Stanislaz Yanishlaz
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MEP Quiz on MEP EXAM PAPER, created by Stanislaz Yanishlaz on 05/10/2017.

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Stanislaz Yanishlaz
Created by Stanislaz Yanishlaz over 7 years ago
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MEP EXAM PAPER

Question 1 of 44

1

In an aircraft with normally aspirated engines, critical speed:

Select one of the following:

  • will decrease as altitude increases

  • will decrease as height decreases

  • will increase as altitude increases

  • will not change with change in altitude

Explanation

Question 2 of 44

1

If an engine fails during take-off before Vr, the correct action is to:

Select one of the following:

  • Maintain directional control and continue the take-off while shutting down the failed engine

  • Maintain directional control, reduce drag to a minimum and continue accelerating to Vr

  • Maintain directional control, close both throttles and bring the aircraft to a stop on the runway

  • Maintain directional control, identify and remedy the cause of the failure

Explanation

Question 3 of 44

1

The rudder side force during asymmetric flight with the wings level and in balanced flight:

Select one of the following:

  • can be reduced by banking 5° towards the failed engine

  • balances fuselage side force

  • creates a rudder yawing moment that opposes the asymmetric thrust and drag yawing moment

  • balances asymmetric thrust

Explanation

Question 4 of 44

1

If an engine fails below ACA during a normal approach:

Select one of the following:

  • Continue the approach whilst carrying out the restart drills

  • Go around immediately and ascertain the cause of the failure prior to any subsequent approach

  • Continue the approach whilst completing the feathering drills for the failed engine

  • Continue the approach and land

Explanation

Question 5 of 44

1

The airspeed instrument markings for a light twin are Blue Line (Vyse) and Red Line (Vmca)

Select one of the following:

  • These speeds only apply to the aircraft at maximum all up weight

  • These speeds are applicable at all aircraft weights

  • These speeds are for the aircraft at an average all up weight

  • Vmca decreases with a reduction in all up weight

Explanation

Question 6 of 44

1

If the critical engine fails and a constant speed is maintained:

Select one of the following:

  • In comparison with a failure of the non-critical engine a smaller rudder input will be required to contract the yaw

  • The single engine performance will be better than when the non-critical engine has failed

  • A larger rudder input will be required to counter the yaw compared to that required with a failure of the non-critical engine

  • There will be no difference in rudder input so long as the aircraft is in balanced flight

Explanation

Question 7 of 44

1

Which of the following answers is correct with regard to the correct application of bank following an engine failure:

Select one of the following:

  • Up to 5° bank can be applied towards the live engine when high power is being used and the airspeed is low

  • Bank can only be used instead of rudder to maintain straight flight

  • Up to 5° bank can be applied towards the failed engine when high power is being used and the airspeed is low

  • Up to 5° bank can only be applied towards the live engine when high power is being used and directional control has been lost

Explanation

Question 8 of 44

1

When an engine fails, the decision to feather should be made promptly because:

Select one of the following:

  • Feathering requires engine oil pressure which is reducing rapidly

  • If the RPM drops below 1300 RPM feathering may not be possible

  • The loss of oil pressure may cause the propeller to overspeed

  • If the RPM falls below 1300 RPM the unfeathering accumulator will attempt to unfeather the propeller

Explanation

Question 9 of 44

1

After an engine failure and rudder had been applied to balance the aircraft, it will still be necessary to prevent roll with aileron because:

Select one of the following:

  • The secondary effect of rudder is roll

  • The aircraft is sideslipping slightly

  • There is a difference in the slipstream over the wings causing a difference in lift

  • The aircraft is slowing down and the rudder is becoming less effective

Explanation

Question 10 of 44

1

Which statement is true concerning the loss of the critical engine?

Select one of the following:

  • It will have no effect on performance provided the aircraft is in balanced flight

  • Performance will be worse than with the failure of the non-critical engine

  • Critical speed will be lower since the thrust line of the critical engine is closer to the fuselage

  • Performance will be better than with the failure of the non-critical engine

Explanation

Question 11 of 44

1

When closing the throttle of the live engine during an asymmetric landing:

Select one of the following:

  • Any yaw will be due to crosswind

  • The aircraft will yaw towards the live engine

  • There will be no yaw provided the rudder trim is neutral

  • The aircraft will yaw towards the dead engine

Explanation

Question 12 of 44

1

Which of the following statements is most correct in relation to the fuselage side force in controlled asymmetric flight?

