Amy Goulden
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Practice Exam for Kinesiology 259 Physiology Section

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Amy Goulden
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KNES 259 - Lecture Midterm Practice Exam

Question 1 of 54

1

Enzymes...

Select one of the following:

  • lower activation energy and catalyze reactions

  • are affected by temperature and pH

  • can be regulated and inhibited

  • are necessary for most body reactions

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 2 of 54

1

Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during:

Select one of the following:

  • Mitosis

  • Meiosis 1

  • Meiosis 2

  • Cytokinesis

  • More than one is correct

Explanation

Question 3 of 54

1

A white blood cell that destroys bacteria and removes debris would contain many:

Select one of the following:

  • mitochondria

  • lysosomes

  • peroxisomes

  • golgi bodies

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 4 of 54

1

Which component is the LEAST involved in translation and protein production?

Select one of the following:

  • mRNA

  • DNA

  • tRNA

  • Ribosomes

  • Aminoacyl-tRNA-synthesase

Explanation

Question 5 of 54

1

What is NOT needed to initiate transcription?

Select one of the following:

  • TATA Box

  • Transcription factors

  • RNA Polymerase

  • 5' Cap and Poly-A-Tail

  • None of the above are needed

Explanation

Question 6 of 54

1

During aerobic respiration, energy (and electrons) are transferred downhill in which sequence?

Select one of the following:

  • glucose →pyruvate→ATP→oxygen

  • food→NADH→electron transport chain→ATP

  • food→glycolysis→ATP→NADH

  • glucose→ATP→electron transport chain→NADH

  • food→glycolysis→kreb’s cycle→electron transport chain→ATP

Explanation

Question 7 of 54

1

Choose the incorrect statement about DNA replication:

Select one of the following:

  • Ligase connects the okazaki fragments after they are formed

  • Okazaki fragments are formed on the leading strand

  • Primase lays down an RNA primer to initiate an okazaki fragment

  • Polymerase I replaces the RNA primer with DNA

  • none – all of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 8 of 54

1

During mitosis, which is not a part of prophase?

Select one of the following:

  • condensing of the chromatin

  • disintegration of the nuclear membrane

  • crossing over

  • movement of the centrioles

  • none –all of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 9 of 54

1

Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?

Select one of the following:

  • They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.

  • When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.

  • They are not subject to cell cycle controls.

  • All of the above

  • Only two of the above

Explanation

Question 10 of 54

1

Which of the following statements about genes is incorrect?

Select one of the following:

  • Genes correspond to segments of DNA

  • Many genes contain the information needed for cells to synthesize enzymes and other proteins

  • Under normal circumstances, each chromosome contains one gene

  • Genetic differences can result from changes in the DNA called mutations

  • None - all of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 11 of 54

1

Meiosis:

Select one of the following:

  • creates gametes for sexual reproduction

  • results in 2 daughter cells with half the DNA

  • doubles its DNA twice

  • two are correct

  • none of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 12 of 54

1

The strands that make up DNA are antiparallel. This means that

Select one of the following:

  • the twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands

  • the 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand

  • base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands

  • one strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged

  • more than one is correct

Explanation

Question 13 of 54

1

Choose an incorrect statement about cytokinesis

Select one of the following:

  • it involves actin and myosin

  • it occurs in telophase

  • it is the splitting of the cytoplasm

  • none - all of the above are correct

  • two of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 14 of 54

1

NADH

Select one of the following:

  • is produced in glycolysis

  • is produced in Kreb's cycle

  • shuttles ions to the ETC

  • all of the above

  • only two of the above

Explanation

Question 15 of 54

1

Nucleic acids are the building blocks for

Select one of the following:

  • proteins

  • fats

  • DNA

  • starch

  • more than one is correct

Explanation

Question 16 of 54

1

A red blood cell was placed in a salt solution and got swollen. The solution was:

Select one of the following:

  • hypertonic to the cell

  • isotonic to the cell

  • hypotonic to the cell

  • none of the above - osmosis is not invovlved

Explanation

Question 17 of 54

1

How does facilitated diffusion differ from active transport?

