Sarthi Education NTSE Test 1

This is a timed quiz.

You have 2 hours 15 minutes to complete the 150 questions in this quiz.

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Question 1 of 150

When a constant force is applied to a body, it move with uniform?

Select one of the following:

acceleration
velocity
speed
momentum

Explanation

Question 2 of 150

The maximum loss in weight of an object takes place when

Select one of the following:

It is ¼th immersed in water
It is partially immersed in water
It is 1/3rd immersed in water
it is completely immersed in water

Explanation

Question 3 of 150

The orbits of planets around the sun are:

Select one of the following:

circular
parabolic
elliptical
straight

Explanation

Question 4 of 150

A coolie with a suitcase on his head is climbing up on a ladder with uniform speed. The work done by the coolie on the suitcase is:

Select one of the following:

positive
negative
0
undefined

Explanation

Question 5 of 150

If a stone of mass ‘m’ falls a vertical distance ‘d’ the decrease in gravitational potential energy is :

Select one of the following:

mg/d
mg/2d
mgd
None of these

Explanation

Question 6 of 150

A source of frequency 500 Hz emits waves of wavelength 0.2 m. How long does it take the wave to travel 300 m?

Select one of the following:

30s
300s
0.3s
3s

Explanation

Question 7 of 150

When sound waves travelling in air enter into water, the following remains constant:

Select one of the following:

amplitude
frequency
wavelength
velocity

Explanation

Question 8 of 150

A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if

Select one of the following:

both the length and the radius of the wire are halved.
both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled.
the radius of the wire is doubled.
the length of the wire is doubled.

Explanation

Question 9 of 150

You have a coil and a bar magnet. You can produce an electric current by moving

Select one of the following:

the magnet, but not the coil
the coil, but not the magnet
either the magnet or the coil
neither the magnet nor the coil

Explanation

Question 10 of 150

A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. the image formed will be

Select one of the following:

infinity
pole
focus
15cm behind the mirror

Explanation

Question 11 of 150

When a ray of light passes form an optically more dense medium to a less dense medium, it

Select one of the following:

goes undeviated
bends towards the normal
bends away from the normal
None of these

Explanation

Question 12 of 150

Hypermetropia is rectified by using

Select one of the following:

convex lens
concave lens
cylindrical lens
progressive lens

Explanation

Question 13 of 150

Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the Sun’s energy?

Select one of the following:

geothermal energy
wind energy
nuclear energy
bio-mass

Explanation

Question 14 of 150

Choose one correct answer from the given options.

Select one of the following:

III, IV, II, I
III, IV, I, II
III, II, IV, I
II, I, IV, III

Explanation

Question 15 of 150

When ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H2SO4 the product formed is -

Select one of the following:

C4H8
C2H4
C3H4
C2H2

Explanation

Question 16 of 150

Vinegar is -

Select one of the following:

5% aqueous solution of acetic acid
20% alcoholic solution of acetic acid
100% acetic acid
None of these

Explanation

Question 17 of 150

Glacial acetic acid is -

Select one of the following:

100% acetic acid free of water
solidified acetic acid
gaseous acetic acid
liquid acetic acid

Explanation

Question 18 of 150

Which metal has 2 electrons in the outermost orbit

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 150

Alkali metals in each period have

Select one of the following:

Smallest size
Lowest ionization potential
Highest ionization potential
Highest electronegativity

Explanation

Question 20 of 150

The long form of periodic table is based on

Select one of the following:

Shape of the atom
Mass of the atom
Atomic number of the atom
Electronegativity

Explanation

Question 21 of 150

How many possible values of I.E. can carbon have:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 22 of 150

Which of the following has maximum ionization potential

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 23 of 150

The compound that is not a salt is

Select one of the following:

NaCl
slaked lime
Zn(NO3)2
PbSO4

Explanation

Question 24 of 150

The weakest acid is

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 25 of 150

The salt that is acidic is

Select one of the following:

Na2SO4
NaHSO4
Na2SO3
K2SO4

Explanation

Question 26 of 150

The sum of pH and pOH is always 14 at

Select one of the following:

all temperatures
at 0°C
at 25°C
at 100°C

Explanation

Question 27 of 150

An oxidizing agent is a substance which can

Select one of the following:

Gain electrons
oxidizes other substance and gets reduced
Undergo decrease in the oxidation number of one of its atoms
Undergo any one of the above changes

Explanation

Question 28 of 150

In the reaction , 2FeCl3 + H2S --> 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + S

Select one of the following:

FeCl3 acts as an oxidizing agent
Both H2S and FeCl3 are oxidized
FeCl3 is oxidised with H2S is reduced
H2S acts as an oxidizing agent.

