Circulatory System II

Question

101. The ten-year survival after heart transplantation is:

Answer 1

a. age over 70 years

Answer 2

b. diabetes

Answer 3

c. pulmonary systolic pulmonary artery pressure> 60 mmHg, which is not reduced by products

Answer 4

d. active infection

Answer 5

e. active malignancy within the last 5 years

Answer 6

a. in contrast to transplantation of other bodies have immunosuppressive therapy is not necessary

Answer 7

b. in the early period after transplantation antibiotic prevention is not necessary precaution given only virostatike

Answer 8

c. because after heart transplantation is not innervated, it is a frequent sinus tachycardia

Answer 9

d. due to early detection of transplant rejection perform routine biopsy of the heart muscle

Answer 10

e. coronary artery disease in the transplanted heart is proceeding more slowly

Answer 11

a. hepatitis B virus

Answer 12

b. influenza A virus (H1N1)

Answer 13

c. cytomegalovirus

Answer 14

d. JC virus

Answer 15

e. adenovirus

Answer 16

a. Congenital heart disease

Answer 17

b. valvular defect

Answer 18

c. Ischaemic heart disease

Answer 19

d. myocarditis

Answer 20

e. arterial hypertension

Answer 21

a. loop diuretics

Answer 22

b. ACE inhibitors

Answer 23

c. beta adrenergic blockers

Answer 24

d. digitalis

Answer 25

e. spironolactone

Answer 26

a. more common on Mondays and Holidays

Answer 27

b. frequency sections is always above 100 / min

Answer 28

c. a slowdown in ventricular rate is achieved by digitalis

Answer 29

d. a slowdown in ventricular rate is obtained by beta-blockers

Answer 30

e. in chronic AF is required anticoagulation

Answer 31

a. in persistent ventricular tachycardia is still needed defibrillation

Answer 32

b. in cardioversion persistent ventricular tachycardias requires synchronized cardioversion with a low energy (50J)

Answer 33

c. in stable patients attack can be stopped by amiodarone

Answer 34

d. hemodynamic impairment of the patient is not dependent on the frequency of tachycardia

Answer 35

e. increased risk of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia patients with short QT interval in the electrocardiogram

Answer 36

a. in AV block of first instance every other P wave triggered by a QRS complex

Answer 37

b. AV block Mobitz II rarely progresses to complete AV block

Answer 38

c. When complete AV block (III) are always wide QRS complexes

Answer 39

d. the most common reason for the occurrence of AV block are infectious diseases

Answer 40

e. AV block within inferior heart attacks are normally corrected within anterior, infarction is generally permanent

