Maggie Throckmorton
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Maggie Throckmorton
Created by Maggie Throckmorton about 7 years ago
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HTN,Lipid Meds

HTN,Lipid Meds

Question 1 of 97

1

T or F. African Americans respond better to a Thiazide diuretic.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 2 of 97

1

T or F. Beta blockers are 1st line drugs for HTN.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 3 of 97

1

Select all that apply. Which of the following are thiazide diuretics.

Select one or more of the following:

  • HCTZ

  • Indapamide

  • Lasix

  • Spironolactone

  • Metolazone

Explanation

Question 4 of 97

1

Which class of diuretics inhibits distal convoluted tubule sodium and chloride re-absorption?

Select one of the following:

  • Loop

  • Potassium Sparing

  • Potassium Wasting

Explanation

Question 5 of 97

1

Select all that apply. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances can occur with thiazide diuretics?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hypokalemia

  • Hypehalemia

  • Hypercalcemia

  • Hypocalcemia

  • Hyponatremia

  • Hypernatremia

  • Hypomagnesemia

  • Hypermagnesemia

Explanation

Question 6 of 97

1

Chlorthalidone and indapamide, are longer acting thiazide diuretics, more potent than HCTZ and carry a higher risk for hypokalemia.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 7 of 97

1

A dose of HCTZ greater than _____mg has an increased risk for hypokalemia.

Select one of the following:

  • 30mg

  • 70mg

  • 50mg

  • 60mg

Explanation

Question 8 of 97

1

What should the NP monitor when a patient is on thiazide diuretics? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • BUN

  • Serum Creatinine or CrCl

  • Heart rate

  • Blood pressure

  • Vision changes

  • Electrolytes

Explanation

Question 9 of 97

1

T or F. Thiazide diuretics are commonly combined with other anti-hypertensives.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 10 of 97

1

T or F. Thiazide diuretics are contraindicated in persons with gout as they increase uric acid.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 97

1

T or F. Loop diuretics are used more often for edema than HTN.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 97

1

The following are exemplar Loop Diuretics:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lasix

  • HCTZ

  • Lisinopril

  • Bumetanide

  • Indapamide

  • Metolazone

  • Toresemide

Explanation

Question 13 of 97

1

Identify the MOA for loop diuretics from the choices below:

Select one of the following:

  • Inhibits distal convoluted tubule Na+ and Cl reabsorption

  • Inhibits Loop of Henle and proximal/distal convoluted tubule Na+ and Cl reabsorption

  • Stops the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

Explanation

Question 14 of 97

1

Loop diuretics are contraindicated in patients with:

Select one of the following:

  • Shellfish allergies

  • Sulfa allergies

  • Diabetes

  • Edema

Explanation

Question 15 of 97

1

Loop diuretics:

Select one of the following:

  • Increase K+ and decrease Urea

  • Increase WBG

  • Decrease K+ and Increase Urea

  • Increase neutrophils

Explanation

Question 16 of 97

1

T or F. Potassium Sparing Diuretics have weak diuretic activity.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 97

1

Exemplars of Potassium Sparing Diuretics Includes: (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Triameterene

  • Lasix

  • Bumentanide

  • Spironalactone

  • HCTZ

  • Eplerenone

Explanation

Question 18 of 97

1

Spironolactone:

Select one of the following:

  • Decreases K+ and Urea

  • Increases K+ and decreases Urea

  • Increases K+ and Urea

  • Increases Na+

Explanation

Question 19 of 97

1

Lisinopril should be d/c if serum K+ increases more than?

Select one of the following:

  • 40%

  • 15%

  • 20%

  • 30%

Explanation

Question 20 of 97

1

Which ACE is not used often for maintenance therapy d/t a short half-life and multiple dosing?

