Julia Dubois
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Exam 2 for Marketing quiz questions

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Julia Dubois
Created by Julia Dubois about 7 years ago
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Exam 2 Marketing Quizzes

Question 1 of 124

1

A "Brand" is confined to the physical name or logo associated with the firm.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 2 of 124

1

When does activation occur?

Select one of the following:

  • With social media-based marketing

  • With only internal cues

  • With only external cues

  • with either external or internal cues

Explanation

Question 3 of 124

1

Brand awareness is associated with the ability of the brand to ____________, who is offering a product or service, while brand association is associated with the ability of the brand to ____________ competitors.

Select one of the following:

  • differentiate; identify

  • separate; connect

  • identify; differentiate

  • respond; attack

Explanation

Question 4 of 124

1

The primary value of a brand for the consumers is the:

Select one of the following:

  • definition of corporate social responsibility

  • association with target groups

  • ability to compare prices

  • reduction or perceived risk

Explanation

Question 5 of 124

1

Which of these is not a type of brand association

Select one of the following:

  • brand memories

  • brand benefits

  • brand attributes

  • brand attitudes

Explanation

Question 6 of 124

1

If oreo cookies come out with a new flavor of s'mores Oreo cookies, what are they using in order to turn brand equity into dollars?

Select one of the following:

  • Word of Mouth

  • Product Purchase

  • Licensing

  • Promotional Advantage

Explanation

Question 7 of 124

1

The example of the purchase of the PanAm brand demonstrates how:

Select one of the following:

  • Promotional advertising can save a business

  • Brands are worthless without assets as collateral

  • Brands can have value beyond the book value of the firm.

  • Brands are unable to expand past their original industries

Explanation

Question 8 of 124

1

How did changing the name of an island from Hog Island to Paradise Island help that Island's tourism industry?

Select one of the following:

  • changing the name did not help

  • The book value of the island increased

  • A functional benefit came from changing the island

  • Added value came from a more appealing name

Explanation

Question 9 of 124

1

Book value of assets + Brand equity=

Select one of the following:

  • Price of brand

  • Market share in industry

  • Market value of brand

  • Consumer share of brand

Explanation

Question 10 of 124

1

What is the difinition of a national brand?

Select one of the following:

  • Brand name carried in at least 60% of national stores

  • Brand that achieved national recognition

  • Brand that has achieved status of generic trademarks

  • Brand name owned by the producer of the product carrying the brand

Explanation

Question 11 of 124

1

In the Four Viewpoints model, what does the intended image refer to?

Select one of the following:

  • How insiders view the organization

  • How outsiders view the organization

  • How outsiders want others to see the organization

  • How insiders want others to see the organization

Explanation

Question 12 of 124

1

If Mariott Hotels suddenly breaks from its current strategy of sub-branding, which guidline of choosing a brand name would they have broken?

Select one of the following:

  • Appropriateness

  • Institutional Branding

  • Consistency

  • Protectabililty

Explanation

Question 13 of 124

1

Which of these is the best example of brand fit

Select one of the following:

  • Proctor and Gamble's broad reach

  • Lyft's name and logo

  • Xerox's accessibility

  • Kodak's distinctive name

Explanation

Question 14 of 124

1

Which of these companies could be said to follow the guideline on consciseness most closely?

Select one of the following:

  • Gap

  • Harley-Davidson Motor Company

  • American Eagle Outfitters

  • Jacobs by Marc Jacobs

Explanation

Question 15 of 124

1

In the Four Viewpoints model, which viewpoint refers to how people inside the organization view the organization?

Select one of the following:

  • Internal Reputation

  • Identity

  • Construed Image

  • Stakeholder

Explanation

Question 16 of 124

1

What is the difference between retailing and wholesaling?

Select one of the following:

  • retailers sells to individuals for end use; wholesalers sell to companies for resale/ company use

  • retailers sell to companies for resale/ company use; wholesalers sells to individuals for end use

  • retailers are unable to mark up prices; wholesalers are free to do so

  • wholesalers are unable to mark up prices; retailers are free to do so

Explanation

Question 17 of 124

1

In the acronym LAURA, the "U" stabds for understand. What should a marketing professional understand?

Select one of the following:

  • how the customer will discuss your product to others

  • how the product should be used

  • exactly what happened to cause the problem

  • whose fault the problem is

Explanation

Question 18 of 124

1

Company employees are only able to act (the last "A" in the acronym LAURA) if the problem was caused by an issue on the firm's side of the transaction.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 124

1

Rachel goes to walmart to buy groceries, and checks out a cashier. When Rachel hands her cash to the Walmart employee, what kind of transaction has taken place?