Answer 41

a. whereas translating arousal follows the ancillary way, the PQ period extended

Answer 42

b. in ortodromic tachycardia the QRS complexes of normal width

Answer 43

c. in antidromic tachycardia the QRS complexes Extended

Answer 44

d. atrial fibrillation within WPW can be treated with digoxin

Answer 45

e. atrial fibrillation within WPW can be treated with verapamil

Answer 46

b. Sprockets p negative

Answer 47

c. p tine having a lower amplitude

Answer 48

d. the amplitude of the finger p is changing

Answer 49

e. the present wave delta

Answer 50

c. unequal

Answer 51

d. It comes to failures of individual QRS complexes

Answer 52

e. same as no conduction disturbance

Answer 53

a. below 220 / min

Answer 54

b. above 350 / min

Answer 55

c. from 220 to 350 / min

Answer 56

d. from 120 to 250 / min

Answer 57

e. from 280 to 390 / min

Answer 58

a. pulmonary embolism

Answer 59

b. heart failure

Answer 60

d. hypothyroidism

Answer 61

a. pulmonary veins

Answer 62

b. right atrial

Answer 63

c. right ventricle

Answer 64

d. pulmonary artery

Answer 65

e. atrial septum

Answer 66

a. atrial fibrillation

Answer 67

b. atrial flutter

Answer 68

c. atrial tachycardia

Answer 69

d. atrial extrasystoles

Answer 70

e. atrial fibrillation in a patient with pre-excitation type WPW

Answer 71

a. acceleration of ventricular response

Answer 72

b. conversion to sinus rhythm

Answer 73

c. slowing of ventricular response

Answer 74

d. No significant changes

Answer 75

e. less thromboembolic complications

Answer 76

a. monomorphic ventricular tachycardia

Answer 77

b. ventricular fibrillation

Answer 78

c. torsade de pointes

Answer 79

d. ventricular flutter

Answer 80

e. polymorphic ventricular extrasystoles

Answer 81

a. at least 2

Answer 82

b. at least 3

Answer 83

c. at least 4

Answer 84

d. at least 5

Answer 85

e. at least 6

Answer 86

a. sinus bradycardia

Answer 87

b. sinoatrial block

Answer 88

c. sinus arrest

Answer 89

d. bradikardno-tachycardic syndrome

Answer 90

e. atrioventricular block

Answer 91

a. sinoatrial block III. Instance

Answer 92

b. sinoatrial block II. Instance

Answer 93

c. sinoatrial block level I

Answer 94

d. sinus bradycardia

Answer 95

e. atrioventricular block

Answer 96

a. at least 0.10 with

Answer 97

b. at least 0.20 with

Answer 98

c. at least 0.30 with

Answer 99

d. at least 0.40 with

Answer 100

e. at least 0.35 with

Answer 101

a. sinus bradycardia

Answer 102

b. ventricular fibrillation

Answer 103

c. nothing special

Answer 104

d. atrial fibrillation

Answer 105

e. atrioventricular block

Answer 106

a. heart rate increases

Answer 107

b. heart rate is reduced

Answer 108

c. accelerate the oxygenation

Answer 109

d. hypotension occurs

Answer 110

e. to avoid any change in

Answer 111

a. cardioversion

Answer 112

b. Defibrillation

Answer 113

c. medicines

Answer 114

d. external heart massage

Answer 115

e. artificial respiration

Answer 116

e. AV node does not have this capability

Answer 117

a. accelerate the translation through the AV node

Answer 118

b. inhibits translation through the AV node

Answer 119

c. It has a very long half-life

Answer 120

d. inhibits conduction in the SA node

Answer 121

e. reduces the volume of liquid in the lung

Answer 122

a. ventricular tachycardia

Answer 123

b. ventricular fibrillation

Answer 124

c. sinus rhythm

Answer 125

d. atrial fibrillation

Answer 126

e. sinus arrhythmia

Answer 127

a. heart rate increases

Answer 128

b. heart rate is reduced

Answer 129

c. accelerate the oxygenation

Answer 130

d. hypotension occurs

Answer 131

e. to avoid any change in

Answer 132

A width of the QRS complexes with over 0.14

Answer 133

B. Web and spliced beats

Answer 134

C. atrioventricular dissociation

Answer 135

F. the absence of the finger P

Answer 136

D. The width of the QRS complexes under 0.14 with

Answer 137

A. irregular and differently charged arterial pulse

Answer 138

B. regular and evenly filled arterial pulse

Answer 139

C. struck tones

Answer 140

F. differently loud first heart tone

Answer 141

D. missing tines P are present fibrillation the teeth of different amplitudes

Answer 142

A. Wenckebach periodicity

Answer 143

B. complete termination of atrioventricular conduction

Answer 144

C. Mobitz III

Answer 145

F. Mobitz II

Answer 146

D. advanced atrioventricular block

Answer 147

A. threatening condition that requires urgent treatment

Answer 148

B. has preserved atrial activity (P tines or f) visible on the ECG

Answer 149

C. has a complete atrioventricular dissociation were seen on the ECG

Answer 150

F. is harmless, treatment is required

Answer 151

D. QRS complexes are often narrow

Answer 152

A. The machine uses high-energy (200-300J) Defibrillation

Answer 153

B. from ventricular tachycardia using antitachycardia stimulation, or cardioversion

Answer 154

C. in the case of bradycardia heart encourages

Answer 155

F. The use of ventricular fibrilation defibrilation

Answer 156

D. The apparatus is capable of a total of 10 to 20 shocks

Answer 157

A short period of PQ (0.12 or lower)

