12. OS Question CBT

Question 1

APU 2: What is the location of the APU GEN pb-sw?

Accepted Answer

The ELEC Panel

Answer

The AIR Panel

Answer

The FIRE Panel

Answer

The FUEL Panel

Question 2

ENG 5: During a manual starting sequence, the FADEC:

Accepted Answer

Provides passive monitoring of the starting sequence.

Answer

Starts the engine when ignition is manually activated.

Answer

Starts the opposite engine.

Answer

Defeathers the propellers in order to save time.

Question 3

PRESS 3.1: Can the flight crew perform a fast de-pressurization?

Accepted Answer

Yes, but only in TAC DEPRESS mode.

Answer

No, in all cases.

Answer

Yes, through the V/S sw in automatic mode.

Answer

Yes, but only in MAN mode.

Question 4

PRESS 3.2: The ENG BLEED valve:

Accepted Answer

Isolates its associated engine when required.

Answer

Enables to bleed the air from the HP ports.

Answer

Opens and closes the engine air intake.

Answer

Regulates the temperature of each engine bleed air.

Question 5

PRESS 4: According to the air conditioning SD, on ground before engine start:

Accepted Answer

The inboard valve should be closed and the overboard valve should be opened.

Answer

The overboard and the inboard should be closed.

Answer

The inboard valve and the depollution valve should be opened.

Answer

The overboard valve and the inboard valve should be opened.

Question 6

ICE 1: The water/waste heating system:

Accepted Answer

Uses electrical heating and thermal insulation.

Answer

Prevents frost in drain mast.

Answer

Uses hot bleed air.

Answer

Prevents mist on water tanks and water lines.

Question 7

ICE 1.1: The engine anti-ice system prevents:

Accepted Answer

Engine air inlets from ice accretion.

Answer

Engine nacelle from ice accretion.

Answer

Propeller blades from ice accretion.

Answer

Wing leading edge from ice accretion.

Question 8

OXY 0: Select the true statement about the Oxygen System:

Accepted Answer

Oxygen is supplied during MEDEVAC missions.

Answer

Oxygen is never supplied in case of fire, smoke or toxic gases.

Answer

Oxygen is never supplied during high altitude missions.

Answer

There is no oxygen supply to the LMWS.

Question 9

OXY 1: The oxygen panel is located on the overhead panel. The PAX MASKS guarded pb:

Accepted Answer

Enables the flight crew to manually drop the supplemental passenger oxygen masks.

Answer

Avoid the supplemental passenger oxygen masks drop, in all cases.

Answer

When activated, in HIGH AIRFIELD position masks will automatically drop if the cabin pressure exceeds 8.000ft.

Answer

When activated, in INHIB position masks will automatically drop if the cabin pressure exceeds 20.000ft.

Question 10

OXY 2: There are two types of oxygen masks: the full face quick donning mask and the military mask. Select the true statement:

Accepted Answer

The CM1, CM2 and LM have one of each close to its respective working area.

Answer

The military mask is not usable with the OBOGS.

Answer

The LM has only the military mask.

Answer

The full face quick donning mask can be used with the OBOGS.

Question 11

Doors 2.1: The crew entrance door:

Accepted Answer

Is located on the left side of the nose fuselage.

Answer

Is located in the rear of the aircraft fuselage.

Answer

Is located on the left and right side of the rear fuselage of the aircraft.

Answer

Is located on the right side of the nose fuselage.

Question 12

Doors 2.2: The purpose of the two stabilizer struts is:

Accepted Answer

To stabilize the aircraft during loading and off-loading operations.

Answer

To secure the ramp at the horizontal position.

Answer

To provide a bridge for loading and off-loading with the ramp.

Answer

To deflect the airflow to ease in flight exit of the paratroops.

Question 13

FIRE / SMOKE 3: The ENG FIRE pb-sw provides fire indication to the flight crew. Select the correct statement:

Accepted Answer

When released out, an ENG FIRE pb-sw isolates its corresponding engine and arms its corresponding fire extinguisher agent.

Answer

When released out, an ENG FIRE pb-sw isolates its corresponding engine and discharges automatically the extinguisher agent.

Answer

When released out, an ENG FIRE pb-sw inhibits aural and visual engine fire alerts of its corresponding engine.

Answer

When released out, an ENG FIRE pb-sw isolates all the engines and the APU and discharges automatically the extinguisher agent in everyone.

Question 14

FIRE / SMOKE 2.1: The FIRE detection is provided for:

Accepted Answer

The engines, the APU, the Main Landing Gear (MLG) bays.

Answer

The engines and the avionics bay.

Answer

The engines and the cockpit.

Answer

The engines and the cargo area.

Question 15

FIRE / SMOKE 2.2: With reference to the ENG fire system, which statement is correct?

Accepted Answer

On ground and in flight, if a fire is detected, the flight crew has to manually discharge the fire extinguishing bottle.

Answer

On ground only, if a fire is detected, the fire extinguishing bottle immediately discharges.

Answer

On ground and in flight, if a fire is detected, the fire extinguishing bottle immediately discharges.

Answer

In flight only, if a fire is detected, the fire extinguishing bottle immediately discharges.

Question 16

FIRE / SMOKE 1: In case that one loop of the engine fire detection fails:

Accepted Answer

On the EWD appears the corresponding failure but the fire detection is still operative.

Answer

The extinguishing agent discharges automatically.

