such as dormitories, transient lodging, and administration facilities?
Design Build Plus (DB+).
Design Bid Build (D-B-B).
Multiple Award Construction Contracts (MACC).
Simplified Acquisition Base Engineer Requirement (SABER).
(234) What do the detailed task specifications encompass under a SABER contract?
Real property maintenance and repair.
Real property repair and construction needs for the installation.
Real property maintenance and construction needs for the installation.
Real property maintenance, repair, and construction needs for the installation.
(235) Which of the following would not be included in the Statement of Work (SOW) for a construction contract?
Government drawings.
Government cost estimates.
Government technical specifications.
Government maps (i.e., travel routes or restricted areas).
(236) Which statement is not true regarding general provision in a contract?
General provisions pertain to all contracts.
They are optional and used at the discretion of the contracting officer.
They protect the contractor and government in fulfilling the terms of the contract.
They are the required FAR clauses and a standard to all fixed-price construction projects.
(237) Who must make sure the as-built drawings are submitted to drafting to become record drawings?
BCE
Inspector
Contracto
Project Manager
(238) Which statement is not true regarding Independent Government Estimates?
They are used for comparing costs or prices proposed by offeror(s)
They are used for budgeting and reserving funds for the contract.
They are used to capture relative cost incurred during construction.
They are used for determining price reasonableness when only one proposal is received.
(239) Which of the following is not a viable source for developing independent government cost estimates?
Contractor proposals.
Previous similar contracts.
Commercial pricing guides and software.
Existing architectural engineer estimates.
(240) Independent Government Cost Estimates should be classified
Secret.
Sensitive.
Confidential.
For Official Use Only
(241) It is permissible for the contract inspector and contractor’s representative to have lunch and discuss business as long as the meal is paid for by the
Government.
contract inspector.
Dutch treat method.
contractor’s representative.
(242) For a Military Construction Project (MCP) project, the major command’s responsibilities for surveillance normally require how many visits before the acceptance inspection?
One
Monthly
Quarterly
At least two
(242) Under the military construction program, when the Air Force is not the construction agent, the AF inspector is concerned with which of the following surveillance programs?
Daily and partial.
Daily and routine.
Routine and initial.
Routine and partial.
(242) Most post-acceptance inspections are made to
re-assess construction costs.
determine routine maintenance needs.
ascertain scheduled maintenance frequency.
discover latent design or functional deficiencies.
(243) Who would be the single point-of-contact for the BCE and contracting officer on a construction project?
Project inspector.
Project manager.
Contract administrator.
Contract superintendent.
(244) Who is responsible for coordinating an onsite visits to a construction project?
Escort.
Prospective bidder.
Contracting officer.
(245) Identifying omissions or errors in final construction plans can lead to
contractor claims and increase in construction surveillance.
wasted effort and decrease in administrative costs.
higher construction costs and subsequent claims.
an increase in construction surveillance.
(246) Who completes the AF Form 103, Base Civil Engineering Work Clearance Request, for contract work according to the FARs?
Operations and Planning.
Construction manager.
Procurement.
Contractor.
(247) Who conducts the pre-performance conference (PRECON) for a construction project?
Base civil engineer.
Chief of engineering and environmental planning.
(247) Which of the following offices is the only one authorized to obligate the Government with the contractor?
Using agency.
Contracting officer
Construction management.
(248) Which of the materials submittal methods requires an independent testing lab?
Test report.
Shop drawings.
Actual material.
Certificate of compliance.
(249) The contractor submits AF IMT 3064, Contract Progress Schedule, for approval of any project that establishes a continuous performance period of
30 or more days.
60 or more days.
90 or more days.
120 or more days.
(250) Where can the documented proof of the construction project be placed?
Daily log maintained by the using agency.
Daily log maintained by project manager.
Follow-up correspondence maintained by the contractor.
Memo for record maintained by the construction manager.
(250) After a contract inspector reports a safety violation via telephone, the contract inspector should submit a follow-up notification letter to the
contracting office.
safety officials.
using agency.
contractor.
(250) What happens to the inspection records after the construction project is completed?
Destroyed.
Filed in the BCE’s office.
Returned to the contractor.
Turned over to the contracting office.
(251) Who should be present for the prefinal construction inspection?
Contracting officer, construction manager, and base civil engineer.
Construction manager, project inspector, and base civil engineer.
Base Civil Engineer, contracting officer, and contractor.
Project inspector, contractor, and construction manager.
(252) What is the final post construction activity?
BCE inspection.
Final inspection.
Base acceptance.
Final closing inspection.
(001) What agency provides support for areas regarding utility systems?
Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Installations.
Air Force Center for Environmental Excellence.
Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency.
Responsible major command (MAJCOM) engineering staff.
(001) Ensuring that the comprehensive plans of your base support the mission and objectives of the installation is the responsibility of the
responsible major command (MAJCOM).
installation commander.
Air Force civil engineer (CE)
Assistant Secretary of the Air Force.
(001) Who approves the general plan for an installation?
The wing commander.
The responsible major command (MAJCOM).
The Air Force civil engineer (CE).
The Assistant Secretary of the Air Force.
(002) The Air Force Comprehensive Planning Program
identifies and assesses alternatives for development of surrounding communities.
is primarily a budgeting process that ensures funding for base activities.
identifies and assesses alternatives for development of Air Force bases.
allocates personnel to each base according the base’s mission .
(002) The comprehensive planning process analyzes
only the current development potential of the base.
only the long-range development potential of the base.
only the short- and long-range development potential of the base.
the current, short-, and long-range development potential of the base.
(002) Which part of the comprehensive plan is a summary document?
General plan.
Component plan.
Infrastructure plan.
Constraints and opportunities plan.
(002) Which component plan would you refer to if concerned about the capacity of the base water system?
Land use and transportation plan.
Capital improvements program plan.
Composite constraints and opportunities plan.
(002) Which component plan integrates the traditional elements of physical planning with other future plans into one document?
(002) Which map series would you refer to for information regarding future development?
A
D
K
M
(002) Which map series would you refer to for information about the architectural compatibility of your base?
J
L
N
(003) Civil engineers (CE) assist in preparing explosives site plans (ESP) by ensuring that the weapons safety office is
fully aware of all construction actions planned on the installation.
informed of completed construction activities on the installation.
fully aware of all construction actions planned within the inhabited-building distances.
informed of completed construction activities within the inhabited-building distances.
(003) What agency endorses the explosives site plan (ESP) before it is submitted to the DOD Explosives Safety Board?
Air Force Safety Center.
Installation civil engineer (CE) office.
Major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety office.
Installation weapons safety office.
(003) Which example would not require the submission of an explosives site plan (ESP)?
Construction of a missile maintenance facility
Construction of an addition to a weapons storage facility.
A temporary reduction in the storage capacity of UN Class I explosives.
Addition of an aircraft parking area not previously used for explosives operations.
(004) What kind of work can civil engineers (CE) do after receiving preliminary approval of an explosives site plan (ESP)?
Nothing. They must wait until final approval to plan and design the construction project.
Proceed with construction without restrictions.
Begin the first phase of construction.
Begin planning and design activities.
(004) Which construction drawings must be submitted for final approval of the explosives site plan (ESP)?
Only those drawings related to safety and protective features.
Only those drawings showing quantity-distance arcs.
Only those drawings showing the floor plan.
A complete set of drawings showing every aspect of construction.
(004) What color coding is required on maps for an explosives site plan (ESP)?
Potential explosion sites (PES) in blue and exposed sites (ES) in black.
PESs in yellow and ESs in blue.
PESs in red and ESs in green.
PESs blue and ESs in yellow.
(005) Whose airfield safety standards apply when DOD organizations use civil airfields?
Air Standardization Coordinating Committee’s (ASCC).
North Atlantic Treaty Organization’s (NATO)
Federal Aviation Administration’s (FAA) only.
DOD’s if possible; if not, the FAA’s.
(005) How are the airfield planning criteria in UFC 3–260–01 applied to existing facilities constructed under different standards?
Existing facilities are always exempt from conforming to these criteria.
Existing facilities must be brought into compliance with these criteria.
Existing facilities can be brought into compliance with these criteria if it is feasible to do so.
Existing facilities must be brought into compliance with these criteria when the facilities are modified.
(005) Under what circumstances can the DOD airfield planning criteria in UFC 3–260–01 be supplemented?
Only the DOD can supplement the criteria.
A major command (MAJCOM) needs to meet special mission requirements.
A service component needs to adapt to unique operational characteristics.
The installation commander determines that some criteria don’t apply to the installation.
(006) What is the normal length and width of a clear zone for a class B runway?
2,000 feet long and 1,000 feet wide.
3,000 feet long and 2,000 feet wide.
3,000 feet long and 3,000 feet wide.
4,000 feet long and 4,000 feet wide.
(006) If an accident potential zone (APZ) is classified as an APZ I, it is beyond
an APZ II and has only a slight potential for an accident.
an APZ II and has a measurable potential for an accident.
the runway clear zone and has a significant potential for accidents.
the runway clear zone and has only a slight potential for accidents.