Select one of the following:

  • Only active transport rewuires energy

  • only active transprot binds the molecule in a protein receptor site

  • only active transport goes against the concentration gradient

  • all of the above

  • only two of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 18 of 54

1

The glycocalyx of the cell membrane may

Select one of the following:

  • play a role in cell communication

  • help with cell orientation

  • be a boundary for cell growth

  • all of the above

  • only two of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 19 of 54

1

Chemiosmosis involves the enzyme

Select one of the following:

  • hexokinase

  • phosphofructokinase

  • Na/K ATPase

  • ATP synthases

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 20 of 54

1

Allosteric control of cellular respiration involves the enzyme

Select one of the following:

  • hexokinase

  • pyruvate kinase

  • phosphofructokinase

  • aldolase

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 21 of 54

1

The final acceptor of electrons in oxidative phosphorylation is

Select one of the following:

  • oxygen

  • water

  • NADH

  • ATP

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 22 of 54

1

The first step in metabolism of fatty acids involves

Select one of the following:

  • glycolysis

  • beta oxidation

  • Kreb's cycle

  • oxidative phosphorylation

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 23 of 54

1

Which of the following is NOT a function of the membrane proteins?

Select one of the following:

  • serve as channels

  • membrane enxymes

  • serve as carriers

  • serve as receptor sites

  • none - all of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 24 of 54

1

An example of genetic co-dominance would be

Select one of the following:

  • skin colour

  • eye colour

  • blood types

  • freckles

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 25 of 54

1

Select the correct statement about diffusion:

Select one of the following:

  • it depends on random movement

  • it involves active forces

  • its rate increases as temperature decreases

  • The chemical gradient of a substance does not affect it

  • none of these statements are correct

Explanation

Question 26 of 54

1

A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will

Select one of the following:

  • hemolyze

  • crenate

  • lose water to solution

  • a and c

  • b and c

Explanation

Question 27 of 54

1

Which of the following mechanisms is not used to transport Na+ within the body cells?

Select one of the following:

  • channel transport

  • co-transport facilitated diffusion

  • active transport

  • facilitated diffusion - counter-transport

  • none - all of the above are used

Explanation

Question 28 of 54

1

What mechanisms are used to transport glucose in the cell?

Select one of the following:

  • channel mediated transport

  • diffusion

  • active transport

  • carrier-mediated diffusion

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 29 of 54

1

Which of the following is not associated with the cell cytosol?

Select one of the following:

  • synthesis of proteins for export from the cell

  • enzymatic regulation of glycolytic metabolism

  • presence of cytoskeletal elements

  • glycolysis

  • none - all are associated with the cytosol

Explanation

Question 30 of 54

1

Phospholipids

Select one of the following:

  • each consist of a polar, hydrophilic phosphate head and two non-polar, hydrophobic fatty acid tails

  • are aligned in a lipid bilayer in the plasma membrane

  • serve as carrier molecules for lipid-soluble substances

  • all of the above are correct

  • only two of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 31 of 54

1

During prophase 1, a homologous pair of chromosomes consists of

Select one of the following:

  • four chromosomes and two chromatids.

  • two chromosomes and two chromatids.

  • two chromosomes and four chromatids.

  • one chromosome and two chromatids.

  • one chromosome and four chromatids.

Explanation

Question 32 of 54

1

Okazaki fragments

Select one of the following:

  • are a type of Japanese sushi

  • are a new set of yoga movements

  • are an asian painting technique

  • are a replication segment on the lagging strand

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 33 of 54

1

In cell communication, which of the following would NOT be a second messenger?

Select one of the following:

  • calcium

  • calmodulin

  • cAMP

  • a protein hormore

  • none - all are considered second messengers

Explanation

Question 34 of 54

1

Plasma membranes are _____, which means that some chemicals move easily through plasma membrane while other chemicals do not.

Select one of the following:

  • selectively permeable

  • concentration graded

  • electrically graded

  • selectively soluble

  • electrical insulators

Explanation

Question 35 of 54

1

This is the transport process by which gases, like O2 and CO2, move through a membrane

Select one of the following:

  • osmosis

  • active transport

  • secondary active transport

  • simple diffusion

  • endocytosis

Explanation

Question 36 of 54

1

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have ________ picograms at the end of the S phase and ________ picograms at the end of G2

Select one of the following:

  • 8;8

  • 8;16

  • 16;8

  • 16;16

  • 16;32

Explanation

Question 37 of 54

1

If the non-diffusible solute concentration is greater inside of the cell than outside the cell, water will move by osmosis

Select one of the following:

  • into the cell

  • out of the cell

  • into and out of the cell at the same rate resulting in no net water movement

  • more information is needed

Explanation

Question 38 of 54

1

Microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules are all components of a cell's

Select one of the following:

  • cytoskeleton

  • nucleus

  • plasma membrane

  • flagella

  • ribosome

Explanation

Question 39 of 54

1

Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles modifies, sorts, and packages proteins destined for other regions of the cell or for export?

