Ben Williams
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Units 1-4 (plan to add 5-8, as we get to them).

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Ben Williams
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USA - Pharmacology - Vocab

Question 1 of 74

1

A drug name that is derived from the specific chemical structure of the compound. This name is not used clinically but is shortened in some way to form the drug’s more common name.

Select one of the following:

  • Chemical name

  • Generic name

  • Nonproprietary name

  • Trade name

Explanation

Question 2 of 74

1

The name applied to a drug, which is not protected by a trademark. Usually a shortened version of the drug's chemical name.

Select one of the following:

  • Generic Name

  • Trade Name

  • Proprietary Name

Explanation

Question 3 of 74

1

The name given to a drug by the pharmaceutical company; it is protected by a trademark and used by the company for marketing the drug

Select one of the following:

  • Trade Name

  • Chemical Name

  • Generic Name

Explanation

Question 4 of 74

1

Drugs designated by the federal government as having increased potential for abuse and illegal use. These substances are grouped into five categories (schedules), with schedule I substances having the highest abuse potential and schedule V substances having a relatively low potential for abuse.

Select one of the following:

  • Controlled Substances

  • Orphan Drugs

  • Over-the-counter drugs (OTC)

Explanation

Question 5 of 74

1

The relationship between incremental doses of a drug and the magnitude of the reaction that those doses will cause.

Select one of the following:

  • Dose-response curve

  • Pharmacodynamics

  • Pharmacokinetics

  • Therapeutic index (TI)

Explanation

Question 6 of 74

1

The drug dose that produces a specific therapeutic response in 50 percent of the patients in whom it is tested.

Select one of the following:

  • Median effective dose (ED50)

  • Median lethal dose (LD50)

  • Median toxic dose (TD50)

Explanation

Question 7 of 74

1

The drug dose that causes death in 50 percent of the experimental animals in which it is tested.

Select one of the following:

  • Median effective dose (ED50)

  • Median lethal dose (LD50)

  • Median toxic dose (TD50

Explanation

Question 8 of 74

1

The drug dose that produces a specific adverse response in 50 percent of the patients in whom it is tested.

Select one of the following:

  • Median effective dose (ED50)

  • Median lethal dose (LD50)

  • Median toxic dose (TD50)

Explanation

Question 9 of 74

1

A drug is prescribed to treat conditions other than those approved by the FDA.

Select one of the following:

  • Off-label prescribing

  • Over-the-counter drugs (OTC)

  • Orphan drugs

  • Pharmacodynamics

Explanation

Question 10 of 74

1

Drugs that are designed and approved to treat rare diseases. Because these drugs are only used in a small patient population (usually less than 200,000 people), financial and other incentives are often provided by various sources to encourage a drug company to develop and market the drug.

Select one of the following:

  • Orphan drugs

  • Over-the-counter drugs (OTC)

  • Prescription Drugs

  • Controlled substances

Explanation

Question 11 of 74

1

The study of how drugs affect the body—that is, the physiological and biochemical mechanisms of drug action

Select one of the following:

  • Pharmacodynamics

  • Pharmacogenetics

  • Pharmacokinetics

  • Pharmacotherapeutics

Explanation

Question 12 of 74

1

The study of the how genetic variability can influence drug responses and metabolism.

Select one of the following:

  • Pharmacodynamics

  • Pharmacogenetics

  • Pharmacokinetics

  • Pharmacotherapeutics

Explanation

Question 13 of 74

1

The study of how the body handles drugs—that is, the manner in which drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted.

Select one of the following:

  • Pharmacodynamics

  • Pharmacogenetics

  • Pharmacokinetics

  • Pharmacotherapeutics

Explanation

Question 14 of 74

1

The study of how drugs are used in the prevention and treatment of disease.

Select one of the following:

  • Pharmacodynamics

  • Pharmacogenetics

  • Pharmacokinetics

  • Pharmacotherapeutics

Explanation

Question 15 of 74

1

Therapeutic index (TI)

Select one of the following:

  • A ratio used to represent the relative safety of a particular drug; the larger the therapeutic index, the safer the drug. It is calculated as the median toxic dose divided by the median effective dose.