Answer 158

B. extended interval Q-T

Answer 159

C. The presence of wave U

Answer 160

F. widened QRS complex (over 0.10 s)

Answer 161

D. delta wave

Answer 162

a. ventricular tachycardia

Answer 163

b. atrial fibrillation

Answer 164

c. SVT with functional bundle branch block

Answer 165

d. sinus tachycardia

Answer 166

e. intermittent ventricular ekstrasistolija

Answer 167

A VT (polymorphic)

Answer 168

b. atrial fibrillation

Answer 169

c. atrial flutter

Answer 170

d. sinus tachycardia

Answer 171

e. atrial tachycardia (sembra più una a.t.parossistica perché ondulata)

Answer 172

a. premature sine pulse

Answer 173

b. atrial ekstrasitola

Answer 174

c. ventricular extrasystoles on the T wave

Answer 175

d. irritation of the Vagus

Answer 176

e. intermittent ventricular ekstrasistolija

Answer 177

a. atrial flutter

Answer 178

b. atrial fibrillation

Answer 179

c. no arrhythmias, an artifact due to tremor

Answer 180

d. sinus tachycardia

Answer 181

e. intermittent ventricular ekstrasistolija

Answer 182

a. atrial flutter

Answer 183

b. atrial fibrillation

Answer 184

c. atrial tachycardia with a block of 2: 1

Answer 185

d. sinus tachycardia

Answer 186

e. atrial ectopic activity

Answer 187

a. First-degree AV block

Answer 188

b. AV block II. levels of type I

Answer 189

c. AV block II. degree with a translation of 2: 1

Answer 190

d. AV block III. Instance

Answer 191

e. normal sinus rhythm

Answer 192

a. First-degree AV block

Answer 193

b. Mobitz I

Answer 194

c. Mobitz II

Answer 195

d. AV block III. Instance

Answer 196

e. normal sinus rhythm

Answer 197

a. complete AV dissociation

Answer 198

b. AV block II. levels of type I

Answer 199

c. advanced AV block II. Grade 3: 1

Answer 200

d. AV block III. Instance

Answer 201

e. normal sinus rhythm

Answer 202

a. in both the atria and the coronary sinus

Answer 203

b. in both the atria and right ventricle

Answer 204

c. in the right atrium, right ventricle and coronary sinus

Answer 205

d. in the left atrium (2x) and the right ventricle

Answer 206

e. in the right ventricle (2x) and the coronary sinus

Answer 207

a. unstable VT

Answer 208

b. persistent VT

Answer 209

c. paroxysm of atrial fibrillation

Answer 210

d. sinus tachycardia

Answer 211

e. polymorphic ventricular extrasystoles

Answer 212

B. atrial fibrillation

Answer 213

c. bradicardic-tachycardic syndrome

Answer 214

d. sinus tachycardia

Answer 215

e. intermittent ventricular ekstrasistolija

Answer 216

a. transvensko

Answer 217

b. transseptalno

Answer 218

c. diaphragmatic

Answer 219

d. transcutaneous

Answer 220

e. epicardio

Answer 221

a. SVT, who after a pause repeated in the same form

Answer 222

b. spontaneous leap from ventricular tachycardia to sinus rhythm

Answer 223

c. Leap of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm

Answer 224

d. leap from supraventricular tachycardia to sinus rhythm with an electrical shock (cardioversion)

Answer 225

e. leap from ventricular tachycardia to sinus rhythm with an electrical shock (cardioversion)

Answer 226

a. accelerate the translation through the AV node

Answer 227

b. brake translation through the AV node

Answer 228

c. stimulation of the conductivity in the SA node

Answer 229

d. inhibition of conductivity in the SA node

Answer 230

e. stimulation of the Vagus

Answer 231

a. hyperthyroidism

Answer 232

b. arteriovenous fistula

Answer 233

d. medicines

Answer 234

e. Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

Answer 235

a. the ventricular rate is stronger

Answer 236

b. ventricular extrasystoles is hemodynamically more effective than atrial

Answer 237

c. the earlier the extrasystoles, the more effective hemodynamic

Answer 238

d. extrasystoles, arising from the basal parts were hemodynamically effective as compared with those arising from the tip of the

