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Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
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A. Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
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B. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
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C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
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D. Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
Frage 2
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Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"
IF the customer wants �return�
Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies �Cheap-day�
Say: "That will be �11:20"
ELSE
Say: "That will be �19:50"
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: "That will be �9:75"
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.
Frage 3
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Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
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A. To find faults in the software.
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B. To assess whether the software is ready for release.
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C. To demonstrate that the software doesn't work.
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D. To prove that the software is correct.
Frage 4
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Enough testing has been performed when:
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A. Time runs out.
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B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.
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C. No more faults are found.
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D. The users won't find any serious faults.
Frage 5
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Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
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A. Actual results
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B. Program specification
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C. User requirements
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D. System specification
Frage 6
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Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn't play correctly.
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A. i, iii, iv, v.
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B. ii, iv and v.
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C. i, ii and iv.
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D. i and v.
Frage 7
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Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?
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A. All document reviews involve the development team.
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B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
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C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
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D. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.
Frage 8
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The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?
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A. iii, i, iv, ii.
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B. iii, iv, i, ii.
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C. iii, ii, i, iv.
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D. ii, iii, i, iv.
Frage 9
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Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
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A. An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.
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B. An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software.
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C. An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
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D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
Frage 10
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Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
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A. 17, 18, 19.
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B. 29, 30, 31.
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C. 18, 29, 30.
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D. 17, 29, 31.
Frage 11
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Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage
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A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are
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B. i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
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C. ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
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D. ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Frage 12
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What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
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A. Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project's capability to deliver its objectives.
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B. Project risks are the risks that surround the project's capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.
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C. Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
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D. Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.
Frage 13
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During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?
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A Test implementation and execution.
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B Evaluating test exit criteria.
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C Test analysis and design.
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D Test planning and control.
Frage 14
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What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
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A. To communicate how incidents will be managed.
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B. To communicate how testing will be performed.
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C. To produce a test schedule.
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D. To produce a work breakdown structure.
Frage 15
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Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?
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A. Test plan.
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B. Test procedure specification.
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C. Test case specification.
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D. Test design specification.
Frage 16
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Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
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A. Determining the test approach.
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B. Preparing test specifications.
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C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
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D. Measuring and analyzing results.
Frage 17
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What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
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A. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
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B. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
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C. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
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D. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
Frage 18
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In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has $4000 of salary tax free.
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next $28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
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A. $28000.
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B. $33501.
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C. $32001.
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D. $1500.
Frage 19
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Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
Frage 20
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When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that
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A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product
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B. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail
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C. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design
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D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system
Frage 21
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Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
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A. Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
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B. Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
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C. Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
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D. Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.
Frage 22
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Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?
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A. Evaluate testers competence to use the tool.
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B. Complete the testing of a key project.
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C. Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
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D. Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
Frage 23
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What is an informal test design technique where a tester uses information gained while testing to design new and better tests?
Frage 24
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Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
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A. Extent of testing.
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B. Scope for the use of test automation.
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C. Size of the test team.
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D. Requirement for regression testing.
Frage 25
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When should testing be stopped?
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A. When all the planned tests have been run
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B. When time has run out
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C. When all faults have been fixed correctly
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D. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
Frage 26
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Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options Regression testing should be performed:
i Once a month
ii When a defect has been fixed
iii When the test environment has changed
iv When the software has changed
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A. ii and iv.
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B. ii, iii and iv.
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C. i, ii and iii.
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D. i and iii.
Frage 27
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The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:
i Information about how the software is constructed.
ii Models of the system, software or components.
iii Analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv Analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?
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A. ii and iii.
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B. ii and iv.
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C. i and iv.
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D. i and iii.
Frage 28
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Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
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A. The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
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B. The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
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C. The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
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D. The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
Frage 29
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Based on the error guessing test design technique, which of the following will an experienced tester MOST LIKELY test in calendar software?
i. First two letters of the month, e.g., MA can represent March or May
ii. First letter of the day, e.g., T can mean Tuesday or Thursday
iii. Leap year
iv. Number of days in a month
v. Three-digit days and months
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A. i, ii, iv and v
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B. iii and iv
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C. i, ii, iii and iv
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D. i, ii and v
Frage 30
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Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.
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A. i, ii, iii.
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B. i, ii, iv.
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C. i, iii, iv.
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D. ii, iii, iv.
Frage 31
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What is the objective of debugging?
i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.
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A. i, iii.
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B. ii, iii, iv.
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C. ii, iv.
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D. i, ii.
Frage 32
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Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.
Antworten
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A. i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
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B. iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
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C. ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
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D. vi is static, i-v are dynamic.
Frage 33
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Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
Antworten
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A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
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B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
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C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
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D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Frage 34
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Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
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A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
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B. Testing is isolated from development.
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C. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
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D. Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.
Frage 35
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Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?
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A. Test analysis and design.
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B. Test planning and control.
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C. Test closure.
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D. Test implementation and execution.
Frage 36
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In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?
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A. Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
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B. Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
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C. Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
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D. Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
Frage 37
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For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
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A. i, iv, vi.
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B. ii, iii, v.
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C. i, iii, iv.
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D. iv, v, vi.
Frage 38
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Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
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A. The coverage of the current regression pack.
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B. The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
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C. The time since the last change was made to the system.
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D. Defects found at the last regression test run.
Frage 39
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What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
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A. Because testing everything is not feasible.
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B. Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
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C. Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
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D. Because software is inherently risky.
Frage 40
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Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?
i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.
Antworten
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A. i,ii, and iii.
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B. ii, iii and iv.
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C. i, ii and iv.
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D. i,iii and iv.