  • A ratio used to represent the relative safety of a particular drug; the smaller the therapeutic index, the safer the drug. It is calculated as the median effective dose divided by the median toxic dose.

  • A ratio used to represent the relative safety of a particular drug; the smaller the therapeutic index, the safer the drug. It is calculated as the median toxic dose divided by the median effective dose.

  • A ratio used to represent the relative safety of a particular drug; the larger the therapeutic index, the safer the drug. It is calculated as the median effective dose divided by the median toxic dose.

Explanation

Question 16 of 74

1

The extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation following administration by various routes.

Select one of the following:

  • Bioavailability

  • First-pass effect

  • Second-pass effect

  • Systemic Effect

Explanation

Question 17 of 74

1

Buccal

Select one of the following:

  • Referring to the cheek

  • Referring to the chin

  • Referring to the tonque

  • Referring to the buccus

Explanation

Question 18 of 74

1

Administration of drugs by way of the alimentary canal.

Select one of the following:

  • Enteral administration

  • Alimentary administration

  • Parentral administration

  • Intrathecal administration

Explanation

Question 19 of 74

1

The phenomenon in which drugs absorbed from the stomach and small intestine must pass through the liver before reaching the systemic circulation. Certain drugs undergo extensive hepatic metabolism because of their trip through the liver.

Select one of the following:

  • First-pass effect

  • Liver effect

  • Bioavailability

Explanation

Question 20 of 74

1

Administration of substances within a sheath; typically refers to injection into the sub-arachnoid space surrounding the spinal cord.

Select one of the following:

  • Intrathecal Administration

  • Parenteral administration

  • Enteral administration

  • Sublingual administration

Explanation

Question 21 of 74

1

Administration of drugs by routes other than via the alimentary canal: by injection, transdermally, topically, and so on.

Select one of the following:

  • Parenteral administration

  • Intrathecal administration

  • Sublingual administration

  • Enteral administration

Explanation

Question 22 of 74

1

Drugs administered under the tongue and are absorbed into the systemic circulation via the venous drainage.

Select one of the following:

  • Sublingual administration

  • Parenteral administration

  • Enteral administration

  • Intrathecal administration

Explanation

Question 23 of 74

1

A ratio used to estimate the distribution of a drug within the body relative to the total amount of fluid in the body. It is calculated as the amount of drug administered divided by the plasma concentration of the drug.

Select one of the following:

  • Volume of distribution

  • Potency

  • Bioavailability

Explanation

Question 24 of 74

1

A series of enzymes located on the smooth endo-plasmic reticulum that are important in catalyzing drug biotransformation.

Select one of the following:

  • Drug microsomal metabolizing system

  • Proton Pump

  • Metabolites

Explanation

Question 25 of 74

1

Biochemical changes that occur to the drug within the body, usually resulting in the breakdown and inactivation of the drug

Select one of the following:

  • Biotransformation

  • Half-Life

  • Clearance

Explanation

Question 26 of 74

1

The process by which the active form of the drug is removed from the bloodstream by either metabolism or excretion.

Select one of the following:

  • Clearance

  • Biotransformation

  • Half-life

Explanation

Question 27 of 74

1

An enzyme located on the inner surface of many cell membranes; it is important in mediating biochemical changes in the cell in response to drug and hormone stimulation

Select one of the following:

  • Adenylate cyclase

  • Cyclic adenosine monophosphate

  • Gamma-aminobutyric acid

  • Selective estrogen receptor modulator

Explanation

Question 28 of 74

1

A drug that binds to a receptor and causes some change in cell function

Select one of the following:

  • Agonist

  • Antagonist

Explanation

Question 29 of 74

1

A drug that binds to a receptor but does not cause a change in cell activity

Select one of the following:

  • Agonist

  • Antagonist

Explanation

Question 30 of 74

1

Substances that bind to a cell receptor and alter the receptor’s affinity for specific drugs

Select one of the following:

  • Allosteric modulators

  • G proteins

  • Selective estrogen receptor modulators

Explanation

Question 31 of 74

1

The ring-shaped conformation of adenosine monophosphate, which is important in acting as a second messenger in mediating the intracellular response to drug stimulation.

