Stewart Thompson
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Quiz on Safe Meds Practice Quiz, created by Stewart Thompson on 07/10/2017.

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Stewart Thompson
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Safe Meds Practice Quiz

Safe Meds Practice Quiz

Question 1 of 73

1

What does TGA stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Therapeutic goods association

  • Therapeutic goods administration

  • Therapeutic goods analgesics

  • The Good administration

Explanation

Question 2 of 73

1

What is the TGA responsible for?

Select one of the following:

  • Evaluating, assessing and monitoring therapeutic goods in Australia

  • Prescribing medications to patients

  • Educating patients about the safety of drugs

  • Checking the validity of drug orders

Explanation

Question 3 of 73

1

Schedule 2 drugs are:

Select one of the following:

  • Pharmacist only e.g. panadiene

  • Controlled drugs e.g. morphine

  • Pharmacy medicine e.g. paracetamol

  • Prescription only e.g. antibiotics

Explanation

Question 4 of 73

1

Schedule 4 drugs are:

Select one of the following:

  • Pharmacist only e.g. panadiene

  • Prescription only e.g. antibiotics & hypertensive drugs

  • Controlled drugs e.g. morphine & endone

  • Pharmacy medicine e.g. paracetamol & ibuprofen

Explanation

Question 5 of 73

1

What are some considerations involved with schedule 8 - controlled drugs? (2 answers)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Can be administered by 1 RN

  • Are kept in an unlocked cupboard

  • Administration needs 2 RNs

  • Need to be kept in a locked cupboard

Explanation

Question 6 of 73

1

Generally schedule 3,4 & 8 medication are not advertised in the popular media except inhaled corticosteroids, vaginal anti-infective agents and nicotine to treat smoking dependence.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 7 of 73

1

What are the 6 rights of drug administration?

Select one of the following:

  • Right patient, right drug, right dose, right time, right route, right to refuse

  • Right patient, right drug, right time, right dose, right hand, right to restrain

  • Right colour, right flavour, right drug, right dose, right patient, right route

  • Right patient, right drug, right dose, right time, right route

Explanation

Question 8 of 73

1

Which of the following are necessary for a medication order to be valid? (Pick 5 answers)

Select one or more of the following:

  • It needs to be dated

  • Is the drug name there?

  • Does NOT need to be legible

  • Signed by a nurse

  • Dose and unit of measurement need to be present

  • Route needs to be documented

  • Signed by a doctor, nurse practitioner or dentist

Explanation

Question 9 of 73

1

Which answer is not correct regarding roles and responsibilities of the healthcare team when administering drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • Doctor can diagnose and prescribe

  • Nurse can Prescribe and dispense

  • Nurse can assess, administer and evaluate

  • Pharmacist can advise and dispense

Explanation

Question 10 of 73

1

The generic name is also called the trade name, when drug companies market a drug they select a name and copyright it.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 73

1

The Brand name is the official drug name, approved name given by the manufacturer and local authority.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 73

1

Enteric coated preparations are not:

Select one of the following:

  • designed so disintegration occurs in the intestines rather than the stomach

  • Abbreviated EC on the container

  • to be crushed

Explanation

Question 13 of 73

1

Capsules can be either Hard gelatine capsules containing a drug as a solid, or soft gelatine capsules which can be opened and are useful for liquids drugs, or those that do not dissolve easily in water

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 73

1

What type of drug form is released slowly in the GIT and consists of layers of a drug enclosed in successive layers of inert coating?

Select one of the following:

  • Controlled release

  • Capsules

  • enteric coated preparations

  • Sustained/slow release

Explanation

Question 15 of 73

1

what type of drug has a semi permeable membrane coating, and can end up in faeces as a "ghost tablet"

Select one of the following:

  • Oral liquids

  • Controlled release tablets

  • topical preparations

  • Enteric coated preparations

Explanation

Question 16 of 73

1

A nicotine patch would be considered a(n)

Select one of the following:

  • oral liquid

  • Topical preparation

  • Capsule

  • Ointment

Explanation

Question 17 of 73

1

Linctus - is a syrup specially formulated for coughs

Elixers - is an alcoholic solution that is used when the required drug is water insoluble

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 73

1

Intradermal, subcutaneous, IM, IV, intraarterial & intrathecal are all what forms of administration?