(007) In terms of airfield airspace criteria, an obstruction can refer to
objects of natural growth only.
existing man-made objects only.
existing or proposed man-made objects only.
man-made objects, objects of natural growth, and terrain.
(007) Which is not considered an obstruction to air navigation?
An object 600 feet tall at the site of the object .
A 100-foot-tall object within 3 nautical miles of the airfield reference point.
A 400-foot-tall object within 4 nautical miles of the airfield reference point.
A 500-foot-tall object within 4 nautical miles from the airfield reference point.
(007) What type of traverse way requires a minimum of 23 feet vertical clearance?
Interstate highway.
Military roads.
Waterways.
Railroads.
(007) Which runway imaginary surface is an oval-shaped plane at an elevation of 150 feet above the airfield elevation?
Clear zone.
Conical surface.
Primary surface.
Inner horizontal surface.
(008) Who approves all Air Force-wide programs to ensure they conform with DoDI 2000.16, DOD Anti-terrorism Standards?
Air Force Civil Engineer (AF/ILE).
Air Force Anti-Terrorism Chief, AF/AT.
Force Protection Working Group (FPWG).
Air Force Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & Space Operations (AF/XO).
(008) Which of the following is not one of the steps of engineer anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) planning?
Identify constraints.
Design protective systems to counter threats.
Determine levels of protection for assets.
Identify non-combatants on the installation.
(009) What are the three categories of assets you should consider for anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP)?
Personnel, equipment, and aircraft.
Personnel, materials, and aircraft.
Facilities, aircraft, and personnel.
Facilities, equipment and materials, and personnel.
(009) Which aggressors are usually oriented around an ideology, a political cause, or an issue and commonly work in small, well-organized groups with sophistication and efficient planning capability.
Criminals.
Protestors.
Terrorists
Subversives.
(009) Facilities are chosen for anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) measures based on
their current use and the assets they house.
their proximity to base entrance and exit points.
the costs to rebuild them and replace the contents.
the presence of classified materials within them.
(009) Which attack tactic might be used to destroy a building while allowing the aggressor to maintain distance from the occupants?
Stationary vehicle bomb.
Moving vehicle bomb.
Exterior attack.
Forced entry.
(010) When deciding which assets to protect in an anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) program, you should
balance the physical, resource, and political constraints against your asset priority list.
ignore political constraints because diplomatic channels will overcome them.
assume that all necessary resources will be available for AT/FP measures.
enact desirable AT/FP measures regardless of constraints
(010) If possible, assets to be protected under the anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) program should
not be identified with signs.
be located around the exterior walls of buildings.
be located near activities with large visitor populations.
not be located where they are visible to more than one person.
(011) Expeditionary site planning (ESP) is mainly associated with
long-range planning for permanent installations.
short-range planning for permanent installations.
long-range forecasting for national security strategy.
locations where the Air Force presence is not permanent.
(011) Which of the following is primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence?
Expeditionary site plan (ESP).
Aircraft mishap survey plan (AMSP).
Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP).
In-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP).
(011) Which template identifies resources and capabilities of a location by functional area?
Part II, Expeditionary Site Planning (ESP).
Part I, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).
Part II, In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP).
Part II, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).
(011) Which template identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC)?
(011) You will find a complete listing of the functional responsibilities for beddown operations in
AFI 10–219.
AFI 10–404
AFH 10–222 v5.
AFI 32–1042.
(011) Who provides command policy and guidance for implementing in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site planning (ESP) concepts to meet the command’s specific missions?
AF/ILE.
AF/XO.
AF/ILG.
Major command (MAJCOM).
(011) Which of the following is not a responsibility of major command (MAJCOM) functional managers?
Take appropriate action to resolve subordinate unit limiting factors (LIMFAC).
Coordinate site survey requests with major command (MAJCOM) logistics plans function.
Exercise management control over the expeditionary site planning (ESP) program.
Coordinate efforts with MAJCOM logistics plans function and appropriate numbered air force (NAF) agencies.
(012) What are the three sub-processes of the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP)?
Pre-site survey, site survey, post-site survey.
Site selection, data selection, storage and access.
Site survey, data selection, post-site survey.
Pre-site survey, storage and access, post-site survey
(012) Information gathered during an expeditionary site survey is used to generate the
limiting factors (LIMFAC).
airfield suitability assessment.
employment knowledge base (EKB).
anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) plan.
(012) During an expeditionary site survey, data is collected in which components?
Site selection, site survey, reporting.
Pre-site survey, site survey, database development.
Site selection, database development, airfield suitability survey.