Select one of the following:

  • Cyclic adenosine monophosphate

  • Adenylate cyclase

  • Gamma-aminobutyric acid

  • Selective estrogen receptor modulator

Explanation

Question 32 of 74

1

A brief and transient decrease in the responsiveness of cellular receptors to drug effects.

Select one of the following:

  • Desensitization

  • Down-regulation

Explanation

Question 33 of 74

1

A prolonged decrease in the number and/or sensitivity of drug receptors, usually occurring as a compensatory response to over stimulation of the receptor.

Select one of the following:

  • Desensitization

  • Down-regulation

Explanation

Question 34 of 74

1

An inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain and spinal cord.

Select one of the following:

  • Gamma-aminobutyric acid

  • Adenylate cyclase

  • Cyclic adenosine monophosphate

  • Selective estrogen receptor modulator

Explanation

Question 35 of 74

1

Bind with guanine nucleotides and regulate cell activity. They often serve as a link between surface receptors and ion channels or intracellular enzymes such as adenylate cyclase.

Select one of the following:

  • G proteins

  • Selective estrogen receptor modulators

  • Allosteric modulators

Explanation

Question 36 of 74

1

A drug that activates estrogen receptors on bone and vascular tissues, while blocking estrogen receptors on breast and uterine tissues. These drugs can be used to enhance bone mineralization and to prevent certain cancers.

Select one of the following:

  • Selective estrogen receptor modulator

  • Gamma-aminobutyric acid

  • Cyclic adenosine monophosphate

  • Adenylate cyclase

Explanation

Question 37 of 74

1

A neurotransmitter in the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
Principal synapses using this neurotransmitter include the skeletal neuromuscular junction, autonomic ganglia, and certain pathways in the brain.

Select one of the following:

  • Acetylcholine

  • Norepinephrine

  • Aldosterone

  • Dopamine

  • Phosphodiesterase (PDE)

Explanation

Question 38 of 74

1

A neurotransmitter that is important in certain brain pathways and in the terminal synapses of the sympathetic nervous system.

Select one of the following:

  • Norepinephrine

  • Acetylcholine

  • Aldosterone

  • Dopamine

  • Phosphodiesterase (PDE)

Explanation

Question 39 of 74

1

A steroid (mineralocorticoid) hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that acts on the kidney to increase sodium reabsorption, thereby retaining sodium in the body.

Select one of the following:

  • Acetylcholine

  • Norepinephrine

  • Aldosterone

  • Dopamine

  • Phosphodiesterase (PDE)

Explanation

Question 40 of 74

1

A neurotransmitter located in the central nervous system (CNS) that is important in motor control and in certain aspects of behavior. The presence of endogenous or exogenous ______ in the periphery also affects cardiovascular function.

Select one of the following:

  • Acetylcholine

  • Norepinephrine

  • Aldosterone

  • Dopamine

  • Phosphodiesterase (PDE)

Explanation

Question 41 of 74

1

An enzyme that breaks down phosphodiester bonds in organic compounds. They are important clinically because they break down second messengers such as cyclic AMP, and drugs that inhibit these enzymes prolong the effects of cyclic AMP in the lungs and other tissues.

Select one of the following:

  • Acetylcholine

  • Norepinephrine

  • Aldosterone

  • Dopamine

  • Phosphodiesterase (PDE)

Explanation

Question 42 of 74

1

Refers to synapses or physiological responses involving epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Select one of the following:

  • Adrenergic

  • Cholinergic

  • Inotropic

Explanation

Question 43 of 74

1

Refers to synapses or physiological responses involving acetylcholine.

Select one of the following:

  • Adrenergic

  • Cholinergic

  • Inotropic

Explanation

Question 44 of 74

1

Refers to a substance that increases muscular contraction force (positive ____) or decreases contraction force (negative _____).
Certain cardiac drugs are considered positive _____ because they increase the force of cardiac contractions.

Select one of the following:

  • Inotropic

  • Adrenergic

  • Cholinergic

Explanation

Question 45 of 74

1

Drugs that decrease activity at acetylcholine synapses.
These agents are often used to diminish activity in the parasympathetic nervous system.