Select one of the following:

  • Macine summons

  • Human customer, Machine service provider

  • Traditional Interactions

  • Automated Service Delivery

Explanation

Question 20 of 124

1

Technology has had little impact on organizational frontlines in most industries

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 124

1

Brands marketed as more luxury options (such as Lexus) are likely to utilize _______ distribution intensity.

Select one of the following:

  • broad-coverage

  • selective

  • intensive

  • strategically placed

Explanation

Question 22 of 124

1

A platform that recieves renting fees recieves those fees from the _________ and sharing those fees with the _____________.

Select one of the following:

  • recommender; seeker

  • owner; seeker

  • platform; owner

  • seeker; owner

Explanation

Question 23 of 124

1

What is the reason for so many levels existing between the producer and end-user?

Select one of the following:

  • convienience only

  • prices are lower across the board with a greater number of levels

  • each level adds some kind of value to the end user

  • each level makes some degree of money

Explanation

Question 24 of 124

1

Which of these is not a potential benefit of increasing a sharing economy?

Select one of the following:

  • realize potential market gains

  • return economic benefits

  • reduce enviromental and waste impact

  • reverse effects of eroding social trust

Explanation

Question 25 of 124

1

When it comes to compensation in a channel of distribution, __________ places the most important role.

Select one of the following:

  • replicability

  • relative importance

  • power

  • market share

Explanation

Question 26 of 124

1

When employees with high customer orientation are embedded in an organization that emphasizes (and benefits from) customer satisfaction, profits are likely to:

Select one of the following:

  • decrease

  • increase

  • stay the same

  • exponentially decrease

Explanation

Question 27 of 124

1

Customer orientation is impossible to "act" or expand.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 28 of 124

1

What is role conflict?

Select one of the following:

  • when an employee is unsure about their role in the organization

  • when an employee has many roles that have time conflicts

  • when an employee in a job is asked to complete many, possibly conflicting tasks

  • when an employee in a job is unsure about the tasks necessary for a job

Explanation

Question 29 of 124

1

Discerning what someone else is thinking and feeling is defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • management

  • empathy

  • customer service

  • understanding

Explanation

Question 30 of 124

1

What kinds of jobs are the least likely to be automated?

Select one of the following:

  • those that make routine decisions only

  • those that deal with routine numbers

  • those that require empathy

  • those that utilize calculations only

Explanation

Question 31 of 124

1

Which of these is not a step in the personal selling process?

Select one of the following:

  • approach

  • close

  • prospecting

  • presentation

Explanation

Question 32 of 124

1

What are the two important outcomes in a marketing interaction?

Select one of the following:

  • repeat business and low prices

  • competitive advantage and posititve word of mouth

  • repeat business and positive word of mouth

  • profitability and efficiency

Explanation

Question 33 of 124

1

What are inside sales?

Select one of the following:

  • a type of sales in which companies within the same industry sell to each other

  • a type of sales in which inside departments sell to each others

  • a type of sales in which interactions are initiated by the buyer

  • a type of sales in which interactions are initiated by the seller

Explanation

Question 34 of 124

1

When does the initial contact with the potential consumer occur?

Select one of the following:

  • introduction

  • preapproach

  • approach

  • close

Explanation

Question 35 of 124

1

Prospecting needs to start with a large amount of potential customers

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 124

1

What is price skimming?

Select one of the following:

  • setting a low price to penetrate the market

  • setting a high price for a new product to skim maximum revenues

  • reintroducing an old product at a different price

  • offering customization at a price premium

Explanation

Question 37 of 124

1

what is market penetration?

Select one of the following:

  • setting a low price for a new product to penetrate the market

  • lowering the price of old products

  • jumping to a new target market

  • introducing a minimal version of an established product

Explanation

Question 38 of 124

1

Small changes in price do not have a very large impact on bottom line profits

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 124

1

Which of these do not happen in a "smart industry"

Select one of the following:

  • greater use of techniques from other fields

  • greater subtlety of pricing options

  • more complex pricing

  • companies fight with price only

Explanation

Question 40 of 124

1

What is ala carte pricing?