Select one of the following:

  • endoplasmic reticulum

  • golgi complex

  • peroxisomes

  • nucleus

  • proteasome

Explanation

Question 40 of 54

1

This portion of a DNA segment does not code for a protein

Select one of the following:

  • RNA

  • introns

  • exons

  • polyribosome

  • ribosome

Explanation

Question 41 of 54

1

During this phase of cell division, organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begins

Select one of the following:

  • interphase

  • prophase

  • metaphase

  • anaphase

  • telophase

Explanation

Question 42 of 54

1

null

Select one of the following:

  • choose this

  • do not choose this

Explanation

Question 43 of 54

1

The following is a particular sequence of base triplet on a DNA molecule: ATG. What is the corresponding codon for the mRNA?

Select one of the following:

  • TAC

  • GUA

  • GTA

  • CTA

  • UAC

Explanation

Question 44 of 54

1

The following is a particular sequence of codon on mRNA: ACU. What is the corresponding anti-codon for the tRNA?

Select one of the following:

  • UGA

  • UCA

  • TGA

  • TCA

  • AUC

Explanation

Question 45 of 54

1

Somatic cells contain only 1 nucleus. An exception to this would be

Select one of the following:

  • red blood cells

  • mucscle cells

  • neurons

  • connective tissue

  • two of the above are exceptions

Explanation

Question 46 of 54

1

In this type of transport process, a solute (e.g. glucose) binds to a specific carrier protein on one side of the membrane. This binding induces a conformational change in the carrier protein that results in the solute moving down its concentration gradient to the other side of the membrane

Select one of the following:

  • osmosis

  • active transport

  • secondary active transport

  • facilitated diffusion

  • endocytosis

Explanation

Question 47 of 54

1

A mutation in which part of a gene is likely to be most damaging to a cell?

Select one of the following:

  • intron

  • exon

  • telomere

  • Poly A tail

  • all would be equally damaging

Explanation

Question 48 of 54

1

Nucleotides are to ________________ as _____________________ are to proteins.

Select one of the following:

  • amino acids; polypeptides

  • DNA; amino acids

  • genes; enzymes

  • ribosomes; enzymes

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 49 of 54

1

In the absence of oxygen,

Select one of the following:

  • beta oxidation occurs

  • pyruvate converts to lactic acid

  • glycolysis stops

  • all of the above

  • two of the above

Explanation

Question 50 of 54

1

Choose the incorrect statement about DNA and DNA replication

Select one of the following:

  • cytosine always binds with guanine

  • the DNA strands are anti-parallel

  • in replication, the nucleotides are added to the daughter strand at the 5' end

  • the leading strand builds its daughter strand toward the replication fork

  • none - all of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 51 of 54

1

Epithelial tissue

Select one of the following:

  • is used as a covering of body surfaces

  • is used as a lining of body cavities and hollow organs

  • is used to form glands

  • usually has a free surface that interacts with the external environment

  • all of these answer choices are correct

Explanation

Question 52 of 54

1

Which type of epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin?

Select one of the following:

  • Simple squamous epithelium

  • Simple cuboidal epithelium

  • Stratified squamous epithelium

  • Stratified cuboidal epithelium

  • Simple columnar epithelium

Explanation

Question 53 of 54

1

In which of the following locations would you most likely find transitional epithelial cells?

Select one of the following:

  • Lining of the esophagus

  • Outer layer of the skin

  • Lining of the urinary bladder

  • On the surface of the heart

  • Covering skull bones

Explanation

Question 54 of 54

1

The main function of dense regular connective tissues is

Select one of the following:

  • storing minerals for later use

  • forming stroma of soft organs

  • reducing heat loss from the body surface

  • providing strong attachment with tendons and ligaments

  • providing elasticity to stretchable organs

Explanation

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