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Quiz to prep for microbio exam 1.

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Microbiology EXAM 1

Frage 1 von 66

1

Approximately 5% of known microbes cause disease in humans.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 2 von 66

1

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Prokaryotic cells divide via ( binary fission, mitosis and/or meiosis ) and reproduce ( asexually, sexually or asexually ).

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Frage 3 von 66

1

Which of the following are TRUE of prokaryotic cells?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • single circular chromosome of DNA

  • plasma membrane is a fluid-mosaic structure and contains sterols

  • genes are located in a nuclear region

  • extrachromosomal DNA is located in plasmids and mitochondria

  • they have many intracellular organelles

  • ribosomes are 70S

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Frage 4 von 66

1

When flagella are present on eukaryotic cells, they are fibrils of flagellin. When flagella are present on prokaryotic cells, they are membrane-enclosed structures comprised of microtubules.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 5 von 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE about the pili on eukaryotic cells?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Eukaryotic cells do not have pili

  • The pili function as attachment or conjugation pili; this contributes to the virulence of many pathogens

  • The pili are embedded in the external slime layer and assist researchers in identification of pathogens

  • They are complex, membrane-enclosed structures, comprised of microtubules

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Frage 6 von 66

1

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Metabolism is the sum of all the processes carried out by living organisms.

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Frage 7 von 66

1

Which of the following is FALSE concerning metabolism?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Anabolism requires energy, whereas catabolism produces or 'frees up' energy

  • The energy required for catabolism is obtained from either organic or inorganic compounds

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Frage 8 von 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE concerning oxidation and reduction?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Oxidation involves the loss of electrons and hydrogen, whereas reduction involves the gain of electrons and hydrogen

  • Oxidation is exothermic and endergonic; reduction is endothermic and exergonic

  • Reduction allows for the storage of energy; oxidation allows for the liberation of energy

  • During oxidation, oxygen is gained; during reduction, oxygen is neither lost nor gained

  • "Redox" reactions refer to the simultaneous occurrence of oxidation and reduction

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Frage 9 von 66

1

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Fermentation is a(n) ( anaerobic, aerobic ) process that ( does not, does ) create ATP.

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Frage 10 von 66

1

Which of the following are aerobic?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Fermentation

  • Glycolysis

  • Respiration

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Frage 11 von 66

1

Which of the following creates the most ATP?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Fermentation

  • Glycolysis

  • Aerobic respiration

  • Anaerobic respiration

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Frage 12 von 66

1

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( Caspids, Envelopes, Spores ) are a key structural component of viruses. They protect ( nucleic acids, ribosomes, pili ) and determine the ( shape, method of replication, host range ) of the virus, which can help in identification.

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Frage 13 von 66

1

Viruses can have RNA or DNA, both of which can either be single stranded or double stranded.

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  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 14 von 66

1

Which of the following are TRUE concerning viral envelopes?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Few viruses have a typical bilayer membrane

  • Some viruses do not have a membrane, they only have a nucleocaspid

  • Certain viruses have glycoprotein spikes that help attach to host cells

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Frage 15 von 66

1

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in viral replication?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Assembly; Release

  • Assembly; Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Release

  • Introduction; Transcription; Penetration; Release

  • Penetration; Transcription; Synthesis; Assembly; Release

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Frage 16 von 66

1

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Different viruses release their particles differently. Certain viruses ( lyse, engulf ) the cell upon release, thereby causing cell death. Other viruses that cause persistent illness exit the host cell via ( exocytosis, endocytosis ). In latent infections, there is no viral release from host cells.

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Frage 17 von 66

1

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HPV and Epstein-Barr and both types of viruses, which inhibit tumour suppression.

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Frage 18 von 66

1

Oncogenic viruses may be used as a treatment, whereby they enter all cells but only lyse tumour cells, which initiates a systemic anti-tumour immune response.

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  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 19 von 66

1

Bacteria do not have nuclei.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 20 von 66

1

Bacteria may be identified by:

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • size

  • shape

  • staining

  • growth

  • biochemical tests

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Frage 21 von 66

1

Gram positive bacteria retain ink and they turn pink. Gram negative bacteria do not retain the ink and they turn purple.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 22 von 66

1

Select allh the CORRECT statements regarding the growth and replication of bacteria.

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Bacteria exhibit a growth curve (lag, log, stationary, and decline/death)

  • Bacteria replicate via meiosis or mitosis

  • Bacteria undergo asexual reproduction

  • Bacteria may be obligate intracellular, facultative intracellular, or extracellular in their growth

  • Bacteria require an intercellular location in which to grow

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Frage 23 von 66

1

Bacterial endospores are resistant to heat, pH changes, and bleach, but may be killed by radiation.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 24 von 66

1

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Quorum sensing is a key part of the formation of a .

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Frage 25 von 66

1

Biofilms may form in diabetic ulcers or on urinary catheters and pose major problems for culturing. Antibiotics are usually ineffective but bacteriophage treatment may work.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 26 von 66

1

The development of peptic ulcers, secondary to an infection with h. pylori, is an example of...