Select one of the following:

  • Enteral

  • Parenteral

  • Transdermal

  • Gastro-intestinal

Explanation

Question 19 of 73

1

Pharmacodynamics is:

Select one of the following:

  • What the body does to the drug

  • What the drug does to the body

  • How the drug is altered as it travels through the body

Explanation

Question 20 of 73

1

Pharmacokinetics is:

Select one of the following:

  • What the drug does to the body

  • What the body does to the drug

  • the integration at a molecular level - between the drug molecules and the target cell, receptor where it will stimulate or inhibit the natural chemicals of the body

  • The drugs interaction with structural proteins

Explanation

Question 21 of 73

1

what is not 1 of the 4 aspects of pharmacokinetics:

Select one of the following:

  • Absorption - movement of drug molecules into the body from the site of administration

  • Distribution - the drug enters the bloodstream, and travels to the site of action, will be improved if the drug binds to albumin + globulins in the blood.

  • Disruption to the cellular membrane

  • Metabolism - alters chemical properties of drugs making them less lipophilic (fat soluble) and more readily excreted

  • Excretion - Excreted from the system in various ways e.g. urine, saliva, sweat, tears, breathing

Explanation

Question 22 of 73

1

Factors affecting;

absorption - chemical nature of the drug, pH of the stomach, Surface area available for absorption & route/solubility of drug

Distribution - lipid solubility

Metabolism - Hepatic 1st pass effect (oral meds)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 73

1

What is the term for the fraction of the drug available to the systemic circulation, and is measured on a scale of 0 - 1
(1=100%)

Select one of the following:

  • Half life

  • Absorption percentage

  • Bioavailability

  • Hepatic first pass effect

Explanation

Question 24 of 73

1

Oral meds have a bioavailability of 1 or 100% and IV drugs have a bioavailability of <1

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 73

1

The following are listed in order of ________ to ________ regarding Rate of absorption

liquids
syrups
parenteral
suspensions
powders
capsules
tablets
coated tablets
enteric coated tablets

Select one of the following:

  • Fasted - Slowest

  • Slowest - Fasted

Explanation

Question 26 of 73

1

Where is the major site of metabolism?

Select one of the following:

  • Brain

  • Anus

  • Spleen

  • Liver

Explanation

Question 27 of 73

1

What is not efficient as a barrier to drugs, and may result in congenital abnormalities?

Select one of the following:

  • Blood brain barrier

  • Semipermeable membrane

  • Placental Barrier

  • Swiss cheese model

Explanation

Question 28 of 73

1

Metabolism occurs in 2 phases

Phase 1 - enzymes modify chemical structure of the drug

Phase 2 - the phase 1 metabolite is joined (conjugated) with another molecule to render the product soluble for excretion

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 29 of 73

1

The hepatic first pass effect

Select one of the following:

  • Removes the drug entirely

  • Increased bioavailability

  • Does not remove entire drug but it does reduce the bioavailability

  • recruits the cremaster muscles to aid in the metabolism of drugs

Explanation

Question 30 of 73

1

The kidneys, GIT as well as saliva, sweat, tears, breath and breast milk are all sites of excretion (drug clearance)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 73

1

If the blood concentration of a drug is 1000mg/L at a 12pm, and this level drops to 500mg/L by 4pm. What is the half life?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 hours

  • 4 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 8 hours

Explanation

Question 32 of 73

1

An antihypertensive medication reducing a patients blood pressure too much and causing hypotension would be an example of a drug having:

Select one of the following:

  • The correct response

  • Too little response

  • Too much response

  • a nightmare

Explanation

Question 33 of 73

1

The use of many drugs at once, the use of drugs with no apparent indication, & the duplication of medication taking would indicate _________, which presents a major health care risk to patients

Select one of the following:

  • Polydrugs

  • Polydynamesis

  • Polysynthesis

  • Polypharmacy

Explanation

Question 34 of 73

1

The systems approach to errors identifies that : (pick 3 answers)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Errors occur just because people are dumb

  • Humans are fallable (capable of making mistakes)

  • Errors are deemed as causes not consequences

  • errors are deemed as consequences not causes

  • Investigations are needed to seek new ways of completing tasks.

Explanation

Question 35 of 73

1

The Swiss cheese model identifies that there are holes in the layers of defence which include:

Select one of the following:

  • Active conditions & Latent failures

  • Active failures & Latent conditions

Explanation

Question 36 of 73

1

Active failures may lie dormant for some time before combining with a latent condition to create an opportunity for error and if identified they can be remedied before these errors occur (e.g. staffing issues, inexperience or inadequate equipment/training)

Latent conditions are unsafe acts committed by people in direct contact with the patient (e.g. slips, trips, lapses, fumbles, mistakes & procedural violations)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 37 of 73

1

The ANS (autonomic nervous system) is divided in the Sympathetic nervous system (rest & digest) and the Parasympathetic nervous system (fight or flight).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 38 of 73

1

The sympathetic nervous system has short pre-ganglionic neurons that release _______ and long post-ganglionic neurons that release _____________ or noradrenaline onto the effector organ. These nerves are adrenergic

Select one of the following:

  • Adrenaline - Renin

  • Acetylcholine - Adrenaline

  • Adrenaline - Acetylcholine

  • Renin - Angiotensin II

Explanation

Question 39 of 73

1

The parasympathetic nervous system has long pre-ganglionic neurons that release ___________ and short post-ganglionic neurons that release ___________ . These nerves are cholinergic

Select one of the following:

  • Acetylcholine - Acetylcholine

  • Adrenaline - Adrenaline

  • Adrenaline - Acetylcholine

  • Acetylcholine - Adrenaline

Explanation

Question 40 of 73

1

The sympathetic nervous system dilates pupils, inhibits flow of saliva, accelerates heartbeat, dilates bronchi, inhibits peristalsis + gastric secretions, coverts glycogen to glucose (glycolysis), releases adrenaline + noradrenaline, and inhibits bladder contractions.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 41 of 73

1

The parasympathetic nervous system stimulates flow of saliva, slows HR, contracts bronchi, stimulates peristalsis + gastric secretions, stimulates release of bile, contracts pupils and contracts the bladder.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 73

1

Sympatholytics are Agonist drugs that will stimulate and induce the effects of fight or flight

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 43 of 73

1

Sympathomimetics are Antagonist drugs that will inhibit sympathetic stimulation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 73

1

Select the adrenergic receptors:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Nicotinic (responds to stimulation by nicotine, located in smooth + cardiac muscle as well as neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle)

  • Alpha 1 (abundant on major arteries, associated with vasoconstrictive responses and increased BP)

  • Muscarinic (acetylcholine receptors, acting as the main end-receptor stimulated by acetylcholine released from postganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic nervous system.)

  • Beta 2 (abundant on bronchiolar smooth muscle and blood vessels within skeletal muscle, heart, brain and kidneys. Associated with bronchodilation and increased tissue perfusion)

  • Beta 1 (located on myocardium, smooth muscles, GIT sphincters and renal arterioles. Associated with rate/force of heart contraction)

  • Alpha 2 (Abundant on presynaptic terminal, involved with autoregulation of synaptic activity)

Explanation

Question 45 of 73

1

The roles of ___________ receptors include vasoconstriction (increased BP) , pupil dilation + contraction, urinary retention, glucose release, generalised sweating & GIT constriction (decrease motility).

