Mikayla Lundblade
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Quiz on CDC 1, created by Mikayla Lundblade on 10/11/2017.

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Mikayla Lundblade
Created by Mikayla Lundblade about 7 years ago
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CDC 1

Question 1 of 100

1

Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?

Select one of the following:

  • Kelley field, TX

  • Tinker Field, OK

  • Camp Ripley, MN

  • Camp Lajeune, NC

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Air Police Security battalions were designed to protect against all of the following EXCEPT.

Select one of the following:

  • riots

  • air raids

  • light tanks

  • parachute attacks

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

On 1 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?

Select one of the following:

  • Air Police School

  • Air Leaders School

  • Corp Training Office

  • Base Defense Academy

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

In what year did the Air Force approve the FIRST trial issue of the security police shield?

Select one of the following:

  • 1943

  • 1945

  • 1950

  • 1957

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

The Security Forces beret with the Defensor Fortis flash...

Select one of the following:

  • identifies SF to foreign forces as security personnel.

  • is a distinguishable uniform item designed to deter aggression.

  • identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.

  • is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam War.

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

In what year was the name of the career field changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police"?

Select one of the following:

  • 1985

  • 1971

  • 1966

  • 1950

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills for security police?

Select one of the following:

  • The 1041st SPS (TEST)

  • The 4110th SPS (TEST)

  • The 1401st SPS

  • The 1140th SPS

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on..

Select one of the following:

  • weapons systems protective concept

  • aircraft protection system concept

  • air base defense protective system

  • whole-base protective system

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?

Select one of the following:

  • Police dog units and law enforcement specialties

  • Law enforcement and security specialties

  • Security and force protection elements

  • Security teams and security elements

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?

Select one of the following:

  • Operation NORIEGA

  • Operation URGENT FURY

  • Operation FREE PANAMA

  • Operation JUST CAUSE

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

What was the "First In" Security Forces concept adopted by Air Mobility Command in 1997?

Select one of the following:

  • Rising Sun Program

  • Noble Eagle Program

  • Flying Falcon Program

  • Phoenix Raven Program

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called..

Select one of the following:

  • Operation ENDURING FREEDOM

  • Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM

  • Operation IRAQI FREEDOM

  • Operation NOBLE EAGLE

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces task of convoy

Select one of the following:

  • commander duty

  • response duty

  • escort duty

  • driver duty

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

What Security Forces unit conducted the career fields first combat parachute assault?

Select one of the following:

  • 343rd SFS

  • 786th SFS

  • 1041st SFS

  • 1140th SFS

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

The mission of all Security Forces is to..

Select one of the following:

  • Be mission ready, resilient, and air minded

  • Be knowledgeable in basic police and ground combat skills

  • be good followers, great leaders and the most rigorously trained defenders

  • protect, defend, and fight to enable AF joint and Coalition mission success

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Which description correctly describes our security forces symbol?

Select one of the following:

  • Falcon over crossed runways

  • Eagle over crossed runways

  • Falcon over crossed swords

  • Eagle over crossed swords

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

In the Security Forces unit S-function structure, which "S" branch is typically the largest?

Select one of the following:

  • S-1/Administration

  • S-2/Intelligence

  • S-3/Operations

  • S-4/Plans and Programs

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

In the Security Forces unit S-function structure, which "S' branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS)?

Select one of the following:

  • S-1/Administration

  • S-2/Intelligence

  • S-3/Operations

  • S-4/Plans and Programs

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

What course must a trainee attend for awarding of the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071?

Select one of the following:

  • Security Forces leaders course

  • Supply managers course

  • SF craftsman resident course

  • Security superintendent non-resident course

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

As a Security Forces member, adhering to what system of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

Select one of the following:

  • Code of Conduct only

  • SF General Orders only

  • Performance Fitness Examination

  • Code of Conduct and General Orders

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?

Select one of the following:

  • Fulfilling the mission

  • Personal appearance

  • Off-duty conduct

  • Attention to duty

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violators race?

Select one of the following:

  • Seeking favors

  • Exercising authority

  • Assistance to others

  • Personal attitudes

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to..

