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HTN,Lipid Meds

Beschreibung

Test Prep for Pharm
Maggie Throckmorton
Quiz von Maggie Throckmorton, aktualisiert more than 1 year ago
Maggie Throckmorton
Erstellt von Maggie Throckmorton vor etwa 7 Jahre
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Zusammenfassung der Ressource

Frage 1

Frage
T or F. African Americans respond better to a Thiazide diuretic.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 2

Frage
T or F. Beta blockers are 1st line drugs for HTN.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 3

Frage
Select all that apply. Which of the following are thiazide diuretics.
Antworten
  • HCTZ
  • Indapamide
  • Lasix
  • Spironolactone
  • Metolazone

Frage 4

Frage
Which class of diuretics inhibits distal convoluted tubule sodium and chloride re-absorption?
Antworten
  • Loop
  • Potassium Sparing
  • Potassium Wasting

Frage 5

Frage
Select all that apply. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances can occur with thiazide diuretics?
Antworten
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypehalemia
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypernatremia
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Hypermagnesemia

Frage 6

Frage
Chlorthalidone and indapamide, are longer acting thiazide diuretics, more potent than HCTZ and carry a higher risk for hypokalemia.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 7

Frage
A dose of HCTZ greater than _____mg has an increased risk for hypokalemia.
Antworten
  • 30mg
  • 70mg
  • 50mg
  • 60mg

Frage 8

Frage
What should the NP monitor when a patient is on thiazide diuretics? Select all that apply.
Antworten
  • BUN
  • Serum Creatinine or CrCl
  • Heart rate
  • Blood pressure
  • Vision changes
  • Electrolytes

Frage 9

Frage
T or F. Thiazide diuretics are commonly combined with other anti-hypertensives.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 10

Frage
T or F. Thiazide diuretics are contraindicated in persons with gout as they increase uric acid.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 11

Frage
T or F. Loop diuretics are used more often for edema than HTN.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 12

Frage
The following are exemplar Loop Diuretics:
Antworten
  • Lasix
  • HCTZ
  • Lisinopril
  • Bumetanide
  • Indapamide
  • Metolazone
  • Toresemide

Frage 13

Frage
Identify the MOA for loop diuretics from the choices below:
Antworten
  • Inhibits distal convoluted tubule Na+ and Cl reabsorption
  • Inhibits Loop of Henle and proximal/distal convoluted tubule Na+ and Cl reabsorption
  • Stops the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

Frage 14

Frage
Loop diuretics are contraindicated in patients with:
Antworten
  • Shellfish allergies
  • Sulfa allergies
  • Diabetes
  • Edema

Frage 15

Frage
Loop diuretics:
Antworten
  • Increase K+ and decrease Urea
  • Increase WBG
  • Decrease K+ and Increase Urea
  • Increase neutrophils

Frage 16

Frage
T or F. Potassium Sparing Diuretics have weak diuretic activity.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 17

Frage
Exemplars of Potassium Sparing Diuretics Includes: (select all that apply)
Antworten
  • Triameterene
  • Lasix
  • Bumentanide
  • Spironalactone
  • HCTZ
  • Eplerenone

Frage 18

Frage
Spironolactone:
Antworten
  • Decreases K+ and Urea
  • Increases K+ and decreases Urea
  • Increases K+ and Urea
  • Increases Na+

Frage 19

Frage
Lisinopril should be d/c if serum K+ increases more than?
Antworten
  • 40%
  • 15%
  • 20%
  • 30%

Frage 20

Frage
Which ACE is not used often for maintenance therapy d/t a short half-life and multiple dosing?
Antworten
  • Benazepril
  • Catorpil
  • Lisinopril
  • Ramipril

Frage 21

Frage
If a patient is at high risk for renal artery stenosis, how soon after initiating ACEI should the patient's Cr be checked?
Antworten
  • 1 week
  • 1 month
  • 48 hours
  • 3-5 days

Frage 22

Frage
Which patient populations have a greater risk of developing angioedema with the use of ACEI? Select all that apply.
Antworten
  • Asian
  • Latino
  • Pacific Islander
  • Caucasian
  • African American