Select one of the following:

  • With 5° bank towards the live engine, the side forces can be eliminated, however the ball will not be central

  • The residual side force cannot be eliminated

  • When sufficient rudder is used to maintain a constant heading, the side forces will be balanced and the longitudinal axis will be aligned with the flight path

  • The side force will be eliminated when rudder is used to prevent yaw and the wings level

Explanation

Question 13 of 44

1

The effectiveness of the rudder during asymmetric flight:

Select one of the following:

  • Increases if power is increased

  • Increases with an aft C of G

  • Increases with 5° bank applied towards the dead engine

  • Increases with a forward C of G

Explanation

Question 14 of 44

1

During an engine failure in the cruise, which is the correct action?

Select one of the following:

  • The wings should be levelled using the ailerons then sufficient rudder applied to prevent yaw and back pressure applied

  • Rudder should be applied to stop any yaw, ailerons used to select and keep the wings level and enough back pressure applied to maintain the attitude

  • Initially monitor the engine instruments to see which engine has failed before applying any control inputs

  • Select maximum continuous power then apply the controls as in answer B

Explanation

Question 15 of 44

1

In cruise flight if the left engine fails:

Select one of the following:

  • In a turn to the right the aircraft will yaw and roll rapidly to the left and enter a spiral dive

  • The slip ball will move out to the left and indicate which rudder should be applied

  • In a turn to the left the aircraft will yaw and roll rapidly to the left and enter a spiral dive

  • In a turn it is important to roll the wings level before applying any other control inputs

Explanation

Question 16 of 44

1

If an engine fails during the climb:

Select one of the following:

  • Half the power and half the performance are lost

  • The loss of performance will depend on whether or not it is the critical engine that has failed

  • Half the power and up to 90% of the performance will be lost

  • The rate of climb must be reduced in order to maintain the performance

Explanation

Question 17 of 44

1

The criteria used to determine Vmca are:

Select one of the following:

  • Failure of the critical engine and its propeller windmilling, engine controls set at take-off power, most forward allowable center of gravity at maximum allowable take-off weight

  • Failure of the critical engine, engine controls set at take-off power, rear most allowable center of gravity at maximum allowable take-off weight

  • Failure of the critical engine and its propeller windmilling, engine controls set for full power, rear most allowable center of gravity, maximum take-off weight, gear and flaps at take-off setting and a maximum of 5° bank towards the live engine

  • Failure of the critical engine and its propeller windmilling, engine controls set for full power, rear most allowable center of gravity at maximum allowable take-off weight, gear and flaps in the take off setting

Explanation

Question 18 of 44

1

The critical speed of the DA 42 will reduce:

Select one of the following:

  • If power is reduced

  • When APP flaps are selected

  • When the non-critical engine has failed

  • All answers are correct

Explanation

Question 19 of 44

1

The centrifugal latch in the CSU is to:

Select one of the following:

  • Prevent the propeller from fining off so much that it could over speed

  • Prevent the propeller from being feathered at RPMs above 1300

  • Prevent the propeller from being feathered if the RPM is below 1200

  • Prevent the propeller from being feathered at RPMs below 1300

Explanation

Question 20 of 44

1

Four factors that affect Critical Speed are:

Select one of the following:

  • Drag, power output of the good engine, bank, critical engine

  • Thrust, bank, critical engine, propeller feathered

  • Thrust, gear down, critical engine, propeller feathered

  • Flaps, drag, feathered propeller, bank

Explanation

Question 21 of 44

1

Why is there a two minute limit on starter assisted restart when the engine has been shut down?

Select one of the following:

  • In order not to shock load the engine after it has cooled

  • To ensure that the aircraft does not drift down to below 3000 feet agl

  • Because the engine will cool and the glow plugs are inhibited by the left squat switch

  • Because the engine will cool and the glow plugs are inhibited by the right squat switch

Explanation

Question 22 of 44

1

What are the airspeed limits for a windmilling restart?

Select one of the following:

  • 125 to 145 knots

  • Above 100 knots

  • 113 to 133 knots

  • 118 to 156 knots

Explanation

Question 23 of 44

1

Can the Yaw Damper be used without using the autopilot?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes

  • No

  • Only below 120 knots

  • Only above 800 feet

Explanation

Question 24 of 44

1

What actions should you take in the event of a failure of the PFD in VMC conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • Divert as soon as possible

  • Use the standby instruments

  • Press the reversionary Mode button on the audio panel

  • Both A and C are correct

Explanation

Question 25 of 44

1

When Flight Level Change is selected on the autopilot control panel, pressing the DOWN button will:

Select one of the following:

  • Cause the aircraft to descend at a higher speed

  • Cause the aircraft to increase the rate of descent

  • Cause the descent speed to decrease

  • Decrease the selected level off altitude

Explanation

Question 26 of 44

1

When Crossfeed is selected, where does the excess fuel go?