Explanation

Question 29 of 150

Roasting of an ore results in

Select one of the following:

conversion of ore to oxide
melts it
makes it conducting
makes it soluble

Explanation

Question 30 of 150

The percentage of metal in metallic oxide is 60, then its equivalent weight is : (where, M = Molecular Weight)

Select one of the following:

1/5*M
1/2*M
3/2*M
None of These

Explanation

Question 31 of 150

Which blood vessel takes blood away from the kidney?

Select one of the following:

Renal portal vein
Renal vein
Afferent arteriole
Efferent arteriole

Explanation

Question 32 of 150

Excretion commonly involves

Select one of the following:

Removal of all by-products during catabolism
Removal of by-products during anabolism
Removal of nitrogenous waste
All the above

Explanation

Question 33 of 150

The basic unit of a vertebrate kidney is the

Select one of the following:

Ureter
Nephron
malpighian tubule
islets of Langerhans

Explanation

Question 34 of 150

Glucose is converted to glycogen in the body by

Select one of the following:

Glucagon
Insulin
Thyroxin
Adrenalin

Explanation

Question 35 of 150

Which is not a ductless gland?

Select one of the following:

Testis
Ovary
Pancreas
Liver

Explanation

Question 36 of 150

Number of cranial nerves in man

Select one of the following:

6 pair
12 pair
16 pair
32 pair

Explanation

Question 37 of 150

Receptive part of carpel is:

Select one of the following:

Ovary
Stigma
Placenta
Style

Explanation

Question 38 of 150

Development of an ovum from an unfertilized ovum is called as:

Select one of the following:

Vegetative Propagation
Parthenogenesis
Asexual reproduction
Tissue culture

Explanation

Question 39 of 150

X and Y chromosomes are:

Select one of the following:

Only morphologically similar
Only morphologically dissimilar
Morphologically as well as genetically dissimilar
Morphologically similar, genetically dissimilar

Explanation

Question 40 of 150

Allele is the

Select one of the following:

alternate trait of a gene pair
total number of genes for a trait
total number of chromosomes of a haploid set
total number of genes present on a chromosome

Explanation

Question 41 of 150

Right to Interpret the Indian constitution lies with

Select one of the following:

The executive
The Legislature
The President
The Judiciary

Explanation

Question 42 of 150

Election photo Identity card in India is issued by:

Select one of the following:

Collector of the district
Superintendent of police
Chief Minister
Election Commission

Explanation

Question 43 of 150

A council consisting of several ward members, often called panch, and a president of sarpanch

Select one of the following:

Gram Sabha
Gram Panchayat
Gram Parishad
None of These

Explanation

Question 44 of 150

Which organ of U. N. responsible for maintaining world peace?

Select one of the following:

The U. N. Secretariat
International Court of Justice
The General Assembly
The Security Council

Explanation

Question 45 of 150

Which of the following rights has only been granted to the citizens of India and denied to non-citizens?

Select one of the following:

Equality before law
Freedom of speech, assembly and association
Right to constitutional remedies
Protection of life and personal liberty

Explanation

Question 46 of 150

Those communists who believe in the ideology of Mao, the leader of the Chinese revolution. They seek to overthrow the government through an armed revolution so as to establish the rule of the peasants and workers

Select one of the following:

CPI
CPL
Maoists
Leninists

Explanation

Question 47 of 150

It is likely that in non-democratic countries

Select one of the following:

workers are free to assert their rights
government tend to be transparent
leaders tend to be corrupt
government are responsive to people’s demand

Explanation

Question 48 of 150

Prime Minister is the most important political institution in the country. He

Select one of the following:

Does not have a fixed tenure
Is appointed by the President
Both (a) and (b)
None of these

Explanation

Question 49 of 150

Indian judiciary is independent with respect to

Select one of the following:

Appointment of judges
Removal of judges
Powers of judiciary
All of these

Explanation

Question 50 of 150

Which of the following right is available under the Indian Constitution?

Select one of the following:

Right to work
Right to privacy
Right to livelihood
Right to protect one’s culture

Explanation

Question 51 of 150

Which of the following is not a key feature of Indian Constitution?