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • non-communicable disease

  • communicable disease

  • the effects of bacterial biofilms

  • a side effect of bacteriophage treatment

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Frage 27 von 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE concerning parasites?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Protozoa are eukaryotic and most are multicellular

  • Helminths are usually multicellular and only roundworms and flatworms contain parasitic species

  • Arthropods include insects (e.g. lice) and arachnids (e.g. ticks) but not crustaceans (e.g. crayfish)

  • Protozoa are prokaryotic and most are unicellular

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Frage 28 von 66

1

Tapeworms and pinworms are examples of...

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • helminiths

  • protozoa

  • arthropods

  • flukes

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Frage 29 von 66

1

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding parasitic hosts?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Definitive hosts are where parasites reproduce sexually, whereas intermediate hosts are where parasites spend other life stages (e.g. larval)

  • Reservoir hosts cannot spread parasites to humans but they can to other animals

  • Accidental host is another term for reservoir host

  • A dead-end host is where parasites spend the larval stage

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Frage 30 von 66

1

A biological vector can be an intermediate or definitive host, whereas a mechanical vector is not a host.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 31 von 66

1

Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Fungi are eukaryotic and most are multicellular (e.g. molds, mushrooms) but some are unicellular (e.g. yeasts)

  • Most fungi cell walls contain chitin, which is the same polysaccharide in exoskeletons of arthropods

  • Fungi are classified via the nature of the sexual stage of their lifecycle but classification can be very difficult

  • Yeast have hyphae, whereas molds replicate asexually via buds

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Frage 32 von 66

1

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The concept of refers to the ability of certain fungi to change their structure in response to a change in environment. This can be seen with the organism p. brasiliensis, which is yeast-like when on the human body and mold-like when in the environment.

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Frage 33 von 66

1

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Fungi use ( ergosterol instead of cholesterol, cholesterol instead of ergosterol ), which is why drugs such as fluconazole target the enzymes used in synthesis.

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Frage 34 von 66

1

Fungal infections are caused by the use of drugs, such as steroids, antibiotics, and chemo. Fungal infections are not caused by pathogens.

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  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 35 von 66

1

Fungi are very important because they produce antimicrobials, such as penicillin.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 36 von 66

1

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The clinical microbiology lab consists of six main areas: bacteriology (bacteria); (fungi); virology (viruses); (detect antibodies in the blood); parasitology (protozoa, helminthes); and (acid-fast bacteria, e.g. TB).

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Frage 37 von 66

1

Which of the following statements comparing direct detection, culturing, and nucleic acid/signal amplification testing is FALSE?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • SAT and direct detection both have short turnaround times, whereas culturing has a long TAT

  • SAT is both the most expensive and the most sensitive test, compared to culturing and direct detection

  • Culturing involves growing cells on agar plates, whereas direct detection looks at an actual cell

  • Direct detection can only be used for bacteria, not viruses, unlike culturing and SAT

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Frage 38 von 66

1

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the process of gram staining?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Crystal violet; Iodine; Alcohol; Safranin

  • Crystal violet; Alcohol; Iodine; Safranin

  • Safranin; Iodine; Crystal Violet; Alcohol

  • Alcohol; Safranin; Iodine; Crystal violet

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Frage 39 von 66

1

During a gram staining test, the gram negative bacteria go from purple to invisible to pink.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 40 von 66

1

Select which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding direct detection.

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Gram staining is a very common method of direct detection for viruses

  • Calcofluor is a test used to detect fungi; the substance binds to cellulose and chitin

  • Electron microscopy and direct fluorescent antibody staining are two methods to detect viruses

  • Electron microscopy is a common method of direct detection for bacteria

Erklärung

Frage 41 von 66

1

The main purpose of streaking on an agar plate is to isolate only a single specie.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 42 von 66

1

After a bacterium has been cultured, it may be identified via growth in a medium. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding "selective" mediums?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Increases the growth of some bacteria and decreases the growth of others (e.g. adding abx to agar plate)

  • Has additive that causes observable change (e.g. colour, pH)

  • Increases the growth of some bacteria but does not suppress the growth of others

  • Agar plate is embedded with antibiotics

Erklärung

Frage 43 von 66

1

What is the name of the test that involves pouring a test specimen into a plate imbedded with specific antigens?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Enzyme immunoassay

  • Electron microscopy

  • Calcofluor

  • Gram staining

Erklärung

Frage 44 von 66

1

A bacterial susceptibility test cannot be performed on a direct detection sample; the bacteria must be cultured first.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 45 von 66

1

In the context of bacterial susceptibility tests, was does "MIC" stand for?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Minimum inhibitory concentration

  • Minimum inhibitory complex

  • Maximum inhibitory concentration

  • Minimum immunoabsorbent complex

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Frage 46 von 66

1

Which of the following are CORRECT regarding the procedure for drawing blood cultures?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Use a peripheral poke whenever possible

  • Use a peripheral IV, if present

  • Take samples 30 minutes apart

  • Use two sets (4 bottles total), never just one (sometimes three)

  • Use a central line, if present

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Frage 47 von 66

1

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( Amplicon, Shotgun, Whole genome ) sequencing involves taking one part from a pure or mixed sample and comparing it to a reference.