(013) Expeditionary site survey data collected with the survey tool for employment planning (STEP) is stored in the
Reconnaissance information database (RID).
Employment knowledge base (EKB).
Expeditionary site assessment tool (ESAT).
Beddown capability assessment tool (BCAT).
(013) Who should units desiring to conduct site surveys outside of their area of responsibility (AOR) contact for permission?
AF Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & Space Operations (AF/XO).
Director of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG).
Their own wing commander.
Their own major command (MAJCOM).
(013) How many members should an expeditionary site survey team have?
Three
Five
Ten
Depends on the mission
013) What is the purpose of the follow-on team in an expeditionary site survey?
Produce an airfield suitability survey.
Gather data relevant to the success of the specific mission.
Produce minimum essential data such as a full spectrum threat assessment.
Gather data for the expeditionary combat support (ECS) beddown assessment.
(013) Who certifies the data collected by an expeditionary site survey team?
All team members.
Site survey team chief.
Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
(014) In the context of expeditionary site planning, what are limiting factors (LIMFAC)?
Minor supply shortfalls.
Budget shortfalls that must be made up.
Enemy strengths that threaten combat support operations.
Personnel or materiel deficiencies that threaten the mission.
(014) In AFI 10–404, Base Support and Expeditionary Site Planning, where would you find guidance on depicting utility layouts that reflect possible expansion of USAF and host nation lines?
Attachment 8 (Ch 7, “Airfield Operations, Part 1”).
Attachment 9 (Ch 8, “Airfield Loading/Parking Plan, Part 2”).
Attachment 45 (Ch 44, “Maps, Part 1”).
Attachment 46 (Ch 45, “Combat Logistic Support, Part 1”).
(015) What is a minimum operating strip (MOS)?
The minimum clear zone around a runway.
The shortest acceptable length of an aircraft operating surface.
The minimum distance between airfield operations and base facilities.
The smallest acceptable length and width of an aircraft operating surface.
(015) The minimum operating strip (MOS) layout is acceptable when it
meets the requirements specified in Chapter 44 “Maps, Part 1” of AFI 10–404, Base Support and Expeditionary Site Planning.
conforms to the standards set by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).
is approved by the Director of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG).
meets the requirements of the wing/installation commander.
(015) The minimum airfield operating strip marking system (MAOSMS) must be correct because it
indicates the location of aircraft staging areas.
serves as the emergency airfield lighting system (EALS).
allows pilots to visually acquire the airfield’s operating surface on approach.
shows the minimum operating strip (MOS) layout requirements of the installation commander.
(016) When arriving at an aircraft mishap site, you must consider all the following hazards except
ejection seat explosives.
human remains.
fuel/hydraulic fluids.
cleared unexploded ordnance (UXO).
(016) What is the minimum number of personnel required for an aircraft mishap survey team?
Two
Four
(016) A full aircraft mishap survey party consists of a survey party chief (SPC) and instrument operator, as well as
a reconnaissance chief, rod person, and rod person recorder.
an instrument operator recorder, rod person, and rod person recorder.
a recovered item recorder, rod person, and reconnaissance assistant.
an instrument operator recorder, rod person, and survey marker.
(201) What facility design element determines how well a facility serves the mission requirement and its occupants on a day in and day out basis?
Functionality.
Flexibility.
Accuracy.
Economy.
(201) When assessing existing conditions at a proposed construction site, what potential hazards should you look for?
Weapons storage area, asbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.
Asbestos, weapons storage area, and contaminated soil.
Asbestos, lead-based paint, and weapons storage area.
Asbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.
(202) What should govern all military construction designs?
Function.
Military, industrial, and local ordinances.
Silt
Sand
Gravel
Highly organic
10%
20%
40%
50%
No. 4.
No. 10.
No. 40.
No. 200.
the meniscus in the pore openings restricts the rate of capillary rise
0.75
Lower the grade line
5 percent.
2'
3'
4'
5'
heating.
mixing with coal tar.
adding ascorbic acid.
Stripping test.
Distillation test.
Mohs hardness scale.
able to withstand traffic loads, durable, and porous.
economical, strong, watertight, and uniform
3 to 6.6 percent.
Shear.
Torsion.
Tension.
Compression.
(215) Walls, columns, piers, or pilasters resting on footings are used with
rest on compacted organic soil
Type I, moisture controlled
branch vent.
loop vent.
relief vent.
branch.
Wrought-iron.
50 psi.
Vane and tube
axial and vane
axial and centrifugal
tube and centrifugal
air washer type
electrostatic precipitators
permanent and reusable type
small single offices