Select one of the following:

Federation
Presidential form of government
Secularism
Separation of powers

Explanation

Question 52 of 150

In India, the laws apply in the same manner to all regardless of a person’s status. This is called

Select one of the following:

Lawmaking
Law for all
Rule of law
None of these

Explanation

Question 53 of 150

Right to Freedom includes

Select one of the following:

Freedom of speech
Freedom to travel in the country
Freedom to form associations
All of these

Explanation

Question 54 of 150

Who among the following gives recognition to political parties as ‘national parties’ or ‘regional parties’?

Select one of the following:

The president
The prime Minister
Parliament
Election commission of India

Explanation

Question 55 of 150

From which of the following do minerals come?

Select one of the following:

Core
Crust
Mantle
None of these

Explanation

Question 56 of 150

BHEL is an example of _________ sector industries.

Select one of the following:

Private
Public
Cooperative
Joint

Explanation

Question 57 of 150

Medha Patekar is the leader of

Select one of the following:

Chipko Movement
Women Movement
Narmada Bachao Andolan
Movement for the uplift of Scheduled castes and Scheduled Tribes

Explanation

Question 58 of 150

In this type of cultivation, parts of the forest are cut and burnt in rotation. Seeds are sown in the ashes after the first monsoon rains, and the crop is harvested by October-November.

Select one of the following:

Shifting cultivation
Commercial cultivation
Intensive cultivation
None of the above

Explanation

Question 59 of 150

The southernmost point of India that was submerged after the 26 December 2004 tsunami was :

Select one of the following:

Rajiv point
Indira point
India point
Andaman point

Explanation

Question 60 of 150

What is the length of the land boundary of India?

Select one of the following:

5200 km
15200 km
45200 km
52000 km

Explanation

Question 61 of 150

Part of the Northern Plains, which was a thickly forested region full of wildlife, where the forests have been cleared to create agricultural land and to settle migrants from Pakistan after partition.

Select one of the following:

Bhabar
Terai
Bhangar
Khadar

Explanation

Question 62 of 150

Which one of the following is the largest river of the Peninsular India?

Select one of the following:

Narmada
Krishna
Godavari
Mahanadi

Explanation

Question 63 of 150

Which soil is the widespread soil of India?

Select one of the following:

Alluvial
Black
Laterite
Desert

Explanation

Question 64 of 150

Which of the following is not an area of Mountain soil?

Select one of the following:

Meghalaya
Uttaranchal
Tamil Nadu
Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation

Question 65 of 150

Which of the following ministry looks after the problem of consumers and protects their rights?

Select one of the following:

Home ministry
Health Ministry
Ministry of Consumers Rights
Ministry of Consumer Affairs

Explanation

Question 66 of 150

What does ATM stand for?

Select one of the following:

Any Time Money
Automated Teller Machine
Automatic Timely Money
Automatic Temporary Machine

Explanation

Question 67 of 150

Commercial Banks and Cooperative Societies are an example of :

Select one of the following:

Formal sources of credit
Informal sources of credit
Organised sector
None of these

Explanation

Question 68 of 150

National income of a country divided by its total population-

Select one of the following:

Gross Domestic product
Per Capita income
Net Domestic product
Depreciation

Explanation

Question 69 of 150

The ‘Renaissance’ laid emphasis on

Select one of the following:

Imperialism
The importance of reason
Capitalism
Moral principles

Explanation

Question 70 of 150

Name the important trading company that became master of India.

Select one of the following:

French treading company
Italian East India company
The English east India company
None of these

Explanation

Question 71 of 150

When did the French Revolution take place?

Select one of the following:

In 1784 AD
In 1786 AD
In 1787 AD
In 1789 AD

Explanation

Question 72 of 150

What was the first kind of printing system called?

Select one of the following:

Press-printing system
lnk Printing system
Hand printing system
Paper printing system

Explanation

Question 73 of 150

Under Ryotwari system the lands were resurveyed after every

Select one of the following:

5 years
10 years
20 years
30 years

Explanation

Question 74 of 150

In 1855 Wajid Ali Shah was the nawab of

Select one of the following:

Bengal
Hyderabad
Jaunpur
Awadh

Explanation

Question 75 of 150

The first Hill station founded by the English is ________.

Select one of the following:

Darjeeling
Shimla
Mussoorie
Mount Abu

Explanation

Question 76 of 150

Muslim League was found in 1906 by Agha Khan and Nawab Salimulla at

Select one of the following:

Dhaka
Lahore
Karachi
Peshawar

Explanation

Question 77 of 150

Gandhji withdrew the Non–Cooperation Movement in the year :

Select one of the following:

1919
1920
1921
1922

Explanation

Question 78 of 150

Poorna Swaraj resolution was passed at which of the following places?