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha 2

  • Alpha 1

  • Beta 1

  • Beta 2

Explanation

Question 46 of 73

1

The role of __________ receptors are bronchodilation, vasodilation, insulin release and decreased GIT motility.

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha 1

  • Alpha 2

  • Beta 1

  • Beta 2

Explanation

Question 47 of 73

1

The role of _________ receptors are increased HR, increased contractility of the heart, increased atrioventricular conduction, increased renin release and vasoconstriction.

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha 1

  • Alpha 2

  • Beta 1

  • Beta 2

Explanation

Question 48 of 73

1

Alpha 1 ________ drugs would cause ____________ , increased BP, pupil dilation, glucose release, sweating and reduced GIT motility.

Select one of the following:

  • Antagonist - vasodilation

  • cholinergic - vasoconstriction

  • agonist - vasoconstriction

  • blocker - vasoconstriction

Explanation

Question 49 of 73

1

Alpha 1 __________ drugs would cause __________ , reduced BP, pupil constriction, impotence, increased urination and increased GIT motility.

Select one of the following:

  • Agonist - vasoconstriction

  • Antagonist - vasoconstriction

  • Antagonist - vasodilation

  • Agonist - vasodilation

Explanation

Question 50 of 73

1

Alpha 2 agonist drugs can be used to treat ____________

Select one of the following:

  • Hypertension

  • Hyperglycaemia

  • Hypothyroidism

  • Diabetes mellitus

Explanation

Question 51 of 73

1

_________ agonist drugs would increase HR and CO, reduce GIT motility and stimulate the release of renin (increase blood flow and BP)

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha 1

  • Alpha 2

  • Beta 1

  • Beta 2

Explanation

Question 52 of 73

1

Select the incorrect statement from the following regarding phases of clinical trials:

Select one of the following:

  • Phase 1 clinical trials involve 20-80 health volunteers

  • Phase 2 clinical trials involve 100-150 volunteers with the targeted illness

  • Phase 3 clinical trials involve 1000-3000 volunteers with the targeted illness

  • Phase 4 clinical trial involves comparisons with other treatments and ongoing safety monitoring whilst out on the market.

  • Phase 1 clinical trials - drugs are tested on individuals from a lower socioeconomic background

Explanation

Question 53 of 73

1

__________ antagonist drugs (beta blockers) __________ HR, SV, and CO, increase GIT motility and inhibit renin release. Side effects can be dizziness, lethargy, insomnia, diarrhoea, bradycardia and hypotension.

Select one of the following:

  • Beta 2 - decrease

  • Alpha 1 - increase

  • Beta 1 - reduce

  • Beta 1 - increase

Explanation

Question 54 of 73

1

_______ agonist drugs cause _________ , an increase in skeletal muscle excitability (tremors), vasodilation, relaxation of the uterus, reduced bile secretion and increase glycogenolysis.

Select one of the following:

  • Beta 1 - vasoconstriction

  • Beta 2 - bronchodilation

  • Beta 1 - bronchodilation

  • Alpha 2 - bronchodilation

Explanation

Question 55 of 73

1

Ach (acetylcholine) is removed from the synaptic gap by an enzyme called ________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Acetylcholinesterase

  • Acetylcholinogen

  • Acetylcholinogenolysis

  • Acetylcholine converting enzyme

Explanation

Question 56 of 73

1

some side effects of Beta 2 agonist drugs include fine muscle tremors, nervousness, tachycardia, increased BGL + insulin levels and hypokalaemia (low k+)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 57 of 73

1

Nicotinic agonists increase the feeling of relaxation and well being, also increase skeletal muscle tone (tremors)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 58 of 73

1

What drug inhibits the breakdown of AcH and therefore enhances the effects of AcH at nicotinic and muscarinic receptors?