Select one of the following:

  • price determined by choice of rigind, set bundles

  • setting a high price to skim maximum revenues

  • variable rate for each customer

  • price assembled as you add options

Explanation

Question 41 of 124

1

Assume that Netflix has introduced a new bundle service for their streaming services. Bundle 1 includes a base price of $9 to cover 25 hours of streaming for the month and variable price of $0.10 for every 30 minutes over that 25hours.Bundle 2 includes no base price, but at a variable price of $0.25 for every 30minutes of streaming per month. When a consumer attempts decide which bundle to use, what are they determining?

Select one of the following:

  • Price elasticity

  • value of the brand

  • Effectiveness of bundling

  • Breakeven point

Explanation

Question 42 of 124

1

What is the main difference between equations for margin and mark-up

Select one of the following:

  • margin is (price-cost)/ cost and mark-up is (price-cost)/price

  • margin is (price-cost)/price and mark-up is (price-cost)/cost

  • There is no difference, they are synonyms

  • Margin is (price-competition)/price and mark-up is Price-competition

Explanation

Question 43 of 124

1

A change in price in an elastic market is likely to show ____ change in demand when compared to a similar change in an inelastic market.

Select one of the following:

  • greater

  • smaller

  • variable

  • equal

Explanation

Question 44 of 124

1

What is defined as responsiveness of demand to changes in price?

Select one of the following:

  • cost benefits

  • price variation

  • price elasticity

  • demand sensitivity

Explanation

Question 45 of 124

1

A grocer has purchased a truckload of frozen dinners for $3 each The grocer operates on a margin of 30% for frozen food items. What is the retail price to the consmer?

Select one of the following:

  • $4.29

  • $5.78

  • $2.60

  • $3.35

Explanation

Question 46 of 124

1

What is odd-even pricing?

Select one of the following:

  • a method used for clearance sales only

  • bundling product in odd or even numbered quantities

  • setting prices a few dollars or cents under an even number

  • setting prices at alternating odd and even values

Explanation

Question 47 of 124

1

Firm A is selling a product for $40, while their major competition is selling the same product for $50. Firm A is trying to decide whether to market their price as $10 off or 20%off." According to the majority of research, which strategy would be the most effective.

Select one of the following:

  • $10 off

  • There is no way to determine effectiveness

  • 20% off

  • They will be equally effective

Explanation

Question 48 of 124

1

When pricing a product in other countries, what should companies be sure to do?

Select one of the following:

  • nothing different from standard pricing strategy

  • always price up

  • always price down

  • set prices that cater to cultural beliefs

Explanation

Question 49 of 124

1

Psychoogical pricing is primarily concerned with

Select one of the following:

  • how consumers percieve the price

  • the elasticity of the stock market

  • how employees percieve the price

  • how competitors percieve the price

Explanation

Question 50 of 124

1

You should quote prices of related items for consumers to use as anchors because using unrelated products is always ineffective

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 124

1

The "Company" in the communication Triangle represents the

Select one of the following:

  • Frontline employees

  • Formal company management

  • Customers

  • Company reputation

Explanation

Question 52 of 124

1

The message put in place by the sender is always identical to the message received by the Receiver

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 124

1

What is the definition of Promotion?

Select one of the following:

  • the means of communication with the customer

  • the means of convincing customers to purchase your product

  • the means of communication with employees

  • the means of outbidding competitors in the market

Explanation

Question 54 of 124

1

What is noise?

Select one of the following:

  • Anything that interferes with the ability of the receiver to understand the intended message from the sender

  • Anything that interferes with the ability of the sender to understand the intended message from the receiver

  • The channel of communication between sender and receiver

  • The clear transmission of a message to the receiver

Explanation

Question 55 of 124

1

What is defined as the communications between the company and its customers

Select one of the following:

  • Interactive communication

  • Active advertising

  • External promotion

  • Internal promotion

Explanation

Question 56 of 124

1

Which one of these is not one of the Three C's?

Select one of the following:

  • Concise

  • Clear

  • Consistent

  • Committed

Explanation

Question 57 of 124

1

The goal of "inform and persuade" is targeted when the consumer base

Select one of the following:

  • is made of new or potential customers

  • Has demonstrated loyalty over several years

  • Is already knowledgeable about your product

  • Is made of existing customers

Explanation

Question 58 of 124

1

Advertisements should be run with _____ objectives in mind

Select one of the following:

  • ambiguous and attainable

  • obvious and committed

  • specific and measurable

  • adjustable and avoidable

Explanation

Question 59 of 124

1

Advertising is best though of as a(n):

Select one of the following:

  • dividend

  • ROI

  • Investment

  • Immediate payoff

Explanation

Question 60 of 124

1

What is a sales promotion?