Select one of the following:

  • Anticholinergics

  • Sympatholytics

  • Anticoagulants

  • Fibrinolytics

Explanation

Question 46 of 74

1

Drugs that inhibit or antagonize function within the sympathetic nervous system.

Select one of the following:

  • Parasympatholytic

  • Sympatholytics

  • Anticoagulants

  • Fibrinolytics

  • Anticholinergics

Explanation

Question 47 of 74

1

Drugs that decrease the blood’s capacity to coagulate (clot).

Select one of the following:

  • Anticoagulants

  • Anticholinergics

  • Sympatholytics

  • Fibrinolytics

Explanation

Question 48 of 74

1

Drugs which facilitate the breakdown and dissolution of clots that have already formed. These drugs work by converting plasminogen (profibrinolysin) to plasmin (fibrinolysin).

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrinolytics

  • Anticoagulants

  • Sympatholytics

  • Anticholinergics

Explanation

Question 49 of 74

1

The clinical syndrome of bradykinesia, rigidity, resting tremor, and postural instability associated with neurotransmitter abnormalities within the basal ganglia.

Select one of the following:

  • Parkinson disease

  • Metabolic syndrome

  • Angina pectoris

  • Congestive heart failure

  • Hemophilia

Explanation

Question 50 of 74

1

A condition characterized by insulin resistance, high blood pressure, abdominal obesity, and hyperlipidemia.

Select one of the following:

  • Parkinson disease

  • Metabolic syndrome

  • Angina pectoris

  • Congestive heart failure

  • Hemophilia

Explanation

Question 51 of 74

1

Severe pain and constriction in the chest region, usually associated with myocardial ischemia.

Select one of the following:

  • Parkinson disease

  • Metabolic syndrome

  • Angina pectoris

  • Congestive heart failure

  • Hemophilia

Explanation

Question 52 of 74

1

A clinical syndrome of cardiac disease that is marked by decreased myocardial contractility, peripheral edema, shortness of breath, and decreased tolerance for physical exertion.

Select one of the following:

  • Parkinson disease

  • Metabolic syndrome

  • Angina pectoris

  • Congestive heart failure

  • Hemophilia

Explanation

Question 53 of 74

1

A hereditary disease in which an individual is unable to synthesize adequate amounts of a specific clotting factor.

Select one of the following:

  • Parkinson disease

  • Metabolic syndrome

  • Angina pectoris

  • Congestive heart failure

  • Hemophilia

Explanation

Question 54 of 74

1

A sudden fall in blood pressure that occurs when the patient stands erect; this is a frequent side effect of many medications.

Select one of the following:

  • Orthostatic hypotension

  • Hypertension

  • Arrhythmia

  • Hemostasis

  • Hyperlipidemia

  • Thrombus

Explanation

Question 55 of 74

1

A pathological condition characterized by a sustained, reproducible increase in blood pressure.

Select one of the following:

  • Orthostatic hypotension

  • Hypertension

  • Arrhythmia

  • Hemostasis

  • Thrombus

  • Hyperlipidemia

Explanation

Question 56 of 74

1

A significant deviation from normal cardiac rhythm that results in a heart rate that is slower or faster than normal, or irregular.

Select one of the following:

  • Orthostatic hypotension

  • Hypertension

  • Arrhythmia

  • Hemostasis

  • Thrombus

  • Hyperlipidemia

Explanation

Question 57 of 74

1

The process of preventing blood loss from the circulation following injury to blood vessels.

Select one of the following:

  • Hemostasis

  • Thrombus

  • Hyperlipidemia

  • Arrhythmia

  • Hypertension

  • Orthostatic hypotension

Explanation

Question 58 of 74

1

A blood clot formed by the activation of fibrin and platelets

Select one of the following:

  • Arrhythmia

  • Thrombus

  • Hemostasis

Explanation

Question 59 of 74

1

A chronic and excessive increase in plasma lipids in the blood.

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperlipidemia

  • Orthostatic hypotension

  • Hemostasis

  • Hypertension

  • Arrhythmia

Explanation

Question 60 of 74

1

A protein produced in the brain that helps sustain neuronal activity and growth.
It may be important in mediating the effects of antidepressants and other CNS drugs.

