Pharmacology VI (100 Flash Cards)

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Praxis Flashcards: Pharmacology Karteikarten am Pharmacology VI (100 Flash Cards) , erstellt von ACAPUN INSTITUTE am 14/07/2021.
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Etiology of angina? insufficient oxygen to meet needs of myocardium
vasodilates coronary arteries to increase O2 supply to heart MOA of nitroglycerin
reduces O2 demand by preventing chronotopic (heart rate) responses to endogenous epinephrine, emotions, and excercise. propranolol MOA for angina
decreases O2 demand by reducing afterload by reducing peripheral resistance via vasodilation MOA of calcium channel blockers for angina
selective alpha 1 blocker. inhibits binding of nerve induced release of NE resulting in vasodilation prazosin MOA
acts as a fake neurotransmitter that stimulates alpha receptors to reduce release of sympathetic outflow resulting in vasodilation methyldopa MOA
selective for alpha 2 receptors in CNS to reduce sympathetic outflow to peripheral vessels resulting in vasodilation clonidine MOA
nonselective beta blocker reduces cardiac output resulting in vasodilation propranolol MOA for antiadrenergic
selective beta-1 blocker. reduces cardiac output resulting in vaodilation metoprolol MOA
Diuretics deal with decreases renal absorption of _____. This causes fluid loss and reduction in blood volume. This decreases the work the heart has to pump. sodium
chlorthiazide is a thiazide diuretic... but what is furesomide? high ceiling or loop acting diuretic
What kind of diuretic is spironolactone? potassium sparing
cardiac glycoside for congestive heart failure? digitalis or digoxin
how are cardiac glycosides effective for congestive heart failure? increasing force of contraction of myocardium.
how do cardiac glycosides increase force of contraction of myocardium? inhibit Na+/ K+ ATPase leading to increase of Ca+ influx. REDUCES COMPENSATORY CHANGES associated with CHF like increased heart size, edema, etc.
ototoxicity with deafness is a side effect of what diuretic agent? loop diuretic or high ceiling diuretic
nausea, vomiting, yellow-green vission symptoms of digitalis toxicity
what drug increases toxic response of digitalis? chlorthiazide
inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins MOA of aspirin's analgesic effects
inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in the hypothalamic temperature regulation center MOA of aspirin's antipyretic effects
inhibit synthesis of thromboxane A2 preventing platelet synthesis MOA of aspirin's effect on bleeding time
pain relief, antipyretic, entirheumatic, anti-inflammatory therapeutic effects of aspirin
occult bleeding from GI tract, tinnitis, nausea, vomiting, acid-base disturbances, metabolic acidosisdecreased tubular reabsorption of uric acid, salciylism, delirium, hyperventilation, etc. toxic effects of aspirin
What does acetaminophen have that aspirin does not? lacks antiinflammatory is hepatotoxic does not case GI upset
T/F: anti-inflammatories like prednisone, hydrocortisone, and triamcinolone are steroids that act primarily by PG inhibition false
ibuprofen vs aspirin ibuprofen causes much less GI irritation
Diflunisal vs aspirin, acetominophen, ibuprofen diflunisal has a longer half-life than aspirin, acetominiophen, and ibuprofen
aleve nonselective COX 1 and 2 inhibitor
acetominophen (aspirin causes reye's syndrome) drug of choice for a feverish child
naloxone opioid antagonist used to treat morphine overdose
methadone used in detoxificiation of morphine addicts
T/F: morphine produces respiratory depression, euphoria, sedation, dysphorea, analgesia, constipation, and diuresis. false, everything is true except for diruesis. Does not cause diuresis, but it causes urinary retention
T/F: morphine produces respiratory depression, euphoria, sedation, dysphorea, analgesia, urinary retention, and diarrhea false, everything is true except for diarrhea Does not cause diarrhea, but it causes consitpation
opiod overdose causes coma, miosis, and respiratory depression... What s MOA in respiratory depression? loss of sensitivity of medullary respiratory center to CO2
atropine, scopalamine, and propantheline competitive muscarinic receptor blockers used to control salivary secretions
blocks vagal reflexive control of heart rate, resulting in tachycardia MOA of atropine
Physostigmine and Neostigmine 2 reversible anticholinesterases
What do these symptoms describe? bradycardia, lacrimation salivation, voluntary muscle weakness, diarrhea, bronchoconstriction cholinergic crisis
how do you treat cholinergic crisis? atropine
What do these symptoms describe? disorientation, confusion, hallucinations, burning dry mouth, hypethermia scopolamine overdose
How do you treat scopolamine overdose? give phyostigmine
How does atopine cause tachycardia? blocks vagal reflexive control of heart rate
neostigmine drug that can stimulate denervated skeletal muscle
most useful drugs to induce salivation is one which ha properties that are ______ cholinergic
T/F: cholinergic stimulation causes miosis and increase of intraocularpressure false, it does cause miosis but it decreases intraocular pressure
T/F: cholinergic stimulation causes tachycardia false, cholinergic stimulation cause bradycardia. Only from injected cholinergic agents!