Select one of the following:

  • Short term external promtion tactic designed to influence immediate purchase

  • a synonym for advertising

  • Price cuts only

  • Long term external promotion tactic designed to influence future purchase

Explanation

Question 61 of 124

1

Why is simplicity important for breaking through promtional clutter

Select one of the following:

  • Complex messages draw consumers in

  • Messages seen as too simple are ignored by consumers

  • Your message is the clearest when it is simple

  • Messages need to be full and complete

Explanation

Question 62 of 124

1

Which of these is not a goal of promotion?

Select one of the following:

  • Desire

  • Action

  • Awareness

  • Price Cuts

Explanation

Question 63 of 124

1

Can the order of the AIDA be changed? Why or why not?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes, each goal is individual and separate

  • No consumer reactions must drive the order

  • Yes, changing the order keeps the competitors on edge

  • No, each step must be achieved before moving to the next

Explanation

Question 64 of 124

1

Why is it crucial for a company to break through the promotional clutter?

Select one of the following:

  • Consumers are constantly, consciously evaluating messages

  • Promotional clutter can be used to a firm's advantage

  • Consumers have a limitedablity to register messages

  • Promotional clutter is the end goal of advertising

Explanation

Question 65 of 124

1

Promotion is ultimately about making

Select one of the following:

  • Effective exchanges between the seller and the customer

  • Good communicatin efforts between management and employees

  • Efficient exchange between suppliers and retailers

  • The best sale price possible

Explanation

Question 66 of 124

1

Compared to digital or broadcast advertising, print advertisements tend to lack

Select one of the following:

  • Flexibility

  • Words

  • Ingenuity

  • Clarity

Explanation

Question 67 of 124

1

The advertising examples given in the lecture videos best demonstrate which aspects of the SUCCESs model for cutting through clutter?

Select one of the following:

  • Simple and Unexpected

  • Credible and Promotional

  • Emotion and Concrete

  • Simple and Concrete

Explanation

Question 68 of 124

1

Print ads are no longer effective in today's world.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 69 of 124

1

Which of these is not an example of print media advertising?

Select one of the following:

  • Newspapers

  • Magazines

  • Radio

  • Directories

Explanation

Question 70 of 124

1

Which of these is not a reason for the increasing popularity if digital marketing?

Select one of the following:

  • Cost-effective

  • Difficult to track effectivness

  • Interactive medium

  • Easily Targeted

Explanation

Question 71 of 124

1

Marketers tend to spend _______ on out-of-home advertisements compared to other methods.

Select one of the following:

  • The same

  • More

  • Less

  • Inconclusive amounts

Explanation

Question 72 of 124

1

only Gen X and Millenial demographics are represented on social media.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 73 of 124

1

What is the main risk of using email promotions

Select one of the following:

  • Privacy issues

  • Cost of sending mail

  • Consumers ignoring mail

  • Cannot target email effectively

Explanation

Question 74 of 124

1

When determining which social media platform to use for marketing, what should marketing professionals consider?

Select one of the following:

  • How the platform fits with your product

  • Which platforms are most conveinient for the firm

  • Pay-per-click advertisements

  • What is cool or trendy

Explanation

Question 75 of 124

1

Only Certain demograpics can be reached using Facebook

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 76 of 124

1

Pinterest is the only social media platform that is ______- looking

Select one of the following:

  • Outward

  • Present

  • Forward

  • Backward

Explanation

Question 77 of 124

1

In social media marketing, who are you representing?

Select one of the following:

  • Your followers

  • Your brand

  • The media platform

  • Yourself

Explanation

Question 78 of 124

1

Which of these is a goal of SEO?

Select one of the following:

  • Be as selective as possible with viewership

  • Be a top result as often as possible

  • Focus only on on-site SEO

  • Include the maximum possible number of advertisments

Explanation

Question 79 of 124

1

The landing page is the same as the web home page

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 80 of 124

1

Which of these is not a characteristic of a good landing page?

Select one of the following:

  • Full company information

  • clear offer

  • simple form

  • quality content offer

Explanation

Question 81 of 124

1

What is the point of on-site SEO?

Select one of the following:

  • Prove to consumers that your content is popular

  • Increase Pay-per-click

  • improve business to business marketing

  • Prove to Google that your content is relevant

Explanation

Question 82 of 124

1

Targeting based on "where people have been" is known as

Select one of the following:

  • Forecasting

  • Remarketing

  • Market Segmenting

  • Coupon Rate

Explanation

Question 83 of 124

1

Google's display network is huge, with approximately _____________ monthly impressions

Select one of the following:

  • One trillion

  • 6 billion

  • a hundred thousand

  • 10 million

Explanation

Question 84 of 124

1

New advertisements are often required for every possible size on online display.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 85 of 124

1

Online display advertising is exactly the same as pay-per-click

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 86 of 124

1

Most Services are delivered via which kind of channel distribution?