Frage 23

Frage
ACEI therapy is preferred for the following populations (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • Patient's with Diabetic Kidney Disease
  • Pregnant Women
  • Patients with DM
  • Young patients
  • Patients who are Post MI
  • Patients with Heart Failure
  • Patients with Angina

Frage 24

Frage
ACEI and ARBS can have the following additional positive effects (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • Improve oxygenation to the heart
  • Decrease inappropriate remodeling of heart muscle after MI
  • Reduce effects of diabetes on the kidneys
  • Improve insulin sensitivity
  • All of the Above

Frage 25

Frage
What is a possible inconvenient but not life threatening adverse reaction from ACEI therapy?
Antworten
  • Itching
  • Bradykinin mediated cough
  • Edema
  • Tachycardia

Frage 26

Frage
ACEI can increase K+
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 27

Frage
An increase in Cr with ACEI therapy is often transient.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 28

Frage
What is the most common adverse reaction to ACEI therapy?
Antworten
  • SOB
  • Hypotension
  • Bradycardia
  • Fever

Frage 29

Frage
The following are exemplars for ARBS (select all that apply)
Antworten
  • Lisinopril
  • Losartan
  • Amlodipine
  • Valsartan
  • Verapamil
  • Olmesartan

Frage 30

Frage
ARBS prevent the binding of Angiotensin II to receptors in the kidneys, brain, heart and arterial walls-inhibit RAAS and cause fall in peripheral resistance.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 31

Frage
ARBS may never be combined with which class of drug?
Antworten
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • ACEI
  • CC Blockers
  • Direct Renin Inhibitors

Frage 32

Frage
ACEI and ARBS should be avoided in:
Antworten
  • Women who are pregnant or may become pregnant
  • Menopausal women
  • Patients with DM
  • The elderly

Frage 33

Frage
ARBS can be a good choice for patients with Gout because:
Antworten
  • There is decreased uric acid secretion
  • Increased uric acid secretion

Frage 34

Frage
T or F. ARBS can raise serum K+.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 35

Frage
The Direct Renin Inhibitor Tekturna shares this possible side effect with ACEI.
Antworten
  • Increased WBG
  • Angioedema
  • Cough
  • Decreased K+

Frage 36

Frage
T or F. Tekturna can increase serum K+.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 37

Frage
T or F. ARBS are contraindicated in patients with Renal Artery Stenosis.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 38

Frage
T or F. You can combine ACEI, ARBS and DRI.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 39

Frage
The following is true of dihydropyridine CCB (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • Are potent vasodilators that lower calcium influx into the smooth muscle.
  • Have little or no negative effect on cardiac contractility and conduction.
  • Can treat chronic stable angina
  • Can be used in patients with CHF

Frage 40

Frage
Dihyropyridine CCB include (select all that apply)
Antworten
  • Norvasc
  • Losartan
  • Nifedipine
  • Benazepril
  • Felodipine

Frage 41

Frage
T or F. Peripheral edema can be caused by amlodipine.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 42

Frage
Which class of drugs can be combined with Amlodipine to reduce peripheral edema?
Antworten
  • ARBS
  • DRI
  • ACES
  • Thiazide Diuretics

Frage 43

Frage
Dihyrdopyridine CCB have greater efficacy in African Americans.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 44

Frage
T or F. ACEI can never be prescribed to African Americans.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 45

Frage
The following is true of non-dihyrdopyridine CCB (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • Can treat A-fib
  • Can be effective in proteinuria reduction.
  • Have a depressive effect on cardiac contractility and conduction
  • Should be avoided in patients who are taking beta blockers

Frage 46

Frage
T or F. Verapamil has the strongest inotropic effect of the non-dihyrdopyridine CCB and should be avoided in patients with Heart Failure.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 47

Frage
Verapamil can interact with the following (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • Simvastatin
  • Lithium
  • Amiodarone
  • Codeine
  • Spironalactone

