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Axiom42
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Practice exam for 200-120 exam Questions for the following Topics Topic 1: Operation of IP Data Networks Topic 2: LAN Switching Technologies Topic 3: IP Addressing (IPv4/IPv6)

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CCNA Part 1

Question 26 of 117 Question 1 of 117

1

Which layer of the OSI reference Model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Select one of the following:

  • Transport

  • Presentation

  • Application

  • Session

  • Network

Explanation

Question 14 of 117 Question 2 of 117

1

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose 3)

Select one or more of the following:

  • A modem terminates an analog local loop

  • A modem terminates a digital loop.

  • A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

  • A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

  • A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

  • A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop

Explanation

Question 61 of 117 Question 3 of 117

1

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

Select one of the following:

  • Transport

  • Session

  • Internet

  • Data-Link

  • Presentation

  • Application

Explanation

Question 56 of 117 Question 4 of 117

1

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

Select one of the following:

  • This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.

  • This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.

  • This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.

  • This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

  • This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.

Explanation

Question 80 of 117 Question 5 of 117

1

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

Select one of the following:

  • Physical

  • Transport

  • Data-Link

  • Session

  • Network

Explanation

Question 39 of 117 Question 6 of 117

1

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.

  • The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

  • The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.

  • The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.

  • Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.

Explanation

Question 90 of 117 Question 7 of 117

1

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.

  • Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.

  • In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.

  • If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

  • Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.

  • Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.

Explanation

Question 94 of 117 Question 8 of 117

1

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

Select one of the following:

  • Internet

  • Application

  • Transport

  • Network

Explanation

Question 16 of 117 Question 9 of 117

1

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • To allow communication with devices on a different network

  • To differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

  • To allow communication between different devices on the same network

  • To establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first

  • To uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

  • To allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Explanation

Question 102 of 117 Question 10 of 117

1

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • When they receive a special token

  • When the medium is idle

  • When there is a carrier

  • When the server grants access

  • When they detect no other devices are sending

Explanation

Question 9 of 117 Question 11 of 117

1

Which layer of the OSI reference Model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Select one of the following:

  • Network

  • Session

  • Application

  • Presentation

  • Transport

Explanation

Question 85 of 117 Question 12 of 117

1

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

Select one of the following:

  • Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.

  • Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.

  • Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.

  • Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Explanation

Question 15 of 117 Question 13 of 117

1

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

Select one of the following:

  • A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.

  • A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line.

  • A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.

  • A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line.

Explanation

Question 2 of 117 Question 14 of 117

1

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

Select one of the following:

  • Discarding

  • Forwarding

  • Learning

  • Listening

Explanation

Question 42 of 117 Question 15 of 117

1

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access VLAN 3 command in interface configuration mode?

Select one of the following:

  • The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

  • The port turns amber

  • The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.

  • The command is rejected

Explanation

Question 77 of 117 Question 16 of 117

1

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?

Select one of the following:

  • Lowest port MAC address

  • Port priority number and MAC address

  • VTP revision number

  • Path Cost

  • Highest port priority number

Explanation

Question 115 of 117 Question 17 of 117

1

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

Select one of the following:

  • The process of root bridge selection

  • An approach to wireless LAN communication

  • A method of VLAN trunking

  • The operation of VTP

  • VLAN pruning

Explanation

Question 101 of 117 Question 18 of 117

1

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

Select one of the following:

  • It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.

  • It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.

  • It creates a VLAN 999 interface.

  • It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Explanation

Question 91 of 117 Question 19 of 117

1

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • SAP

  • 802.1d

  • VTP

  • 802.1q

  • STP

Explanation

Question 88 of 117 Question 20 of 117

1

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

Select one of the following:

  • 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66

  • 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77

  • 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65

  • 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Explanation

Question 8 of 117 Question 21 of 117

1

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

Select one of the following:

  • An additional broadcast domain will be created.

  • More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.

  • IP address utilization will be more efficient.

  • More collision domains will be created.

Explanation

Question 98 of 117 Question 22 of 117

1

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

  • Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.

  • Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.

  • VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain.

  • A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.

  • A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure.

  • A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.

Explanation

Question 59 of 117 Question 23 of 117

1

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

Select one of the following:

  • 802.1Q

  • 802.3ad

  • 802.1D

  • 802.1w

Explanation

Question 4 of 117 Question 24 of 117

1

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • They can enhance network security.

  • They allow logical grouping of users by function.

  • They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.

  • They increase the size of collision domains.