Select one of the following:

  • Indirect Channel

  • Direct Channel

Explanation

Question 87 of 124

1

What is the supply chain?

Select one of the following:

  • Organizations and activities involved with the flow of products from raw materials to the customers

  • Promotions and offers involoved with the flow of activities from raw materials to the customer.

  • Products and services involved with the flow of cash from the consumer to the firm

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 88 of 124

1

How many entities are in a direct channel of distribution

Select one of the following:

  • Two

  • Four or More

  • Three

  • Four

Explanation

Question 89 of 124

1

Marketing as a field of stuy originally broke off from which academic discipline?

Select one of the following:

  • Engineering technology

  • Industrial technology

  • Organizational behavior

  • Agricultural economics

Explanation

Question 90 of 124

1

There are ____________ intermediaries in most channels of distribution

Select one of the following:

  • zero

  • one or more

  • exactly two

  • five or more

Explanation

Question 91 of 124

1

Why are wholesalers, distributors, etc. not described as common intermediaries for services?

Select one of the following:

  • Most services are delivered directly

  • Service intermediaries are retailers and agents

  • All intermediaries are used equally for delivery of services

  • Services do not follow a marketing channel

Explanation

Question 92 of 124

1

Which of these is not a marketing function?

Select one of the following:

  • Physical distribution and warehousing

  • Manufacturing

  • Promotion

  • Risk-taking

Explanation

Question 93 of 124

1

According to the article, bananas must be monitored for what throughout the supply chain process?

Select one of the following:

  • Ripeness

  • Price

  • Taste

  • Size

Explanation

Question 94 of 124

1

What is defined as a channel intermediary that resells products to consumers?

Select one of the following:

  • Retailer

  • Agent/Broker

  • Wholesaler

  • Distributor

Explanation

Question 95 of 124

1

What is a significant difference between how Agents/ Brokers conduct business when compared to other types of intermediaries?

Select one of the following:

  • agents/ brokers take ownership of the product for less than one year

  • Agents/ Brokers charge more per product sold

  • Agents/ Products work on behalf of the end consumer

  • Agents/ brokers never take ownership of the product.

Explanation

Question 96 of 124

1

What makes a marketing channel a vertical marketing system?

Select one of the following:

  • The channel is managed by a single channel member

  • Power goes to the member that makes the most money

  • Size of each channel member is roughly equal

  • The channel’s power is equally split between all members

Explanation

Question 97 of 124

1

Which of the following marketing functions typically are not taken on by the franchisee?

Select one of the following:

  • Risk taking

  • Physical distribution

  • Promotion

  • Financing

Explanation

Question 98 of 124

1

The relationship and responsibilities of the franchisee are very clearly spelled out by the franchiser.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 99 of 124

1

Which of these is the best example of Contractual VMS?

Select one of the following:

  • Retailing

  • Ownership

  • Franchising

  • Agent/Broker

Explanation

Question 100 of 124

1

What is defined as the use of a variety of marketing channels to ensure maximum distribution?

Select one of the following:

  • Market analysis

  • Consumer-based decisions

  • Multichannel distribution

  • Intermediary distribution

Explanation

Question 101 of 124

1

Which of these is the correct sequence in the Anticipatory Supply Chain?

Select one of the following:

  • Buy components, Buy Materials, Sell, Produce

  • Manufacture, Warehouse, Sell, Deliver

  • Warehouse, Manufacture, Deliver, Sell

  • Forecast, Manufacture, Deliver, Buy components

Explanation

Question 102 of 124

1

What is the correct timeline for the Responsive Supply Chain?

Select one of the following:

  • Manufacture, Warehouse, Sell, Deliver

  • Forecast, Manufacture, Buy components, Deliver

  • Sell, Buy Components, Manufacture, Deliver

  • Buy components, Buy Materials, Sell, Produce

Explanation

Question 103 of 124

1

Customers in the Responsive supply chain can take on a(n) __________ role

Select one of the following:

  • Active

  • Passive

  • Competitive

  • Neutral

Explanation

Question 104 of 124

1

What has been the dominant supply chain model since the Industrial Revolution?