Select one of the following:

Karachi
Lahore
Surat
Calcutta

Explanation

Question 79 of 150

Champaran Movement was launched to support

Select one of the following:

Textile mill workers
Indigo Farmers
Landlords
Peasants against high taxes

Explanation

Question 80 of 150

Who was the head of interim govt, formed by the Indian National Congress before Independence?

Select one of the following:

Mahtama Gandhi
Jawahar Lal Nehru
Sardar Patel
None of these

Explanation

Question 81 of 150

Pickup the odd out from the following questions which does not have any relation with the other set of letters:

Select one of the following:

B C E F
H I K L
N O Q R
A B Y Z

Explanation

Question 82 of 150

Pickup the odd out from the following questions which does not have any relation with the other set of letters:

Select one of the following:

W X Y Z
X C W D
V E U F
Z A Y B

Explanation

Question 83 of 150

Pickup the odd out from the following questions which does not have any relation with the other set of letters:

Select one of the following:

C A D B
I K M O
A C E G
Q S U W

Explanation

Question 84 of 150

Pickup the odd out from the following questions which does not have any relation with the other set of letters:

Select one of the following:

A D B E
D C B A
F I G J
K N L O

Explanation

Question 85 of 150

Pickup the odd out from the following questions which does not have any relation with the other set of letters:

Select one of the following:

A G H B
E I J F
Z A Z B
C K L D

Explanation

Question 86 of 150

Pickup the odd out from the following questions which does not have any relation with the other set of letters:

Select one of the following:

PUNE
NAGPUR
BIHAR
PATNA

Explanation

Question 87 of 150

On which day of the week 26th January, 1981 had fallen?

Select one of the following:

Sunday
Friday
Tuesday
Monday

Explanation

Question 88 of 150

If A + B means ‘A is brother of B’ A ¸ B means ‘A is father of B’ and A × B means ‘A is sister of B’, which of the following means ‘M is uncle of P’?

Select one of the following:

M + N × P
N × P ¸ M
M ¸ K × P
M + N ¸ P

Explanation

Question 89 of 150

Pointing to an old man, Ramu said, “His son is my son’s uncle.” How is the old man related to Ramu?

Select one of the following:

Uncle
Brother
Father
Grandfather

Explanation

Question 90 of 150

Saturday is the 6th odd day. What will be the day of the week at 98th day?

Select one of the following:

Tuesday
Monday
Friday
Wednesday

Explanation

Question 91 of 150

If today is Sunday. What will be the day of the week at 95th days?

Select one of the following:

Thursday
Wednesday
Sunday
Saturday

Explanation

Question 92 of 150

If 25th April, 2003 falls on tuesday. What will be the day of the week on the 1st of May, 2003?

Select one of the following:

Monday
Friday
Sunday
Saturday

Explanation

Question 93 of 150

What day of the week was 1st July 1985?

Select one of the following:

Sunday
Tuesday
Monday
Friday

Explanation

Question 94 of 150

What will be the day of the week on 26th September 2003?

Select one of the following:

Monday
Saturday
Sunday
Friday

Explanation

Question 95 of 150

If you start your Journey on 22nd June 2003. What will be the day of the week after 7 days of your departure?

Select one of the following:

Saturday
Monday
Friday
Sunday

Explanation

Question 96 of 150

Mr Sandeep wanted to go home on Saturday. On which date of the week of July 2003, he will be able to move?

Select one of the following:

5th July 2003
6th July 2003
4th July 2003
3rd July 2003

Explanation

Question 97 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 98 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 99 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 100 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 101 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 102 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 103 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 104 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 105 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 106 of 150

Find out the missing number in the Circle

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 107 of 150

Six films P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be released on consecutive Friday. The schedule of the release is to be in accordance with the following :
(i) P must be released a week before T.
(ii) R must not be released immediately after the first release
(iii) Q must be released on the friday following the friday on which U is released.
(iv) S must be released on fifth friday and should not be immediately preceded by Q.
(v) T must not be released in the last.
Which of the following films preceded ‘T’ ?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 108 of 150

Six films P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be released on consecutive Friday. The schedule of the release is to be in accordance with the following :
(i) P must released a week, before T.
(ii) R must not be released immediately after the first release
(iii) Q must be released on the friday following the friday on which U is released.
(iv) S must be released on fifth friday and should not be immediately preceded by Q.
(v) T must not be released in the last.
In between which of the two films S is to be released ?