  • They simplify switch administration.

  • They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.

Explanation

Question 25 of 117 Question 25 of 117

1

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Learning

  • Forwarding

  • Disabled

  • Listening

  • Discarding

Explanation

Question 18 of 117 Question 26 of 117

1

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • show interface switchport

  • Show ip interface brief

  • Show interface interface

  • Show interface trunk

  • Show interface vlan

Explanation

Question 12 of 117 Question 27 of 117

1

Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

Select one of the following:

  • spanning-tree backbonefast

  • spanning-tree uplinkfast

  • spanning-tree mode mst

  • spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

Explanation

Question 38 of 117 Question 28 of 117

1

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

Select one of the following:

  • Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.

  • A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

  • Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.

  • Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

  • A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.

Explanation

Question 109 of 117 Question 29 of 117

1

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • ISL

  • VTP

  • IGP

  • 802.1q

  • 802.3u

Explanation

Question 84 of 117 Question 30 of 117

1

Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 through 1002

  • 2 through 1001

  • 2 through 1005

  • 1 through 1001

Explanation

Question 87 of 117 Question 31 of 117

1

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

Select one of the following:

  • Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.

  • Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

  • Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.

  • When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.

Explanation

Question 22 of 117 Question 32 of 117

1

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

  • RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.

  • RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.

  • RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

  • RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

  • RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.

Explanation

Question 110 of 117 Question 33 of 117

1

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

Select one of the following:

  • Data Link

  • Network

  • Physical

  • Transport

Explanation

Question 69 of 117 Question 34 of 117

1

What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?

Select one of the following:

  • source MAC address

  • destination MAC address

  • destination IP address

  • destination port address

  • source IP address

  • source switch port

Explanation

Question 68 of 117 Question 35 of 117

1

Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • added security

  • dedicated bandwidth

  • contains collisions

  • provides segmentation

  • allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces

Explanation

Question 29 of 117 Question 36 of 117

1

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?

Select one of the following:

  • Ping address

  • ARP address

  • Traceroute address

  • Tracert address

Explanation

Question 82 of 117 Question 37 of 117

1

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.

  • It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.

  • It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.

  • It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.

  • It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.

Explanation

Question 65 of 117 Question 38 of 117

1

What is one benefit of PVST+?

Select one of the following:

  • PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

  • PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

  • PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.

  • PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.

Explanation

Question 60 of 117 Question 39 of 117

1

Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Auto

  • Desirable

  • Forwarding

  • On

  • Blocking

  • Transparent

Explanation

Question 74 of 117 Question 40 of 117

1

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

  • 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.

  • 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.

  • 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.

  • 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.

Explanation

Question 62 of 117 Question 41 of 117

1

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?

Select one of the following:

  • Redundant

  • Converged

  • Spanned

  • Provisioned

Explanation

Question 55 of 117 Question 42 of 117

1

What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Desireable

  • Client

  • On

  • Forwarding

  • Transparent

  • Auto

Explanation

Question 89 of 117 Question 43 of 117

1

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.

  • RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

  • RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.

  • RSTP defines no new port states.

  • RSTP defines new port roles.

Explanation

Question 52 of 117 Question 44 of 117

1

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?

Select one of the following:

  • The switch with the lowest MAC address

  • The switch with the lowest IP address

  • The switch with the highest MAC address

  • The switch with the highest IP address

Explanation

Question 35 of 117 Question 45 of 117

1

What are three advantages of VLANs (Choose Three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.

  • VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.

  • VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.

  • VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.

  • VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.

  • VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Explanation

Question 75 of 117 Question 46 of 117

1

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.
What will happen in this scenario?

Select one of the following:

  • VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

  • VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.

  • A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.

  • 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.

Explanation

Question 111 of 117 Question 47 of 117

1

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

Select one of the following:

  • 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252

  • 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252

  • 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248

  • 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

  • 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240

Explanation

Question 45 of 117 Question 48 of 117

1

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?

Select one of the following:

  • 172.16.16.0

  • 172.16.28.0

  • 172.16.24.0

  • 172.16.0.0

Explanation

Question 57 of 117 Question 49 of 117

1

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

Select one of the following:

  • ::1

  • 2000::/3

  • 0::/10

  • ::

Explanation

Question 99 of 117 Question 50 of 117

1

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • 10.188.31.0/27

  • 10.188.31.0/29

  • 10.188.31.0/28

  • 10.188.31.0/25

  • 10.188.31.0/26

Explanation

Question 63 of 117 Question 51 of 117

1

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Optional IPsec

  • Complicated header

  • Autoconfiguration

  • Checksum

  • No broadcasts

  • Plug-and-play

Explanation

Question 44 of 117 Question 52 of 117

1

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

Select one of the following:

  • IPv6 neighbor

  • IPv6 unicast-routing

  • IPv6 local

  • IPv6 host

Explanation

Question 108 of 117 Question 53 of 117

1

What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6?