Answer 239

e. extrasystole patients generally do not feel

Answer 240

a. in the majority of cases occur in structurally normal hearts

Answer 241

b. Place Cruise depolarization is always in the right atrium

Answer 242

c. atrial frequency is between 110 and 240 / min

Answer 243

d. atrial frequency is between 220 and 350 / min

Answer 244

e. frequency atrial chambers at plapolanju always regular

Answer 245

a. beta-blockers

Answer 246

b. verapamil

Answer 247

c. digitalis

Answer 248

d. implantation of an automatic defibrillator

Answer 249

e. catheter ablation

Answer 250

a. The incidence increases with age

Answer 251

b. prevalence in the age group above 60 years is about 5%

Answer 252

c. Patients with atrial fibrillation have a 2x higher mortality

Answer 253

d. increasing the number of independent rotations depolarization, the greater the chance of spontaneous termination of arrhythmias

Answer 254

e. in untreated ventricular arrhythmia frequency it is usually between 70 and 90 / min

Answer 255

a. flutter with paroxysmal arrhythmia episode is interrupted herself frequently in the first 24 hours, but no later than 7 days

Answer 256

b. After a successful elektrokonverziji patients with increased risk of thromboembolism without need of anticoagulant therapy

Answer 257

c. If the duration of atrial flicker between 24 and 48 hours, before attempting the conversion necessary to introduce an anticoagulant protection

Answer 258

d. in haemodynamic impairment of the patient cardioversion is contraindicated

Answer 259

e. arrhythmogenic foci were generally at around vtočišča hollow out the right preddvot

Answer 260

a. in permanent form usually opt for cardioversion

Answer 261

b. effectiveness of catheter ablation for paroxysmal form 50%

Answer 262

c. for catheter ablation of arrhythmogenic foci commonly eliminated by electrically isolating the pulmonary output

Answer 263

d. in the form of permanent heart rate most often mitigated by a combination of beta blockers and verapamil

Answer 264

e. in patients with WPW syndrome ventricular rate slowed down by digitalis

Answer 265

a. It is a rare form of supraventricular tachycardia

Answer 266

b. depolarization reaches the atrium earlier than ventricle, so the ECG visible P waves just before the QRS complexes

Answer 267

c. vagal maneuvers are often interrupted rhythm disorder

Answer 268

d. beta blockers are contraindicated

Answer 269

e. with frequent attacks, treatment selection catheter ablation of slow pathways

Answer 270

a. in ortodromni tachycardia the QRS complexes wide

Answer 271

b. in ortodromni tachycardia often we see negative p waves just for QRS

Answer 272

c. antidromno tachycardia treated with verapamil

Answer 273

d. ortodormno tachycardia treated with digitalis

Answer 274

e. treatment with catheter ablation is successful

Answer 275

a. Occasionally they can narrow QRS complexes

Answer 276

b. ECG can be found in the so-called compounded and caught pulses

Answer 277

c. rule is hemodynamically significant

Answer 278

d. unstable ventricular tachycardia lasting more than 3 minutes

Answer 279

e. unstable ventricular tachycardia has a worse prognosis than persistent

Answer 280

a. changes artifacts

Answer 281

b. atrial fibrillation

Answer 282

c. probably atrioventricular nodal tachycardia

Answer 283

d. polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

Answer 284

e. ventricular fibrillation

Answer 285

a. often it occurs in patients with short QT interval

Answer 286

b. It occurs more often in people with sinus tachycardia

Answer 287

c. It may occur during treatment with antiarrhythmic drugs and drugs that prolong the QT interval

Answer 288

d. It occurs more often in hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia

Answer 289

e. some patients indication for insertion cardioverter-defibrillator

Answer 290

a. with vagal maneuvers

Answer 291

b. digitalis

Answer 292

c. lidocaine

Answer 293

d. amiodarone

Answer 294

e. electrical cardioversion

Answer 295

a. with vagal maneuvers

Answer 296

b. digitalis

Answer 297

c. lidocaine

Answer 298

d. amiodarone

Answer 299

e. electrical cardioversion

Answer 300

a. successfully stopped by amiodarone

Answer 301

b. if it occurred before our eyes, to try to break up with synchronous conversion with 50J

Answer 302

c. need immediate CPR and defibrillation as soon as possible

Answer 303

d. occurs when acute myocardial infarction, the patient requires insertion of a cardioverter-defibrillator

Answer 304

e. if not found an obvious cause of VF in patients treated pharmacologically

Answer 305

a. common is sinus tachycardia

Answer 306

b. mostly the result of degenerative changes in the sinus node and atrium

Answer 307

c. due to sinus bradycardia occur fugitive tachycardic arrhythmias

Answer 308

d. reversible disease

Answer 309

e. There are several levels of sino-atrial block

Answer 310

a. the incidence increasing with age

Answer 311

b. frequently it occurs in patients with arterial hypertension

Answer 312

c. cause of acute atrioventricular block may be some infectious diseases

Answer 313

d. chronic block successfully treated with sympathomimetic

Answer 314

e. beta-blockers do not affect the atrioventricular translation

Answer 315

a. QT interval PQ over 0.1sec

Answer 316

b. QT interval PQ over 0.2S

Answer 317

c. QT prolongation above 440 ms

Answer 318

d. prolongation of QRS duration greater than 120 ms

Answer 319

e. occasional interruption of conduction through the AV node and the failure of the QRS complex

Answer 320

a. sinoatrial block level I

Answer 321

b. complete sinoatrial block

Answer 322

c. first-degree atrioventricular block

Answer 323

d. atrioventricular block II.

Answer 324

e. atrioventricular dissociation Mobitz I

Answer 325

a. atrial flutter (atrial flutter)

Answer 326

b. first-degree atrioventricular block

Answer 327

c. atrioventricular block II. degree with a translation of 2: 1

Answer 328

d. atrioventricular block II. degree Mobitz II

Answer 329

e. atrioventricular block III. Instance

Answer 330

a. Wide QRS complex is less than 120 ms

Answer 331

b. QRS complex is wide more than 120 ms

Answer 332

c. electrical axis is displaced to the left

Answer 333

d. electrical axis normal

Answer 334

e. it is necessary as soon as possible the insertion of a pacemaker

Answer 335

a. GMAS attack the AV block II. degree Mobitz I

Answer 336

b. asymptomatic AV block II. degree Mobitz II

Answer 337

c. asymptomatic AV block III. Instance

Answer 338

d. ECG in asymptomatic pause longer than 2 seconds

Answer 339

e. Tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome, which requires different antiarrhythmic therapy

Answer 340

a. ventricular tachycardia

Answer 341

b. AV block II. degree Mobitz II

Answer 342

c. with normal ECG artifacts

Answer 343

d. electrostimulation of the DDD mode

Answer 344

e. impairment in the functioning pacemaker

Answer 345

a. raising the point J

Answer 346

b. raising ST

Answer 347

d. delta wave (WPW)

Answer 348

e. Osborne wave

Answer 349

a. This is X-chromosome linked hereditary disease

Answer 350

b. characterized by the marked right ventricular hypertrophy

Answer 351

c. Patients often die from sudden cardiac death

Answer 352

d. the investigation of choice to demonstrate the coronary

Answer 353

e. the most common arrhythmia is atrial fibrillation (fibrillation)

Answer 354

a. a genetic disease that is more common in men at high risk for sudden cardiac death

Answer 355

b. a genetic disease which affects the calcium channels and results in a lower contraction of the heart muscle

Answer 356

c. the occurrence of atrial fibrillation in structurally normal hearts

Answer 357

d. changed conduction of electrical impulses between the cardiomyocytes, as demonstrated by the widespread QRS complex

Answer 358

e. None of the above

Answer 359

a) dispassionately talks, he tells us that his heart "jumping"