Select one of the following:

  • Benazepril

  • Catorpil

  • Lisinopril

  • Ramipril

Explanation

Question 21 of 97

1

If a patient is at high risk for renal artery stenosis, how soon after initiating ACEI should the patient's Cr be checked?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 week

  • 1 month

  • 48 hours

  • 3-5 days

Explanation

Question 22 of 97

1

Which patient populations have a greater risk of developing angioedema with the use of ACEI? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Asian

  • Latino

  • Pacific Islander

  • Caucasian

  • African American

Explanation

Question 23 of 97

1

ACEI therapy is preferred for the following populations (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Patient's with Diabetic Kidney Disease

  • Pregnant Women

  • Patients with DM

  • Young patients

  • Patients who are Post MI

  • Patients with Heart Failure

  • Patients with Angina

Explanation

Question 24 of 97

1

ACEI and ARBS can have the following additional positive effects (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Improve oxygenation to the heart

  • Decrease inappropriate remodeling of heart muscle after MI

  • Reduce effects of diabetes on the kidneys

  • Improve insulin sensitivity

  • All of the Above

Explanation

Question 25 of 97

1

What is a possible inconvenient but not life threatening adverse reaction from ACEI therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Itching

  • Bradykinin mediated cough

  • Edema

  • Tachycardia

Explanation

Question 26 of 97

1

ACEI can increase K+

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 97

1

An increase in Cr with ACEI therapy is often transient.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 28 of 97

1

What is the most common adverse reaction to ACEI therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • SOB

  • Hypotension

  • Bradycardia

  • Fever

Explanation

Question 29 of 97

1

The following are exemplars for ARBS (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lisinopril

  • Losartan

  • Amlodipine

  • Valsartan

  • Verapamil

  • Olmesartan

Explanation

Question 30 of 97

1

ARBS prevent the binding of Angiotensin II to receptors in the kidneys, brain, heart and arterial walls-inhibit RAAS and cause fall in peripheral resistance.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 97

1

ARBS may never be combined with which class of drug?

Select one of the following:

  • Thiazide diuretics

  • ACEI

  • CC Blockers

  • Direct Renin Inhibitors

Explanation

Question 32 of 97

1

ACEI and ARBS should be avoided in:

Select one of the following:

  • Women who are pregnant or may become pregnant

  • Menopausal women

  • Patients with DM

  • The elderly

Explanation

Question 33 of 97

1

ARBS can be a good choice for patients with Gout because:

Select one of the following:

  • There is decreased uric acid secretion

  • Increased uric acid secretion

Explanation

Question 34 of 97

1

T or F. ARBS can raise serum K+.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 97

1

The Direct Renin Inhibitor Tekturna shares this possible side effect with ACEI.

Select one of the following:

  • Increased WBG

  • Angioedema

  • Cough

  • Decreased K+

Explanation

Question 36 of 97

1

T or F. Tekturna can increase serum K+.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 37 of 97

1

T or F. ARBS are contraindicated in patients with Renal Artery Stenosis.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 38 of 97

1

T or F. You can combine ACEI, ARBS and DRI.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 97

1

The following is true of dihydropyridine CCB (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Are potent vasodilators that lower calcium influx into the smooth muscle.

  • Have little or no negative effect on cardiac contractility and conduction.

  • Can treat chronic stable angina

  • Can be used in patients with CHF

Explanation

Question 40 of 97

1

Dihyropyridine CCB include (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Norvasc

  • Losartan

  • Nifedipine

  • Benazepril

  • Felodipine

Explanation

Question 41 of 97

1

T or F. Peripheral edema can be caused by amlodipine.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 97

1

Which class of drugs can be combined with Amlodipine to reduce peripheral edema?

Select one of the following:

  • ARBS

  • DRI

  • ACES

  • Thiazide Diuretics

Explanation

Question 43 of 97

1

Dihyrdopyridine CCB have greater efficacy in African Americans.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 97

1

T or F. ACEI can never be prescribed to African Americans.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 97

1

The following is true of non-dihyrdopyridine CCB (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Can treat A-fib

  • Can be effective in proteinuria reduction.

  • Have a depressive effect on cardiac contractility and conduction

  • Should be avoided in patients who are taking beta blockers

Explanation

Question 46 of 97

1

T or F. Verapamil has the strongest inotropic effect of the non-dihyrdopyridine CCB and should be avoided in patients with Heart Failure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 47 of 97

1

Verapamil can interact with the following (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Simvastatin

  • Lithium

  • Amiodarone

  • Codeine

  • Spironalactone

Explanation

Question 48 of 97

1

T or F. Beta blockers are 1st line in the treatment of HTN.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 49 of 97

1

Cardio-selective beta-blockers include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Atenolol