Select one of the following:

  • Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)

  • Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

  • G-Protein

Explanation

Question 61 of 74

1

An enzyme that degrades levodopa to an inactive metabolite in the bloodstream and other tissues.
Certain drugs (e.g. carbidopa) can protect levodopa so that it is not degraded prematurely in patients with Parkinson disease.

Select one of the following:

  • Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

  • Brain derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)

  • Acetylcholinesterase

  • Levodotransferase

Explanation

Question 62 of 74

1

A feeling of extreme motor restlessness and an inability to sit still; may occur because of antipsychotic drug therapy.

Select one of the following:

  • Akathisia

  • Dyskinesia

  • Tardive dyskinesia

  • Epilepsy

Explanation

Question 63 of 74

1

An involuntary movement ranging from minor tremors and tics to severe uncoordinated movements of the trunk and extremities.
These involuntary movements are associated with certain movement disorders and can also be a side effect of specific medications, such as antiparkinson drugs and antipsychotic medications.

Select one of the following:

  • Dyskinesia

  • Akathisia

  • Tardive Dyskinesia

  • Epilepsy

Explanation

Question 64 of 74

1

A movement disorder characterized by involuntary, fragmented movements of the mouth, face, and jaw (i.e., chewing, sucking, tongue protrusion, etc.). This disorder may occur during the prolonged administration of antipsychotic drugs.

Select one of the following:

  • Akathisia

  • Dyskinesia

  • Tardive Dyskinesia

  • Epilepsy

Explanation

Question 65 of 74

1

A chronic neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures that are manifested as brief periods of altered consciousness, involuntary motor activity, or vivid sensory phenomena.

Select one of the following:

  • Akathisia

  • Epilepsy

  • Tardive Dyskinesia

  • Dyskinesia

Explanation

Question 66 of 74

1

A term frequently used to describe antipsychotic drugs, referring to the tendency of these drugs to produce a behavioral syndrome of apathy, sedation, decreased initiative, and decreased responsiveness.

Select one of the following:

  • Neuroleptic

  • Anticholinergic

  • Sedative

  • Anxiolytic

Explanation

Question 67 of 74

1

Drugs that decrease activity at acetylcholine synapses.
These agents are often used to diminish activity in the parasympathetic nervous system.

Select one of the following:

  • Anticholinergics

  • Sympatholytic

  • Anxiolytic

  • Neuroleptic

Explanation

Question 68 of 74

1

Period of several days to several weeks in which medications are withdrawn from the patient to allow recovery from drug tolerance or toxicity; sometimes used in patients with advanced cases of Parkinson disease.

Select one of the following:

  • Drug Holiday

  • End-of-dose Akinesia

  • On-Off Phenomenon

Explanation

Question 69 of 74

1

A phenomenon in Parkinson disease in which the effectiveness of the medication wears off toward the end of the dosing interval, resulting in a virtual lack of volitional movement from the patient.

Select one of the following:

  • End-of-dose akinesia

  • On-off phenomenon

  • Withdrawal

Explanation

Question 70 of 74

1

The fluctuation in response seen in certain patients with Parkinson disease, in which the effectiveness of medications may suddenly diminish at some point between dosages.

Select one of the following:

  • On-off phenomenon

  • End-of-dose akinesia

  • Withdrawal

  • Pseudo-Parkinsonism

Explanation

Question 71 of 74

1

Administration of local anesthesia into the spinal canal between the bony vertebral column and the dura mater.

Select one of the following:

  • Epidural nerve block

  • Spinal nerve block

Explanation

Question 72 of 74

1

Administration of local anesthesia into the spinal canal between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater (i.e., the subarachnoid space).

Select one of the following:

  • Spinal nerve block

  • Epidural nerve block

Explanation

Question 73 of 74

1

Type of chemical linkage found in some local anesthetics involving carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen (-NH-CO-)

Select one of the following:

  • Amide

  • Ester

Explanation

Question 74 of 74

1

Type of chemical linkage found in some local anesthetics involving carbon and oxygen (-CO-O-)

Select one of the following:

  • Ester

  • Amide

Explanation