Select one of the following:

  • Anticipatory Supply Chain

  • Recognition Supply Chain

  • Responsive Supply Chain

  • None of these

Explanation

Question 105 of 124

1

Customers are always the group that requires the most attention from the firm.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 106 of 124

1

Integris Hospital in Oklahoma City has forecasted a growing population in the surrounding area, but is also facing a significant nursing shortage. Which aspect of the Marketing Environment is Integris most likely to be focused on?

Select one of the following:

  • Customers

  • Shareholders

  • Intermediaries

  • Employees

Explanation

Question 107 of 124

1

What are the two key words in the definition of the Marketing Environment?

Select one of the following:

  • None of these

  • Dynamic; Context

  • Operate; Compete

  • Competitors; decisions

Explanation

Question 108 of 124

1

What is defined as groups and organizations that can exert a direct influence on the firm’s ability to accomplish its goals?

Select one of the following:

  • Immediate Enviroment

  • Regulators

  • Competitors

  • External Enviroment

Explanation

Question 109 of 124

1

A firm should focus on creating a set of __________, ____________ exchanges with the environment

Select one of the following:

  • Immediate; external

  • Marketing; inexepensive

  • Sustainable; favorable

  • Competitive; analytical

Explanation

Question 110 of 124

1

Which of these is not an Intermediary in the Immediate Environment?

Select one of the following:

  • All of these are intermediaries

  • Retailers

  • Wholesalers

  • Creditors

Explanation

Question 111 of 124

1

The old CEO of Uber was fired by the board of directors of his company, and Uber therefore had a significant change in leadership of the firm. Which aspect of the Immediate Environment created this change?

Select one of the following:

  • Suppliers

  • Shareholders

  • Customers

  • Intermediaries

Explanation

Question 112 of 124

1

In the 2000s, Microsoft came out with the first portable music player – the Zune. When Apple came out with the iPod, consumers viewed it as an improved product when compared to the Zune. From Microsoft’s perspective, which actor in the Immediate Environment was most responsible for the change in their sales?

Select one of the following:

  • Employees

  • Shareholders

  • Intermediaries

  • Competitors

Explanation

Question 113 of 124

1

In 2011, Japan was hit with significant natural disasters. Japan is home to many of the supplier companies that car manufacturers depend on. From these manufacturers’ perspective, which actor in the Immediate Environment affected them the most?

Select one of the following:

  • Natural Disaster

  • Employees

  • Suppliers

  • Shareholders

Explanation

Question 114 of 124

1

The exchange between the firm and its employees consists of:

Select one of the following:

  • The employees’ time and skills; the firm’s money

  • The employees’ expertise; the firm’s education

  • None of these

  • The employees’ money; the firm’s time and skills

Explanation

Question 115 of 124

1

Extremism in politics has the ability to affect businesses in that country.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 116 of 124

1

Consumer values are moving towards environmental sustainability, and this sentiment has the ability to change how firms both produce products and dispose of waste.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 117 of 124

1

What is defined as climate, weather, and natural resources that affect human survival and economic activity?

Select one of the following:

  • Political/ Legal Enviroment

  • Social Enviroment

  • Economic Enviroment

  • Natural Enviroment

Explanation

Question 118 of 124

1

Which aspect of the External Environment is associated with raw materials that go into the production of products?

Select one of the following:

  • Economic Enviroment

  • Political/ Legal Environment

  • Natural Enviroment

  • Social Enviroment

Explanation

Question 119 of 124

1

What is defined as the general state of learning and innovation?

Select one of the following:

  • Economic Enviroment

  • Technological Enviroment

  • Political/Legal Enviroment

  • Social Enviroment

Explanation

Question 120 of 124

1

Environmental scanning is mainly concerned with looking for:

Select one of the following:

  • External opportunities and threats

  • Internal opportunities and threats

  • Internal strengths and weaknesses

  • External strengths and weaknesses

Explanation

Question 121 of 124

1

Companies must be _________ when scanning the environment for opportunities and threats.

Select one of the following:

  • Proactive

  • Reactive

  • Formal

  • Detailed

Explanation

Question 122 of 124

1

Environmental scanning must be done as formally as possible to get reliable information.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 123 of 124

1

Strategic Windows will be obvious to a firm when it is planning its strategy.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 124 of 124

1

What is defined as an organization’s appraisal of its internal Strengths and Weaknesses and its external Opportunities and Threats?

Select one of the following:

  • Competitor Evaluation

  • Environmental Scanning

  • Price Analysis

  • SWOT Analysis

Explanation

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