cholinergic stimulation causes increased or decreased salivation? increased
T/F: cholinergic stimulation causes acid secretion true, that's why it calso causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
cholinergic stimulation causes increased or decreased urinary retention? increased
cholinergic stimulation causes broncho vasodilation or constriction? Broncho-constriction
what happens to skeletal muscle from cholinergic overdose? tremor, ataxia, muscle weakness, cramps
ANTIcholine causes increase or decrease of intraocular pressure? increase of intraocular pressure-> loss of visual accomodation
tachycardia cardiovascular effects of ANTIcholinergic agents
decreased salivation and acid secretion GI tract from anticholergic agents
anticholinergic agents on urinary retention? decreased
T/F: anticholergic angets on skeletal muscles causes muscle relaxation false, it does nothing
Which drug gets into the brain and causes restlessness, headaches, excietment, etc.? tertiary amines
_____ ____ like methantheline and propantheline only hve peripheral actions quaternary amine
What causes xerostomia, anticholinergics or cholinomimetics? anti-cholinergic
how does reserpine inhibit action of adrenergic nerves? depletes NE of adrenergic nerves
how does guanethidine inhibit action of adrenergic nerves? inhibits release of catecholamines
how does alpha methyldopa inhibit action of adrenergic nerves? acts as a centrally fake neurotransmitter which gets taken up into storage and released with NE, decreasing sympathetic activity
how does clonidine inhibit action of adrenergic nerves? stimulates alpha 2 receptors
tyramine, ephedrine, amphetamine release stored NE 3 indirect acting sympathomimetic drugs
MOA of TCA and cocaine? block reuptake
block enzyme destruction MAOIs method of action
IN the presence of an alpha blocker, like prazosin, epineohrine would cause a decrease or increase in blood pressure? decrease in blood pressure because the beta mediated vasodilation predominates EPINEPHRINE REVERSAL
The vagal reflex may decrease heart rate instead of increase heart rate w/dose of epinephrine.. how do we prevent that? give atropine
vasoconsriction, urinary retention, mydriasis 3 causes of alpha-1 receptor stimulation
increased heart rate, bronchodilation, vasodilation 3 causes of beta receptor stimulation
vasodilation cause of an alpha 1 block
decreased heart rate, bronchoconstriction 2 causes of beta block
What's special about isoproterenol? potent bronchodilator because it stimulates beta2 receptors
What does carbidopa do? decreases peripheral metabolism of levodopa
For treating oral infections, penicillin V is preferred to penicillin G because it is a. less allergenic b. less sensitive to acid degradation c. has a greater gram-negative spectrum d. has a longer duration of action e. is bactericidal, whereas penicillin G isnt less sensitive to acid degradation
the sole therapeutic advantage of pencillin V over pencillin G is a. greater resistance to penicillinase b. broader antibacterial spectrum c. more reliable oral absorption d. slower renal excretion e. none of the above more reliable oral absorption
which of the following penicillins is administered only by deep IM injection? Pen G
which of the following antibiotics is cross allergenic with penicillin and should not be administered to the penicillin sensitive patient? a. ampicillin b erythromycin c. clindamyacin d. lincomycin e. tetracycline a. ampicillin
which of the following antibiotics may be cross allergenic with penicillin? a. neomycin b. cephalexin c. clindamycin d. erythromycin e. all of the above b. cephalexin
which of the following shows an incidence of approx 8% cross allergenicity with penicillins? a. neomycin b. cephalexin c. bacitracin d. vancomycin b. cephalexin
which group of antibiotics is related both structurally and by mode of action with penicillins? cephalosporins
most reliable method of detecting patients allergy to penicillin? thorough med hx
penicillin sub for allergy? erythromycin (***now days is clindamycin)
most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur a. when the drug is administered orally b. in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug c. in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy d. when the drug is administered parenterally e. within minutes after drug administration i. a, b, and d ii. b, c, and d iii. b, d, and e iv. b and e v. c, d, and e b, d, and e
broader gram negative spectrum than pen G? Ampicillin
BEST gram negative spectrum? Ampicillin
drug of choice for penicillinase producing staph? dicloxacillin
lest effective against penicillinase produce microorganisms? ampicillin
Used to treat pseudomonas?? carbenicillin
penicillin is effective against rapidly growing cells is primarily because it blocks what? cell wall synthesis
Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with what? protein synthesis on bacterial but not mammalian ribosomes **why its selectively toxic
Mechanism of bacteriostatic action of sulfonamides involves what? competition with para-aminobenzoic acid in FOLIC ACID synthesis **PABA
Sulfonamides act by? inducing a deficiency of folic acid by competition with PABA
tetracycline reduces effectiveness of concomitantly administered penicillin by? a. reducing absorption of penicillin b. increasing metabolism of penicillin c. increasing renal excretion of penicillin d. increasing binding of penicillin to serum proteins e. none of the above E. NONE OF THE ABOVE ***tetracycline is BACTERIOSTATIC and would slow the rapid growth of microbes that BACTERIOCIDAL penicillin needs to be effective ***only rapidly dividing cells are making cell walls
action of which drugs will most likely be impaired by concurrent admin of tetracycline? penicillin
Which antibiotic is most likely to cause liver damage? Tetracycline ***streptomycin can cause CNVIII nerve damage affecting balance and hearing ---not associated with liver damage ***penicillins are extremely safe --no effect on liver ***tetracyclines have been shown to be hepatotoxic following high doses in pregnant patients with history of renal disease
which erythromycin is associated with allergic cholestatic hepatitis?? erythromycin estolate
which antibiotic least likely to cause superinfection? Pen G ***narrow spectrum ***most likely would be tetracycline or clindamycin
GI upset and pseudomembranous colitis has been prominently associated with a. nystatin b. cephalexin c. clindamycin d. polymyxin B e. erythromycin c. clindamycin
symptoms that may be characterized as allergic manifestations during penicillin therapy are dermatitis, stomatits, bronchoconstriction, and CV collapse
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