Frage 48

Frage
T or F. Beta blockers are 1st line in the treatment of HTN.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 49

Frage
Cardio-selective beta-blockers include (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • Atenolol
  • Metropolol
  • Coreg
  • Propranolol
  • Bisoprolol
  • Esmolol
  • Acebutolol

Frage 50

Frage
Propranolol is a non-cardioselective beta-blocker that is used for symptom management with which endocrine issue:
Antworten
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hyperthyroidism

Frage 51

Frage
T or F. CCB and Beta-blockers can used for prophylactic treatment of migraines.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 52

Frage
T or F. Beta-blockers are superior protection against stroke.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 53

Frage
An example of mixed alpha and beta blocker is:
Antworten
  • Carvedilol (coreg)
  • Nadolol
  • Atenolol
  • Propranolol

Frage 54

Frage
What is major consideration when prescribing a beta-blocker in a patient with DM?
Antworten
  • It can mask hypogylcemia
  • It can cause tachycardia
  • Can improve blood glucose
  • Protects against strokes

Frage 55

Frage
In a patient with decompensated bronchospastic disease with stable angina, the NP should prescribe:
Antworten
  • A beta-blocker
  • A cardio-selective dihydropyridine
  • ACEI
  • Aspirin

Frage 56

Frage
S/E of beta-blockers can include (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • Hypotension
  • Bradycardia
  • Fatigue
  • Depression
  • 2nd and 3rd degree AV Block
  • Angioedema

Frage 57

Frage
T or F. Discontinuation of beta-blockers needs to occur over a few weeks.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 58

Frage
Clonodine belongs to which class of anti-hypertensives?
Antworten
  • ACEI
  • DRI
  • Beta-blockers
  • Centrally Acting Agents

Frage 59

Frage
Centrally acting agents can be used to treat which condition in pediatric patients.
Antworten
  • Depression
  • Dry Mouth
  • ADHD
  • Dizziness

Frage 60

Frage
Possible Adverse Reactions to Centrally Acting Agents includes (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • Fatigue
  • Dry mouth
  • Lightheadedness
  • Rash
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Bradycarida

Frage 61

Frage
T or F. Patients wanting to come off of clonidine need to be tapered due to risk for rebound HTN.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 62

Frage
Methyldopa is indicated in which population?
Antworten
  • Elderly
  • Pregnant women
  • Adolescents
  • African Amercians

Frage 63

Frage
A contraindication for Methyldopa is:
Antworten
  • Kidney Disease
  • DM
  • CHF
  • Active Hepatic Disease

Frage 64

Frage
T or F. The MOA of methyldopa is it stimulates the Alpha 2 adrenergic receptors.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 65

Frage
Prazosin a peripherally acting agent, while not a 1st line anti-hypertensive is effective in treating:
Antworten
  • Anigna
  • HF
  • PTSD and associated night terrors
  • The elderly

Frage 66

Frage
T or F. Doxazosin should be taken at bedtime due to risk for postural lightheadedness.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 67

Frage
The following should be avoided in pregnancy (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • ACEI
  • ARBS
  • Direct Renin Inhibitors
  • Sprionolactone
  • Eplerenone
  • Methyldopa

Frage 68

Frage
In addition to methyldopa, which two other drugs are commonly used for HTN in pregnancy:
Antworten
  • Lisinopril and Clonidine
  • Norvasc and Tekturna
  • Losartan and Spironalactone
  • Labetalol and Nifedipine

Frage 69

Frage
T or F. Betablockers are not recommended as initial therapy in children.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 70

Frage
Which class of diuretics is used in fluid volume overload?
Antworten
  • Thiazide
  • Potassium Sparing
  • Loop
  • HCTZ

Frage 71

Frage
When using Digoxin to treat Stage C Heart Failure, the NP knows which medicine can upset the narrow therapeutic index of the drug:
Antworten
  • Diltiazem
  • Benazapril
  • Spironolactone
  • ASA

Frage 72

Frage
T or F. Digoxin increases myocardial contractility.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 73