Answer 360

b) is unconscious, agonal breathing

Answer 361

c) it has a pain in the lower abdomen

Answer 362

d) the auscultation figure irregular and varying loud first heart tone

Answer 363

e) The heart tones are absent, there is a cardiac arrest

Answer 364

a) immediately defibrillation and perform external cardiac massage to recovery of spontaneous circulation

Answer 365

b) obtain accurate history of the duration and frequency of attacks

Answer 366

c) in a patient with the first attack, which lasts less than 48 hours, do a conversion of heart rhythm

Answer 367

d) after successful cardioversion attack, which lasted less than 48 hours, introduce a beta blocker

Answer 368

e) if the patient is hemodynamically compromised, do not need treatment

Answer 369

a) dispassionately talks, he tells us that his heart "jumping"

Answer 370

b) is unconscious, agonal breathing (ventricular fibrillation)

Answer 371

c) it has a pain in the lower abdomen

Answer 372

d) the auscultation figure irregular and varying loud first heart tone

Answer 373

e) The heart tones are absent, there is a cardiac arrest

Answer 374

a) immediately defibrillation and perform external cardiac massage to recovery of spontaneous circulation

Answer 375

b) terminate ventricular fibrillation with amiodarone injection with external cardiac massage

Answer 376

c) after successful defibrillation record the ECG, in which we are looking for signs of acute coronary syndrome

Answer 377

d) if the patient is hemodynamically compromised, do not need treatment

Answer 378

e) in a patient who survived ventricular fibrillation, which was not due to acute coronary syndrome, it has to be implantable defibrillator cardioverter

Answer 379

b) it has, however, only if it has at the same time a structural heart disease

Answer 380

c) when the otherwise normal blood pressure is not

Answer 381

d) if taking no chest pain, no

Answer 382

e) in the majority of cases

Answer 383

a) sue just because of intermittent attacks of rapid, irregular heart beat

Answer 384

b) the stun

Answer 385

c) the occasional loss of consciousness

Answer 386

d) the unusually tired

Answer 387

e) have dyspnea on exertion

Answer 388

a) an infusion of norepinephrine

Answer 389

b) transcutaneous stimulation of the heart

Answer 390

c) the stimulation of the heart transvenously

Answer 391

d) amiodarone

Answer 392

e) with beta-blockers

Answer 393

A. Ebstein anomaly with right-to-left shunt through an open foramen ovale

Answer 394

B. tetralogy of Fallot

Answer 395

C. sinus venosus type ASD with left-right shunt

Answer 396

F. Open ductus line with left-right shunt

Answer 397

D. coarctation of the aorta

Answer 398

A. Completely healthy

Answer 399

B. often have residual hypertension

Answer 400

C. They are cyanotic

Answer 401

F. For them it is more common congenital aortic valve Double blade

Answer 402

D. dying from heart failure

Answer 403

A. Extremely rarely detected in adulthood

Answer 404

B. It is most commonly found congenital heart defect in adulthood

Answer 405

C. Do you often entangled with Eisenmenger’s syndrome

Answer 406

F. There is no need to be treated if it is detected only in adulthood, because it shows its clinical irrelevance

Answer 407

D. in adulthood often reveal only the concurrent systemic arterial hypertension

Answer 408

A. Pulmonary arterial hypertension

Answer 409

B. The defect interventricular septum

Answer 410

C. Cyanosis

Answer 411

F. pulmonary stenosis

Answer 412

D. Hypertrophy of left ventricle and overriding aorta

Answer 413

b. blood clotting disorders

Answer 414

c. proteinuria

Answer 415

d. Heart rhythm disorders

Answer 416

e. Thrombocytosis

Answer 417

a. the defect in the area fose ovalis interatrial septum

Answer 418

b. Santa's rule, right-left

Answer 419

c. Eisenmenger syndrome is a rare

Answer 420

d. ECG is often left bundle branch block

Answer 421

e. treatment is required

Answer 422

a. A small leak may be asymptomatic

Answer 423

b. wherein the noise holodiastoličen left parasternalno

Answer 424

c. to demonstrate the urgent transesophageal echocardiography

Answer 425

d. treatment is indicated, in the case of Eisenmenger's symptoms

Answer 426

e. and operated in the leak was in the non-sterile procedures indicated antibiotic protection

Answer 427

a. bulbusu aorta

Answer 428

b. the ascending part of the aorta, just before the turnoff brahiocefalične art.