Select one of the following:

  • To the side that is being cross fed

  • There is no excess fuel

  • To the auxiliary tanks

  • Back to the tank it came from

Explanation

Question 27 of 44

1

The Emergency Battery provides power for:

Select one of the following:

  • The ECU's in the event of a total electrical failure

  • The Standby AI and floodlights

  • The left main bus and right man bus

  • The right main bus only

Explanation

Question 28 of 44

1

What precaution must be taken when using the autopilot in icing conditions

Select one of the following:

  • It must never be used

  • It can only be used in the cruise

  • It must be disconnected about every 15 minutes to check for out of trim stick force

  • The Yaw Damper must be switched off

Explanation

Question 29 of 44

1

What effect does having the air conditioning on have on aircraft performance?

Select one of the following:

  • ROC is reduced by 70'/minute and there is a 2% reduction in cruise IAS

  • ROC is reduced by 70'/minute and there is a 5% reduction in cruise IAS

  • There is no change because the system is self-contained

  • There is no change to the ROC but cruise speed is reduced by 5%

Explanation

Question 30 of 44

1

When the Comm 1/2 Switch is pressed:

Select one of the following:

  • Both pilots can talk and receive on both radios

  • Both pilots can talk and receive on both radios but only the left seat occupant can hear navaid identification

  • The left seat pilot can talk and receive on Comm 1 only and hear navaid identification. The right seat occupant can only talk and receive on Comm 2

  • The left seat pilot can talk and receive on Comm 1 only. The right seat occupant can only talk and receive on Comm 2 and hear navaid identification.

Explanation

Question 31 of 44

1

When the gear test button is pressed, what indications should you see?

Select one of the following:

  • Three green lights, the gear warning light and the L/R Engine Fire warnings

  • The red gear warning light

  • The red gear warning light and three greens if it is pressed when the gear is UP

  • The gear warning light and the L/R Engine Fire warnings

Explanation

Question 32 of 44

1

The variable elevator backstop limits rearward stick movement when:

Select one of the following:

  • Either throttle is more than 20%

  • Both throttles are less than 20%

  • Either throttle is less than 20%

  • Both throttles are more than 20%

Explanation

Question 33 of 44

1

What is the maximum power that can be set in order to warm the engines up quickly?

Select one of the following:

  • Cannot exceed idling RPM

  • 15%

  • 50%

  • 25%

Explanation

Question 34 of 44

1

The right hand squat switch controls electrical power to:

Select one of the following:

  • Undercarriage motor, Glow plugs, ECU test, Stall warner heating

  • TAS voice warning (if fitted), Glow plugs, ECU test, Stall warner heating

  • TAS voice warning (if fitted), Glow plugs, ECU test, Undercarriage motor

  • ECU test, TAS voice warning (if fitted), Undercarriage motor, Stall warner heating

Explanation

Question 35 of 44

1

What are the maximum take-off and landing weights?

Select one of the following:

  • 1900 kg and 1765 kg respectively

  • 1805 kg and 1510 kg respectively

  • 1900 kg and 1805 kg respectively

  • 1765 kg and 1510 kg respectively

Explanation

Question 36 of 44

1

How many fuel drains are there on each side?

Select one of the following:

  • One

  • Two

  • Three

  • Five

Explanation

Question 37 of 44

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

What are the remaining system operating times after first annunciation of the DEICE LVL LO warning?
NORM:
HIGH:

Explanation

Question 38 of 44

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

How many de-icing fluid is left in the tank when the DEICE LVL LO caution alert appears?

Explanation

Question 39 of 44

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

What is the operational time of the Ice Protection System at full capacity for each mode?
NORM:
HIGH:
MAX:

Explanation

Question 40 of 44

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

What is the RPM limitation for Maximum overspeed condition?

Explanation

Question 41 of 44

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

What is the speed range for continuous operation in icing conditions?

Explanation

Question 42 of 44

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

What is the reference speed (Vref) for an approach in icing conditions?

Explanation

Question 43 of 44

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

What are the speeds for Vfe APP, Vfe LDG, VLO gear extension, VLO gear retraction: KIAS

Explanation

Question 44 of 44

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The failure of the critical engine results in: Movement of the closer to the of the aircraft

Explanation