Frage
The therapeutic index for digoxin is:
Antworten
  • 0.10-0.20
  • 0.1-0.3
  • 0.5-0.9
  • 0.3-0.8

Frage 74

Frage
T or F. Low K+ and Mg+ and high Ca+ increase the risk for digoxin toxicity.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 75

Frage
Signs of toxicity to tell your patient who is taking digoxin are (select all that apply):
Antworten
  • Seeing green and yellow halos
  • Delirium and confusion
  • Insomina
  • Weakness
  • Dry Mouth

Frage 76

Frage
HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are more commonly known as:
Antworten
  • Statins
  • ARBS
  • Fibrates
  • Omega 3 Fatty Acids

Frage 77

Frage
The primary treatment goal of statins is to:
Antworten
  • Increase LDL
  • Increase HDL
  • Decrease LDL
  • Increase Liver Function

Frage 78

Frage
T or F. It is fine for pregnant women or women planning to become pregnant to take simvastatin.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 79

Frage
Which group of patients could benefit from statins:
Antworten
  • Age 21 years> with an LDL>190
  • Patients with active liver disease
  • African American Females
  • Smokers

Frage 80

Frage
Statins should be discontinued if which lab value if it is >3x the normal value?
Antworten
  • GGT
  • TSH
  • ALT
  • WBG

Frage 81

Frage
There is an increased risk of myopathy/rhabdomyolysis with which drug interactions:
Antworten
  • gemfibrozil and statins
  • Statins and ACEI
  • Beta-blockers and Statins
  • Calcium channel blockers and statins

Frage 82

Frage
What lab level should be checked if a patient complains of muscle pain while taking a statin?
Antworten
  • Vitamin D
  • B12
  • Platelets
  • Hgb

Frage 83

Frage
T or F. New onset DM is less common with pravastatin and pitavastatin.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 84

Frage
Before changing a patient to new statin. the NP should ensure the patient has been adhering to their current statin medication by checking:
Antworten
  • BP
  • CMP
  • Lipid panel
  • Fasting Blood Glucose

Frage 85

Frage
T or F. Short acting statins like Lovastatin should be taken at bedtime?
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 86

Frage
Lower doses of rosuvastatin is recommended in which population?
Antworten
  • African Americans
  • Latinos
  • Canadians
  • Asians

Frage 87

Frage
One of the advantages of zetia over statins is:
Antworten
  • You can give it to children younger than 10 y/o
  • It is indicated for use in pregnant women
  • It raises HDL
  • It raises LDL

Frage 88

Frage
T or F. The MOA of Zetia is the inhibition of cholesterol at the small intestine.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 89

Frage
PCSK9 Inhibitors like Alirocumab and Evolocumab:
Antworten
  • Are inexpensive
  • Are powerful at lowering LDL
  • Are less effective than statins
  • Can be taken orally

Frage 90

Frage
T or F. Alirocumab must be stored in the refrigerator.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 91

Frage
T or F. PCSK9 inhibitors should be avoided in pregnancy.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 92

Frage
What is one way to decrease the flushing side effect that can come with the use of Niacin?
Antworten
  • Take it with milk
  • Take it at bedtime
  • Take 325mg ASA 30 minutes before
  • Take it on an empty stomach

Frage 93

Frage
T or F. Fibrates are only taken to reduce high triglycerides.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 94

Frage
Gemfibrozil and Fenofibrate should not be taken with statins because:
Antworten
  • Increased risk for heart palpitations
  • Increase risk for drug interactions
  • They potentiate each other
  • Causes flushing

Frage 95

Frage
Fibrates should be avoided in (Select all that apply)
Antworten
  • Hepatic Impairment
  • Lactation
  • Pregnancy
  • In children over age 10 with Triglycerides >500

Frage 96

Frage
T or F. Statins can be used in children older than age ten with an elevated LDL.
Antworten
  • True
  • False

Frage 97

Frage
Omega 3 Fatty Acids are helpful in reducing:
Antworten
  • Trigylcerides
  • WBG
  • HDL
  • Muscle Pain
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