Answer

The engine shuts down and an aural alert is trigger.

Answer

On the EWD appears the corresponding failure but the fire detection is no longer operative.

Question 17

SURV 3: Select the correct statement about the Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS):

Accepted Answer

The SYS 1 provides always the TCAS function, even if SYS 2 is selected.

Answer

The SYS 1 provides the TCAS function when in below mode and the SYS 2 provides the TCAS function when in above mode.

Answer

The TCAS function is hosted in the SYS 2.

Answer

The SYS 1 do not provide the TCAS function if SYS 2 is selected.

Question 18

SURV 4.1: Windshear alerts are inhibited:

Accepted Answer

At takeoff, when the aircraft speed is above 60kts, and up to 50ft.

Answer

In cruise, when the aircraft is below 1.500ft.

Answer

At landing, when the aircraft is above 50ft.

Answer

At landing, when the aircraft is below 1.500ft.

Question 19

SURV 4.2: The TCAS divides the airspace into:

Accepted Answer

Four volumes: Resolution Advisory (RA), Traffic Advisory (TA), proximate intruders and other intruders.

Answer

Three volumes: Above intruders, below intruders and lateral intruders.

Answer

Two volumes: friend intruders and foe intruders.

Answer

Three volumes: Traffic Advisory (TA), Air-to Air Refueling Intruders and other intruders.

Question 20

SURV 5: In standby (STBY) mode, the Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS):

Accepted Answer

Does not perform any TCAS function, and does not trigger any alert.

Answer

Triggers vertical speed guidance in order to avoid collision, but does not trigger any aural alert.

Answer

Takes into account all the zones, and thus, provides four levels of alert.

Answer

Triggers only an advisory “TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC” message.

Question 21

SURV 6.1: What happens when the aircraft penetrates the TCF alert envelope?

Accepted Answer

The visual and aural “TOO LOW TERRAIN” caution alert triggers.

Answer

The visual and aural “TERRAIN, TERRAIN” caution alert triggers.

Answer

The visual and aural “TOO LOW FLAPS” caution alert triggers.

Answer

The visual and aural “PULL UP” warning alert triggers.

Question 22

SURV 6.2: The weather awareness and windshear avoidance function are provided by:

Accepted Answer

The weather (WXR), TURBulance (TURB) and Predictive Windshear (PRED W/S) functions of the radar.

Answer

The Ground Mapping (MAP) function of the radar.

Answer

The Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS).

Answer

The Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS).

Question 23

SURV 7: The weather display has several modes that enable the radar pictures:

Accepted Answer

Along the vertical and horizontal axis.

Answer

Along the vertical axis only.

Answer

Along the horizontal axis only.

Answer

Only around the intended vertical flight plan.

Question 24

LIGHTS 1: Can the emergency lights be switched on from the LMWS?

Accepted Answer

Yes, with the EMER EXIT LT guarded sw, whatever the position of the cockpit EMER EXIT LT sw.

Answer

No, emergency lights operate automatically and cannot be manually controlled.

Answer

Yes, with EMER EXIT LT guarded sw, but only when the cockpit EMER EXIT LT sw is set to ARM position.

Answer

No, emergency lights are controlled only from the cockpit.

Question 25

LIGHTS 4: The integral lights knob is located on:

Accepted Answer

The LIGHTING panel on the pedestal.

Answer

The LIGHTING panel on the overhead panel.

Answer

The cockpit window – frame of each pilot zone.

Answer

The exterior lighting panel.

Question 26

REC 1: The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) records:

Accepted Answer

The last 2 hours of operation.

Answer

The last 25 hours of operation.

Answer

The last 12 hours of operation.

Answer

The last hour of operation.

Question 27

REC 2.1: The flight crew can manually activate the recorders:

Accepted Answer

By pressing the GND CTL pb to on.

Answer

Never.

Answer

Only in flight.

Answer

By pressing the EVENT pb.

Question 28

REC 2.2: The recorders will automatically stop:

Accepted Answer

5 minutes after the last engine shut down.

Answer

After electrical power up.

Answer

When the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is not running.

Answer

After takeoff.

Question 29

REC 3: The data recording function is ensured by:

Accepted Answer

The Digital Flight Data Recording System (DFDRS).

Answer

The Emergency Locator Transmitter.

Answer

The Aircraft Multipurpose Terminal (AMAT).

Answer

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR).

Question 30

REC 4.1: The EVENT pb on the VOICE & DATA RECORDING panel on the overhead panel enables the flight crew:

Accepted Answer

To insert an event mark on the DFDRS records.

Answer

To pause all data recording for 5 minutes.

Answer

The inhibition of sensitive data recording.

Answer

To manually start recording on ground.

Question 31

REC 4.2: The communications recording function is ensured by:

Accepted Answer

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR).

Answer

The Emergency Locator Transmitter.

Answer

The Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal (AMAT).

Answer

The Digital Flight Data Recording System (DFDRS).

Question 32

REC 5: The purpose of the recording functions is to record…

Accepted Answer

A set of significant parameters to be used in airworthiness investigations.

Answer

A set of significant parameters to be used during aircraft maintenance, repair or overhaul.

Answer

All cockpit internal & external communications to be used as evidence in case of any workplace bullying.

Answer

A set of significant parameters for early detection of system malfunctioning, so preventive maintenance can be scheduled.

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12. OS Question CBT

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	Erstellt von Jose Antonio Vazquez vor etwa 3 Jahre