Select one of the following:

  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

  • Acetylcholinesterase agonists

  • Autocoids

  • Muscarinic agonists

Explanation

Question 59 of 73

1

I am classed as an autocoid, I am a locally acting substance, I am released and confined to the same tissue and I am found in high concentration in the lungs, skin, GIT and CNS. what am I?

Select one of the following:

  • Prostaglandin

  • White blood cell

  • a robot

  • Histamine

Explanation

Question 60 of 73

1

Histamines are released from ________ and ________ when an allergen, foreign body, or injury is encountered.

Select one of the following:

  • G cells - red blood cells

  • enteroendocrine cells - basophils

  • Mast cells - Basophils

  • Sail cells - neutrophils

Explanation

Question 61 of 73

1

Histamines play a vital role in allergic and inflammatory reactions, some effects can be anaphylaxis, stimulation of pain receptors (nociceptors), vasodilation, and increased capillary permeability (leads to swelling).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 62 of 73

1

1st generation anti-histamine drugs:

Select one of the following:

  • can cross the Blood brain barrier, causing drowsiness and possibly sedation.

  • can only cross the blood brain barrier in small amounts and are therefore not sedating

Explanation

Question 63 of 73

1

2nd generation anti-histamine drugs:

Select one of the following:

  • can only cross the blood brain barrier in small amounts and are therefore not sedating

  • can cross the blood brain barrier, causing drowsiness and sedation

Explanation

Question 64 of 73

1

___________ can reduce acid stimulation in the stomach so these are beneficial when treating __________ and GORD (gastro - oesophageal reflux disease)

Select one of the following:

  • H1 agonists - hypertension

  • H2 antagonists - Peptic ulcers

  • H3 antagonists - peptic ulcers

Explanation

Question 65 of 73

1

NSAIDs block the synthesis of _____________ by interfering with the ________ and _________ enzymes.

Select one of the following:

  • histamines - COX 3 - COX 4

  • Prostaglandins - DIX 1 - DIX 2

  • Prostaglandins - COX 1 - COX 2

  • Histamines - COX 1 - COX 2

Explanation

Question 66 of 73

1

Regarding Chemical mediator communication which answer is most correct:

Select one of the following:

  • Endocrine signalling - molecules travel from signalling cell through the bloodstream to the target cell

  • Paracrine signalling - Signalling cell and the target cell are close together

  • All of these

  • Autocrine signalling - Signalling and target cell are the same cell.

Explanation

Question 67 of 73

1

all of the following are non-specific COX inhibitors, except:

Select one of the following:

  • Aspirin

  • Ibuprofen

  • Diclofenac

  • Celecoxib

  • Indomethicin

Explanation

Question 68 of 73

1

Prostaglandins do not cause constriction of smooth muscle, vasodilation, aggregation of platelets, increased sensitivity of neurons to pain, the mediation of inflammation, fever (pyrogenic) or the inhibition of acid secretion in the stomach.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 69 of 73

1

Which of the following is not a cardiac medication (antihypertensive)

Select one of the following:

  • ACE inhibitors (suffix "pril")

  • Beta blockers (suffix "olol")

  • Calcium channel inhibitors

  • Anti diuretics

  • Loop diuretics

Explanation

Question 70 of 73

1

The inhibition of COX in peripheral tissue will reduce pain + inflammation. The inhibition of COX in the stomach removes the protective effect of PG (prostaglandin) and results in damage to the GI mucosa.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 71 of 73

1

When a patient is on multiple medications that affect the metabolism, synthesis or uptake of serotonin, what happens to serotonin levels.

Select one of the following:

  • Builds up

  • Breaks down

  • No issues

  • Patient gets cooked

Explanation

Question 72 of 73

1

Serotonin builds up in the neurons of the CNS and it can cause:

Select one of the following:

  • A change in mental status

  • Hypertension

  • Hyperpyrexia

  • All of these

  • Ataxia (lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements)

Explanation

Question 73 of 73

1

Noradrenaline, adrenaline and dopamine are known as catecholamines

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

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