Select one of the following:

Q and R
R and T
T and U
P and T

Explanation

Question 109 of 150

Six films P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be released on consecutive Friday. The schedule of the release is to be in accordance with the following :
(i) P must released a week, before T.
(ii) R must not be released immediately after the first release
(iii) Q must be released on the friday following the friday on which U is released.
(iv) S must be released on fifth friday and should not be immediately preceded by Q.
(v) T must not be released in the last.
Which of the following films released first ?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 110 of 150

Six films P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be released on consecutive Friday. The schedule of the release is to be in accordance with the following :
(i) P must released a week, before T.
(ii) R must not be released immediately after the first release
(iii) Q must be released on the friday following the friday on which U is released.
(iv) S must be released on fifth friday and should not be immediately preceded by Q.
(v) T must not be released in the last.
Which of the following films released immediately after Q ?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 111 of 150

Six films P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be released on consecutive Friday. The schedule of the release is to be in accordance with the following :
(i) P must released a week, before T.
(ii) R must not be released immediately after the first release
(iii) Q must be released on the friday following the friday on which U is released.
(iv) S must be released on fifth friday and should not be immediately preceded by Q.
(v) T must not be released in the last.
Film R cannot be released on which of the following Fridays in addition to second Friday ?

Select one of the following:

First
Third
Fourth
Fifth

Explanation

Question 112 of 150

"One term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
11, 42, 39, 164, 525, 421, 749"

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 113 of 150

"One term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
10, 41, 94, 1624, 2516, 3625, 4936"

Select one of the following:

1624
2516
3625
4936

Explanation

Question 114 of 150

"One term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
4, 7, 13, 25, 49, 97, 153."

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 115 of 150

"One term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
10, 13, 26, 37, 51, 85, 154."

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 116 of 150

"One term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
15, 25, 35, 72, 95, 168, 195"

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 117 of 150

"Find the missing term?
a _bc_a_a_"

Select one of the following:

bccb
cbcc
bbca
cbbc

Explanation

Question 118 of 150

AJAY is written as 8882, then in same code NAMA would be written as:

Select one of the following:

4858
5848
4448
8258

Explanation

Question 119 of 150

If TEMPLE is coded as VHQURL, then CHURCH will be coded as:

Select one of the following:

EKYWIO
EKUWIO
EKYWIN
EKYWJO

Explanation

Question 120 of 150

Ramakant walks northwards. After a while, he turns to his right and a little further to his left. Finally, after walking a distance of one kilometer, he turns to his lefts again, In which direction is he moving now?

Select one of the following:

North
South
East
West

Explanation

Question 121 of 150

Starting from a point P, Sachin walked 20 meters towards South. He turned left and walked 30meters. He then turned left and walked 20 meters. He again turned left and walked 40 meters and reached a point Q. How far and in which direction is the point Q from the point P?

Select one of the following:

20 meters West
10 meters East
10 meters West
10 meters North

Explanation

Question 122 of 150

If West becomes North-East, South-West becomes East and so on, then what will south become?

Select one of the following:

North-West
South-West
West
East

Explanation

Question 123 of 150

If 323 X 41 = 14323, 137 X 72 = 27731, 48 X 87 = 7884, then 34 X 75 = ?

Select one of the following:

2550
5743
7534
4357

Explanation

Question 124 of 150

If a = 11 (242) 121, b = 14 (392) 196, c = 13 (?) 169

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 125 of 150

If ‘+’ means ‘ x ’, ‘ x ’ means ‘–‘, ‘/ ’ means ‘+’ and ‘–‘ means ‘/ ’, then 175–25 / 5+20 x 3+10=?

Select one of the following:

160
77
2370
240

Explanation

Question 126 of 150

How many rectangles does the figure have?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 127 of 150

If a clock shows 12 : 37, then its mirror image will be?