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Frage 48 von 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Amplicon sequencing involves taking one part from a pure sample only and comparing it to a reference.

  • Shotgun (aka meta genomic) sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed/complex template and investigating that sample in detail.

  • Whole genome sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed template and fully understanding that one piece.

  • Shotgun and whole genome sequencing are similar, in that they both sample from a pure template.

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Frage 49 von 66

1

16s ribosomal RNA assists in sequencing microbiomes because they serve as a kind of bacterial barcode.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 50 von 66

1

All bacteria have 16s ribosomal RNA but there are small differences between them.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 51 von 66

1

Select all of TRUE statements from the following, regarding how diversity is assessed in the human microbiome:

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • number of taxa (species)

  • relative abundance of each species present

  • degree of phylogenetic dissimilarity of the species present

  • whether someone is colonized or infected with an ARO

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Frage 52 von 66

1

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding dysbiosis?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Pathobionts is the overgrowth of organisms usually present, versus pathogens, which cause harm in certain numbers

  • Pathogens are usually present in healthy human bodies, versus pathobionts cause significant harm when at all present

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Frage 53 von 66

1

The term "dysbiosis" refers to changes in the microbiome that are associated with disease.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 54 von 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the relationship between diversity and relative abundance of any single microbe?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • An increase in abundance of one specie drives down diversity, and less diversity contributes to disease

  • A decrease in the abundance of one specie relates to an increase in diversity, and greater diversity contributes to disease

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Frage 55 von 66

1

B. thetaiotaomicron stimulates the host to produce anti-microbial peptides that target gram positive bacteria. This is an example of...

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Indirect colonization resistance

  • Direct colonization resistance

  • Dysbiosis

  • Colonization

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Frage 56 von 66

1

The rationale for using fecal transplants to treat a c. diff infection is that the transplant can increase diversity.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 57 von 66

1

Which of the following diseases are associated with a decrease in diversity?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • C Diff

  • Recurrent UTIs

  • Atopic dermatosis

  • IBD

  • Bacterial vaginosis

Erklärung

Frage 58 von 66

1

Which of the following statements is the best description of "commensalism"?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Both benefit

  • One benefits and there is no effect on the other

  • One benefits, the other is harmed

  • E.coli, because it aids in vitamin K absorption in the large intestine

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Frage 59 von 66

1

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the factors that contribute to virulence?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Strains of bacteria, such as n. gonorrhoeae, are rarely able to cause disease if they have fimbriae (aka "attachment pili")

  • Pathogens that have fimbriae may cause hemeagglutination

  • Capsules contribute to virulence because they act as a barrier to host defenses

  • Pathogens that have haemolysin may cause host tissue damage

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Frage 60 von 66

1

Exotoxins are associated mostly with gram negative bacteria and are released when cells divide or when cells die. Endotoxins are produced and released mostly by gram positive bacteria and the ingestion of the toxin can cause disease (e.g. botulinum).

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 61 von 66

1

Which of the following is the correct order of stages of disease?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • Incubation, prodromal, invasive, decline, convalescence

  • Invasive, prodromal, incubation, decline, convalescence

  • Prodromal, incubation, invasive, decline, convalenscene

  • Incubation, prodromal, convalescence, invasive, decline

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Frage 62 von 66

1

The most severe signs and symptoms of a disease are during the invasive period.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 63 von 66

1

The surface proteins on the flu virus that contribute to its virulence are hemeagglutinin and neuraminidase.

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 64 von 66

1

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the flu virus?

Wähle eine der folgenden:

  • The flu virus has a "segmented genome", which means that it has 8 segments of RNA. This contributes to virulence.

  • Shedding starts after exposure and continues until day 6 of the illness. The peak of shedding is at day 2.

  • Shedding occurs between days 4 and 6, when the person feels most ill.

  • Hemeagglutinin is the only surface protein on the flu virus.

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Frage 65 von 66

1

An antigenic shift causes seasonal influenza every year and is a result of the segmented genome of the flu virus (liable to make small mistakes each time they copy).

Wähle eins der folgenden:

  • WAHR
  • FALSCH

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Frage 66 von 66

1

Which of the following statements are TRUE concerning limiting the spread of the flu virus?

Wähle eine oder mehr der folgenden:

  • Vaccinations are very important and are only contraindicated in children under 6 months, people who have had a previous anaphylactic reaction, and people who have had Guillain-Barre syndrome as a result of the flu vaccine in the past.

  • Practicing good hand hygiene is a good way to limit the spread of the flu virus

  • "Social distancing" is a very effective way of preventing the spread of the flu virus

  • Masks are most effective when worn by ill persons, not healthy persons

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