  • Metropolol

  • Coreg

  • Propranolol

  • Bisoprolol

  • Esmolol

  • Acebutolol

Explanation

Question 50 of 97

1

Propranolol is a non-cardioselective beta-blocker that is used for symptom management with which endocrine issue:

Select one of the following:

  • Hypothyroidism

  • Hyperthyroidism

Explanation

Question 51 of 97

1

T or F. CCB and Beta-blockers can used for prophylactic treatment of migraines.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 52 of 97

1

T or F. Beta-blockers are superior protection against stroke.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 97

1

An example of mixed alpha and beta blocker is:

Select one of the following:

  • Carvedilol (coreg)

  • Nadolol

  • Atenolol

  • Propranolol

Explanation

Question 54 of 97

1

What is major consideration when prescribing a beta-blocker in a patient with DM?

Select one of the following:

  • It can mask hypogylcemia

  • It can cause tachycardia

  • Can improve blood glucose

  • Protects against strokes

Explanation

Question 55 of 97

1

In a patient with decompensated bronchospastic disease with stable angina, the NP should prescribe:

Select one of the following:

  • A beta-blocker

  • A cardio-selective dihydropyridine

  • ACEI

  • Aspirin

Explanation

Question 56 of 97

1

S/E of beta-blockers can include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hypotension

  • Bradycardia

  • Fatigue

  • Depression

  • 2nd and 3rd degree AV Block

  • Angioedema

Explanation

Question 57 of 97

1

T or F. Discontinuation of beta-blockers needs to occur over a few weeks.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 58 of 97

1

Clonodine belongs to which class of anti-hypertensives?

Select one of the following:

  • ACEI

  • DRI

  • Beta-blockers

  • Centrally Acting Agents

Explanation

Question 59 of 97

1

Centrally acting agents can be used to treat which condition in pediatric patients.

Select one of the following:

  • Depression

  • Dry Mouth

  • ADHD

  • Dizziness

Explanation

Question 60 of 97

1

Possible Adverse Reactions to Centrally Acting Agents includes (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Fatigue

  • Dry mouth

  • Lightheadedness

  • Rash

  • Hypoglycemia

  • Bradycarida

Explanation

Question 61 of 97

1

T or F. Patients wanting to come off of clonidine need to be tapered due to risk for rebound HTN.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 62 of 97

1

Methyldopa is indicated in which population?

Select one of the following:

  • Elderly

  • Pregnant women

  • Adolescents

  • African Amercians

Explanation

Question 63 of 97

1

A contraindication for Methyldopa is:

Select one of the following:

  • Kidney Disease

  • DM

  • CHF

  • Active Hepatic Disease

Explanation

Question 64 of 97

1

T or F. The MOA of methyldopa is it stimulates the Alpha 2 adrenergic receptors.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 65 of 97

1

Prazosin a peripherally acting agent, while not a 1st line anti-hypertensive is effective in treating:

Select one of the following:

  • Anigna

  • HF

  • PTSD and associated night terrors

  • The elderly

Explanation

Question 66 of 97

1

T or F. Doxazosin should be taken at bedtime due to risk for postural lightheadedness.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 67 of 97

1

The following should be avoided in pregnancy (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • ACEI

  • ARBS

  • Direct Renin Inhibitors

  • Sprionolactone

  • Eplerenone

  • Methyldopa

Explanation

Question 68 of 97

1

In addition to methyldopa, which two other drugs are commonly used for HTN in pregnancy:

Select one of the following:

  • Lisinopril and Clonidine

  • Norvasc and Tekturna

  • Losartan and Spironalactone

  • Labetalol and Nifedipine

Explanation

Question 69 of 97

1

T or F. Betablockers are not recommended as initial therapy in children.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 70 of 97

1

Which class of diuretics is used in fluid volume overload?