Select one of the following:

11:37
11:23
01:23
21:23

Explanation

Question 128 of 150

Which alternative will be in place of question mark?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 129 of 150

Which alternative will be in place of question mark?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 130 of 150

Which alternative will be in place of question mark?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 131 of 150

Two numbers differ by 4 and their product is 192. The numbers are

Select one of the following:

12 , 16
10 , 14
11 , 15
13, 18

Explanation

Question 132 of 150

The first and last term of an A.P. are 1 and 11. If the sum of its terms is 36, then the number of terms will be

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 133 of 150

In an A.P. where a (m) represents mth term in it, [ a(m+n) + a(m-n)] is equal to

Select one of the following:

0
1
2 a(m)
a(m)

Explanation

Question 134 of 150

sin q cos (90º – q) + cos q sin(90º – q) =

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 135 of 150

(sin25)^2 + (sin65)^2

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 136 of 150

tan 5x – tan3 x – tan2x =

Select one of the following:

tan 5x tan 3x tan 2x
sin5x sin3x sin2x
cos 5x cos 3x cos2x
None

Explanation

Question 137 of 150

If A = (Sin q)^2 + (Cos q)^4, then for all values of q

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 138 of 150

ln a problem involving division, the divisor is eight times the quotient and four times the remainder. If the remainder be 12, then the dividend is

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 139 of 150

The ratio of two number is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. is 4. Their L.C.M. is

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 140 of 150

The smallest number which when diminished by 7, is divisible by 12, 16, 18, 21 and 28 is

Select one of the following:

1008
1015
1022
1032

Explanation

Question 141 of 150

If pth term of an A.P. is 1/q and qth term is 1/p , then the sum of pq terms is

Select one of the following:

(p-q)/2
(p+q)/2
(pq+1)/2
(pq-1)/2

Explanation

Question 142 of 150

A two digit number is four times the sum and three times the product of its digits. The number is

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 143 of 150

If x = 1 is a common root of the equations ax2 + ax + 3 = 0 and x2 + x + b = 0, then ab =

Select one of the following:

3
3.5
6
-3

Explanation

Question 144 of 150

If p,q are the roots of a(x)^2 – 2bx + c = 0, then (pq)^3 + (p^2)(q^3) + (p^3)(q^2) is

Select one of the following:

None of these

Explanation

Question 145 of 150

Ramesh and Mahesh solve an equation. In solving Ramesh commits a mistake in constant term and find the roots are 8 and 2. Mahesh commits a mistake in the coefficient of x and find the roots –9 and –1. The correct roots are

Select one of the following:

– 8, 2
9, 1
9, -1
– 8, – 2

Explanation

Question 146 of 150

If the root of the equation a(x^2) + bx + c = 0 are in the ratio m : n, then

Select one of the following:

mn (a^2) = (m + n) (c^2)
mn(b^2) = (m + n) ac
mn(b^2) = ((m + n)^2) ac
None of these

Explanation

Question 147 of 150

Sum of all natural numbers lying between 250 and 1000 which are exactly divisible by 3 is

Select one of the following:

157365
153657
156375
155637

Explanation

Question 148 of 150

The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 sec, 72 sec and 108 sec respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 8:20:00, then at what time will they again change simultaneously?

Select one of the following:

08:27:12
07:23:06
08:20:24
08:30:16

Explanation

Question 149 of 150

Find the value of (1 + tan q + sec q)(1 + cot q - cosec q).

Select one of the following:

1
-1
2
-2

Explanation

Question 150 of 150

In triangle ABC, Angle B = 90º, AB = 5 cm and BC = 12 cm. Then sin C =

Select one of the following:

12/13
5/13
5/12
13/5

Explanation

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	Created by SARTHI EDUCATION over 6 years ago

CBSE Central Board of Secondary Education NTSE Quiz on Sarthi Education NTSE Test 1, created by SARTHI EDUCATION on 20/10/2017.

Sarthi Education NTSE Test 1

Question 1 of 150

When a constant force is applied to a body, it move with uniform?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 150

The maximum loss in weight of an object takes place when

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 150

The orbits of planets around the sun are:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 150

A coolie with a suitcase on his head is climbing up on a ladder with uniform speed. The work done by the coolie on the suitcase is:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 150

If a stone of mass ‘m’ falls a vertical distance ‘d’ the decrease in gravitational potential energy is :

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 150

A source of frequency 500 Hz emits waves of wavelength 0.2 m. How long does it take the wave to travel 300 m?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 150

When sound waves travelling in air enter into water, the following remains constant:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 150

A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 150

You have a coil and a bar magnet. You can produce an electric current by moving

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 150

A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. the image formed will be

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 150

When a ray of light passes form an optically more dense medium to a less dense medium, it

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 150

Hypermetropia is rectified by using

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 150

Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the Sun’s energy?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 150

Choose one correct answer from the given options.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 150

When ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H2SO4 the product formed is -

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 150

Vinegar is -

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 150

Glacial acetic acid is -

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 150

Which metal has 2 electrons in the outermost orbit

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 150

Alkali metals in each period have

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 150

The long form of periodic table is based on