Answer 429

c. aortic arch

Answer 430

d. discendent part of the aorta, just at output of left. subclavian

Answer 431

e. the junction of the renal arteries

Answer 432

a. pulmonary stenosis

Answer 433

b. right ventricular hypertrophy

Answer 434

c. defect in the atrial septum

Answer 435

d. defect in the ventricular septum

Answer 436

e. cavalier aorta

Answer 437

B. hypertonic heart with paroxysms of atrial Fibrillation

Answer 438

C. Cor pulmonale

Answer 439

D. pulmonary valve stenosis

Answer 440

E. atrial septum defect

Answer 441

a. the most common cause of aortic stenosis is rheumatic fever over it in the past

Answer 442

b. patients with severe aortic stenosis occurs with exertion of angina pectoris

Answer 443

c. Electrocardiogram are often symptoms of left ventricular hypertrophy

Answer 444

d. systolic volume noise in perfect correlation with the degree of stenosis

Answer 445

e. Patients with aortic stenosis may have syncope

Answer 446

a. mechanical valves have better hemodynamic characteristics of biological

Answer 447

b. patients with artificial mechanical heart valve must be one year after surgery to receive anticoagulation protection

Answer 448

c. the biologic valve is essential for life antiplatelet therapy

Answer 449

d. for Biological valves are deciding in young patients

Answer 450

e. artificial aortic valve can be inserted percutaneously, without surgery

Answer 451

A. Heavy breath with exertion

Answer 452

B. Syncope with exertion

Answer 453

C. In particular, a right-sided heart failure

Answer 454

F. Exertional angina

Answer 455

D. Sistolodiastolični noise over Erbovo point

Answer 456

A. The volume of noise

Answer 457

B. Changes in ECG

Answer 458

C. Hitrst blood flow through the aortic valve

Answer 459

D. The surface area of the aortic orifice

Answer 460

E. Size cardiac shadow on chest X-ray

Answer 461

A. Angina pectoris in the Effort

Answer 462

B. Syncope with exertion

Answer 463

C. Heavy breath with exertion (heart failure)

Answer 464

D. Palpitations

Answer 465

E. Headaches

Answer 466

A. If at the same time decide to bypass

Answer 467

B. If it falls left ventricular ejection fraction less than 50%

Answer 468

C. Always, with no concomitant diseases

Answer 469

D. If symptoms occur when stress test

Answer 470

E. If the patient is younger than 50 years

	Erstellt von mano li vor fast 3 Jahre

Nächster

Circulatory System II

Beschreibung

Zusammenfassung der Ressource

Frage 1

Frage 2

Frage 3

Frage 4

Frage 5

Frage 6

Frage 7

Frage 8

Frage 9

Frage 10

Frage 11

Frage 12

Frage 13

Frage 14

Frage 15

Frage 16

Frage 17

Frage 18

Frage 19

Frage 20

Frage 21

Frage 22

Frage 23

Frage 24

Frage 25

Frage 26

Frage 27

Frage 28

Frage 29

Frage 30

Frage 31

Frage 32

Frage 33

Frage 34

Frage 35

Frage 36

Frage 37

Frage 38

Frage 39

Frage 40

Frage 41

Frage 42

Frage 43

Frage 44

Frage 45

Frage 46

Frage 47

Frage 48

Frage 49

Frage 50

Frage 51

Frage 52

Frage 53

Frage 54

Frage 55

Frage 56

Frage 57

Frage 58

Frage 59

Frage 60

Frage 61

Frage 62

Frage 63

Frage 64

Frage 65

Frage 66

Frage 67

Frage 68

Frage 69

Frage 70

Frage 71

Frage 72

Frage 73

Frage 74

Frage 75

Frage 76