Select one of the following:

  • Thiazide

  • Potassium Sparing

  • Loop

  • HCTZ

Explanation

Question 71 of 97

1

When using Digoxin to treat Stage C Heart Failure, the NP knows which medicine can upset the narrow therapeutic index of the drug:

Select one of the following:

  • Diltiazem

  • Benazapril

  • Spironolactone

  • ASA

Explanation

Question 72 of 97

1

T or F. Digoxin increases myocardial contractility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 73 of 97

1

The therapeutic index for digoxin is:

Select one of the following:

  • 0.10-0.20

  • 0.1-0.3

  • 0.5-0.9

  • 0.3-0.8

Explanation

Question 74 of 97

1

T or F. Low K+ and Mg+ and high Ca+ increase the risk for digoxin toxicity.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 75 of 97

1

Signs of toxicity to tell your patient who is taking digoxin are (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Seeing green and yellow halos

  • Delirium and confusion

  • Insomina

  • Weakness

  • Dry Mouth

Explanation

Question 76 of 97

1

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are more commonly known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Statins

  • ARBS

  • Fibrates

  • Omega 3 Fatty Acids

Explanation

Question 77 of 97

1

The primary treatment goal of statins is to:

Select one of the following:

  • Increase LDL

  • Increase HDL

  • Decrease LDL

  • Increase Liver Function

Explanation

Question 78 of 97

1

T or F. It is fine for pregnant women or women planning to become pregnant to take simvastatin.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 79 of 97

1

Which group of patients could benefit from statins:

Select one of the following:

  • Age 21 years> with an LDL>190

  • Patients with active liver disease

  • African American Females

  • Smokers

Explanation

Question 80 of 97

1

Statins should be discontinued if which lab value if it is >3x the normal value?

Select one of the following:

  • GGT

  • TSH

  • ALT

  • WBG

Explanation

Question 81 of 97

1

There is an increased risk of myopathy/rhabdomyolysis with which drug interactions:

Select one of the following:

  • gemfibrozil and statins

  • Statins and ACEI

  • Beta-blockers and Statins

  • Calcium channel blockers and statins

Explanation

Question 82 of 97

1

What lab level should be checked if a patient complains of muscle pain while taking a statin?

Select one of the following:

  • Vitamin D

  • B12

  • Platelets

  • Hgb

Explanation

Question 83 of 97

1

T or F. New onset DM is less common with pravastatin and pitavastatin.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 84 of 97

1

Before changing a patient to new statin. the NP should ensure the patient has been adhering to their current statin medication by checking:

Select one of the following:

  • BP

  • CMP

  • Lipid panel

  • Fasting Blood Glucose

Explanation

Question 85 of 97

1

T or F. Short acting statins like Lovastatin should be taken at bedtime?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 86 of 97

1

Lower doses of rosuvastatin is recommended in which population?

Select one of the following:

  • African Americans

  • Latinos

  • Canadians

  • Asians

Explanation

Question 87 of 97

1

One of the advantages of zetia over statins is:

Select one of the following:

  • You can give it to children younger than 10 y/o

  • It is indicated for use in pregnant women

  • It raises HDL

  • It raises LDL

Explanation

Question 88 of 97

1

T or F. The MOA of Zetia is the inhibition of cholesterol at the small intestine.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 89 of 97

1

PCSK9 Inhibitors like Alirocumab and Evolocumab:

Select one of the following:

  • Are inexpensive

  • Are powerful at lowering LDL

  • Are less effective than statins

  • Can be taken orally

Explanation

Question 90 of 97

1

T or F. Alirocumab must be stored in the refrigerator.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 91 of 97

1

T or F. PCSK9 inhibitors should be avoided in pregnancy.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 92 of 97

1

What is one way to decrease the flushing side effect that can come with the use of Niacin?

Select one of the following:

  • Take it with milk

  • Take it at bedtime

  • Take 325mg ASA 30 minutes before

  • Take it on an empty stomach

Explanation

Question 93 of 97

1

T or F. Fibrates are only taken to reduce high triglycerides.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 94 of 97

1

Gemfibrozil and Fenofibrate should not be taken with statins because:

Select one of the following:

  • Increased risk for heart palpitations

  • Increase risk for drug interactions

  • They potentiate each other

  • Causes flushing

Explanation

Question 95 of 97

1

Fibrates should be avoided in (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hepatic Impairment

  • Lactation

  • Pregnancy

  • In children over age 10 with Triglycerides >500

Explanation

Question 96 of 97

1

T or F. Statins can be used in children older than age ten with an elevated LDL.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 97 of 97

1

Omega 3 Fatty Acids are helpful in reducing:

Select one of the following:

  • Trigylcerides

  • WBG

  • HDL

  • Muscle Pain

Explanation

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