Select one of the following:

  • Multicast

  • Unspecified address

  • Global Unicast

  • Anycast

Explanation

Question 43 of 117 Question 54 of 117

1

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

Select one of the following:

  • VAI

  • OUI

  • NIC

  • BIA

Explanation

Question 114 of 117 Question 55 of 117

1

Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?

Select one of the following:

  • 255.255.255.0

  • 255.255.254.0

  • 255.255.248.0

  • 255.255.252.0

Explanation

Question 72 of 117 Question 56 of 117

1

What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

Select one of the following:

  • 10.0.0.0/23

  • 10.0.0.0/21

  • 10.0.0.0/22

  • 10.0.0.0/24

Explanation

Question 113 of 117 Question 57 of 117

1

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Broadcast

  • Anycast

  • Multicast

  • Allcast

  • Podcast

Explanation

Question 86 of 117 Question 58 of 117

1

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

  • Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.

  • The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.

  • There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.

  • A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.

Explanation

Question 36 of 117 Question 59 of 117

1

A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

Select one of the following:

  • 192.168.1.56/27

  • 192.168.1.64/27

  • 192.168.1.64/26

  • 192.168.1.56/26

Explanation

Question 117 of 117 Question 60 of 117

1

The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?

Select one of the following:

  • 32

  • 30

  • 14

  • 16

  • 6

  • 8

Explanation

Question 47 of 117 Question 61 of 117

1

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

Select one of the following:

  • The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.

  • Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.

  • A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

  • Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.

Explanation

Question 20 of 117 Question 62 of 117

1

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme?
(Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Efficient utilization of MAC addresses

  • Dedicated communications between devices

  • Auto-negotiation of media rates

  • Ease of management and troubleshooting

  • Reduces routing table entries

Explanation

Question 71 of 117 Question 63 of 117

1

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address
B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

Select one of the following:

  • B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72

  • B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

  • B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72

  • B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72

Explanation

Question 23 of 117 Question 64 of 117

1

All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1

  • The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1

  • The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.

  • The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.

  • The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.

  • The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.

Explanation

Question 70 of 117 Question 65 of 117

1

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

  • Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

  • If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the
    interface.

  • Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.

  • Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.

Explanation

Question 41 of 117 Question 66 of 117

1

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are
two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Change of source address in the IPv6 header

  • Autoconfiguration

  • No broadcast

  • Telnet access does not require a password

  • NAT

  • Change of destination address in the IPv6 header

Explanation

Question 96 of 117 Question 67 of 117

1

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network
192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is
given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties
box for the sales server?

Select one of the following:

  • IP address: 192.168.20.30
    Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
    Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

  • IP address: 192.168.20.254
    Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
    Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1

  • IP address: 192.168.20.30
    Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
    Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17

  • IP address: 192.168.20.30
    Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
    Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

  • IP address: 192.168.20.14
    Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
    Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9

Explanation

Question 66 of 117 Question 68 of 117

1

Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

Select one of the following:

  • 255.255.255.0

  • 0.0.0.240

  • 255.255.255.240

  • 255.255.255.224

  • 255.255.255.252

Explanation

Question 106 of 117 Question 69 of 117

1

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

Select one of the following:

  • 16

  • 8

  • 4

  • 24

Explanation

Question 95 of 117 Question 70 of 117

1

What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an
IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

  • Configure IPv6 directly

  • Configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands

  • Enable dual-stack routing

  • Use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

  • Use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets

Explanation

Question 19 of 117 Question 71 of 117

1

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

Select one of the following:

  • By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it

  • By inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address

  • By appending 0xFF to the MAC address

  • By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE

  • By prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes

Explanation

Question 17 of 117 Question 72 of 117

1

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

Select one of the following:

  • The same address for multiple devices in the group

  • Delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

  • Any-to-many communication model

  • One-to-nearest communication model

  • A unique IPv6 address for each device in the group

  • One-to-many communication model

Explanation

Question 67 of 117 Question 73 of 117

1

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

Select one of the following:

  • 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1

  • 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a

  • FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4

  • 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

Explanation

Question 6 of 117 Question 74 of 117

1

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • 255.255.255.192

  • 255.255.255.0

  • 255.255.248.0

  • 255.255.252.0

  • 255.255.255.224

  • 255.255.255.128

Explanation

Question 92 of 117 Question 75 of 117

1

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

Select one of the following:

  • FF02::2

  • FF02::4

  • FF02::3

  • FF02::1

Explanation

Question 97 of 117 Question 76 of 117

1

Which IPv6 address is valid?

Select one of the following:

  • 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B

  • 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

  • 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B

  • 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B

Explanation

Question 64 of 117 Question 77 of 117

1

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?

Select one of the following:

  • ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

  • ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

  • ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64

  • ipv6 autoconfig

Explanation

Question 24 of 117 Question 78 of 117

1

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

Select one of the following:

  • FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69

  • FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69

  • FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69

  • FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69

Explanation

Question 58 of 117 Question 79 of 117

1

The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?

Select one of the following:

  • 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

  • 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

  • 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

  • 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

  • 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Explanation

Question 54 of 117 Question 80 of 117

1

What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.

  • Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.

  • Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

  • Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.

  • Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.

  • Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.

Explanation

Question 1 of 117 Question 81 of 117

1

Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

  • With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.

  • With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.

  • With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.

  • With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.

Explanation

Question 79 of 117 Question 82 of 117

1

Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

Select one of the following:

  • 253

  • 254

  • 255

  • 252

Explanation

Question 13 of 117 Question 83 of 117

1

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 31 of 117 Question 84 of 117

1

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

Select one of the following:

  • The MAC address of router interface e0

  • The MAC address of the server network interface

  • The MAC address of host A

  • The MAC address of router interface e1

Explanation

Question 3 of 117 Question 85 of 117

1

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The number of collision domains would decrease.

  • The number of broadcast domains would increase.

  • The number of collision domains would increase.

  • The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.

  • The number of collision domains would remain the same.

  • The number of broadcast domains would decrease.

Explanation

Question 21 of 117 Question 86 of 117

1

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The IP address of Host C

  • The IP address of the router's E0 interface

  • The MAC address of the router's E0 interface

  • The IP address of Switch 1

  • The MAC address of Switch 1

  • The MAC address of Host C

Explanation

Question 53 of 117 Question 87 of 117

1

Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Switch D, because it has the highest priority

  • Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch

  • Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address

  • Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch

  • Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address

  • Switch C, because it has the lowest priority

Explanation

Question 49 of 117 Question 88 of 117

1

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • There are two broadcast domains in the network.

  • There are five collision domains in the network.

  • There are four collision domains in the network.

  • There are six broadcast domains in the network.

  • There are seven collision domains in the network.

  • There are four broadcast domains in the network.

Explanation

Question 76 of 117 Question 89 of 117

1

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.

  • Router C will send a Router Selection message type.

  • Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

  • Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.

  • Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.

  • Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.

Explanation

Question 73 of 117 Question 90 of 117

1

Refer to the exhibit
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?.

Select one of the following:

  • The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.

  • The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.

  • The port is currently configured for access mode.

  • An IP address must be configured for the port.

  • VLANs have not been created yet.

Explanation

Question 116 of 117 Question 91 of 117

1

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

Select one of the following:

  • Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.

  • Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

  • Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.

  • Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.

Explanation

Question 50 of 117 Question 92 of 117

1

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to
accomplish this task?

Select one of the following:

  • SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
    SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
    SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

  • SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
    SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
    SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
    SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

  • SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
    SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
    SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
    SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

  • SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
    SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
    SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
    SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

  • SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
    SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
    SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
    SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Explanation

Question 33 of 117 Question 93 of 117

1

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

Select one of the following:

  • Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

  • VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.

  • The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.

  • The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.

  • The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.

Explanation

Question 27 of 117 Question 94 of 117

1

Which WAN protocol is being used?

Select one of the following:

  • Frame Relay

  • PPP

  • ATM

  • HDLC

Explanation

Question 28 of 117 Question 95 of 117

1

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

Select one of the following:

  • This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.

  • This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

  • This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.

  • This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Explanation

Question 37 of 117 Question 96 of 117

1

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

Select one of the following:

  • It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.

  • It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

  • It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.

  • It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.

Explanation

Question 104 of 117 Question 97 of 117

1

Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Switch C - Fa0/0

  • Switch B - Fa0/1

  • Switch A - Fa0/0

  • Switch C - Fa0/1

  • Switch B - Fa0/0

  • Switch A - Fa0/1

Explanation

Question 11 of 117 Question 98 of 117

1

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

Select one of the following:

  • The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.

  • SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
    SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

  • SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
    SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
    SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
    SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
    SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

  • SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
    SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access
    SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

Explanation

Question 7 of 117 Question 99 of 117

1

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2.
What causes this behavior?

Select one of the following:

  • Trunk mode mismatches

  • Native VLAN mismatches

  • VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

  • Allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination

Explanation

Question 10 of 117 Question 100 of 117

1

Which statement is true?

Select one of the following:

  • VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.

  • SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.

  • The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.

  • The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.

Explanation

Question 83 of 117 Question 101 of 117

1

Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

Select one of the following:

  • switching loops, STP

  • switching loops, VTP

  • routing loops, split horizon

  • routing loops, STP

  • switching loops, split horizon

  • routing loops, hold down timers

Explanation

Question 51 of 117 Question 102 of 117

1

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.

  • The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

  • Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.

  • Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

  • Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.

  • Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.

Explanation

Question 105 of 117 Question 103 of 117

1

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated

  • SwitchB, Gi0/2, root

  • SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated

  • SwitchA, Fa0/1, root

  • SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

  • SwitchC, Fa0/2, root

Explanation

Question 40 of 117 Question 104 of 117

1

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

Select one of the following:

  • Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.

  • Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.

  • The switch interface connected to the router is down.

  • The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.

  • The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.

Explanation

Question 30 of 117 Question 105 of 117

1

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

Select one of the following:

  • Switch1

  • Switch4

  • Switch2

  • Switch3

Explanation

Question 100 of 117 Question 106 of 117

1

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

Select one of the following:

  • Twelve

  • Six

  • One

  • Two

Explanation

Question 112 of 117 Question 107 of 117

1

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • All designated ports are in a forwarding state.

  • The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.

  • This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

  • Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.

  • All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.

  • All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.

Explanation

Question 48 of 117 Question 108 of 117

1

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

Select one of the following:

  • Switch3, port Gi0/2

  • Switch3, port Gi0/1

  • Switch4, port fa0/11

  • Switch3, port fa0/12

  • Switch4, port fa0/2

  • Switch3, port fa0/1

Explanation

Question 32 of 117 Question 109 of 117

1

Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.

  • A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5.

  • FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.

  • Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.

  • FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.

  • Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.

Explanation

Question 34 of 117 Question 110 of 117

1

A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

Select one of the following:

  • Spanning-tree will need to be used.

  • The connection between switches should be a trunk.

  • The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

  • This design will function as intended.

  • The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Explanation

Question 78 of 117 Question 111 of 117

1

A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?

Select one of the following:

  • Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.

  • The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.

  • A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.

  • At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.

  • The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.

Explanation

Question 46 of 117 Question 112 of 117

1

Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be?

Select one of the following:

  • Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.

  • Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

  • Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

  • Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.

Explanation

Question 107 of 117 Question 113 of 117

1

All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Network A - 172.16.3.48/26

  • Link A - 172.16.3.40/30

  • Network A - 172.16.3.128/25

  • Link A - 172.16.3.0/30

  • Network A - 172.16.3.192/26

  • Link A - 172.16.3.112/30

Explanation

Question 93 of 117 Question 114 of 117

1

In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?

Select one of the following:

  • 172.16.0.0 /16

  • 172.32.0.0 /16

  • 172.32.0.0 /17

  • 172.16.0.0 /20

  • 172.64.0.0 /16

  • 172.16.0.0 /24

Explanation

Question 103 of 117 Question 115 of 117

1

What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

Select one of the following:

  • 172.1.4.0/25
    172.1.4.128/25
    172.1.5.0/24
    172.1.6.0/24
    172.1.7.0/24

  • 172.1.4.0/24
    172.1.5.0/24
    172.1.6.0/24
    172.1.7.0/24

  • 172.1.4.0/22

  • 172.1.0.0/22

  • 172.1.0.0/21

Explanation

Question 5 of 117 Question 116 of 117

1

A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78

  • host A IP address: 192.168.1.64

  • host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

  • host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129

  • host B IP address: 192.168.1.128

  • host A IP address: 192.168.1.79

Explanation

Question 81 of 117 Question 117 of 117

1

Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?

Select one of the following:

  • 172.16.0.0/18

  • 172.16.0.0./16

  • 172.16.0.0./20

  • 172.16.0.0./21

Explanation