Select one of the following:

  • AFI 31-301, Air Base Defense

  • AFI 31-205, The Air Force Corrections Program

  • AFI 31-206, Security Forces investigation Program

  • AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force Personnel

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO)?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 to 2

  • 3 to 5

  • 6 to 8

  • 9 to 10

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead?

Select one of the following:

  • Bioenvironmental Engineering Section

  • Base Hazardous Waste Section

  • Bioenvironmental Waste Section

  • Bioenvironmental Health section

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?

Select one of the following:

  • Sweat

  • Blood

  • Syringes

  • Foreign fluids

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to blood borne pathogens is..

Select one of the following:

  • engineering controls

  • employee work practices

  • personal protective equipment usage

  • housekeeping guidelines

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?

Select one of the following:

  • Search for weapons first

  • Always, begin your search at the front pocket

  • Always, Conduct a precautionary check prior to searching

  • Start searching for needles with an electromagnetic spectrometer

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Defender's Edge training was developed by

Select one of the following:

  • defenders for defenders

  • medical professionals for defenders

  • base services for all AF personnel

  • base operations for all AF personnel

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

The stress response system is composed of the..

Select one of the following:

  • Digestive and intestinal system

  • immune and psychological systems

  • psychological and emotional systems

  • sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

As security Forces members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?

Select one of the following:

  • chaplains

  • team members

  • family members

  • medical personnel

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Which legal document contains military laws that apply to ALL branches of the US Armed Forces?

Select one of the following:

  • Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

  • US constitution

  • Federal statues

  • International law

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva conventions?

Select one of the following:

  • Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)

  • Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM) Title 10 statutes

  • Rules of Engagement (ROE)

  • Rules of War

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Which Uniform Code of Military Justice's (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law.

Select one of the following:

  • Article 77

  • Article 5

  • Article 2

  • Article 1

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person..

Select one of the following:

  • must be tried overseas

  • is not subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

  • can be tried overseas or stateside

  • May chose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are..

Select one of the following:

  • concurrent, current, proprietary

  • exclusive, bilateral, concurrent

  • exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and multilateral

  • exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, reciprocal

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations

Select one of the following:

  • when the government has exclusive jurisdiction

  • when partial jurisdiction exists

  • under proprietary jurisdiction

  • located in overseas areas

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Under concurrent jurisdiction

Select one of the following:

  • state laws are not enforced

  • the state has proprietary rights only

  • the federal government has no authority

  • both the state and federal government have authority

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a

Select one of the following:

  • proprietary government

  • military government

  • nationalist government

  • military state

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

Select one of the following:

  • Air Force

  • Coast Guard

  • Army

  • Navy

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

What are the two types of martial law?

Select one of the following:

  • Qualified and absolute

  • Absolute and unqualified

  • Qualified and concurrent

  • Exclusive and absolute

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?

Select one of the following:

  • Military law

  • Exclusive

  • Qualified

  • Absolute

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)?

Select one of the following:

  • Military

  • Martial

  • Executive

  • Concurrent

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces Member?

Select one of the following:

  • Article 2 (2)

  • Article 5

  • Article 92 (2)

  • Article 134

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Who may request a civil proceeding under federal tort law?

Select one of the following:

  • Federal government

  • State government

  • Civilian companies

  • Private citizen

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should NOT base this decision on..

Select one of the following:

  • circumstances and facts

  • witnesses and statements

  • hearsay and rumors

  • opinion and belief

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?

Select one of the following:

  • The legal office

  • The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) office

  • The base commander

  • A Security Forces investigator

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects against

Select one of the following:

  • self-inspection

  • self-infliction

  • self-incrimination

  • self-determination

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

Select one of the following:

  • psychological deterrent

  • mobile flight-line force multiplier

  • base defense detection capability

  • replacement for base sensor systems

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

When is a military working dog's detection ability more effective

Select one of the following:

  • First thing in the morning

  • Thirty minutes after every meal

  • During the day in very busy areas

  • During darkness or limited visibility

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

When conducting building checks, the military working dog is normally..

Select one of the following:

  • on leash

  • off leash

  • on long leash

  • left in the vehicle

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

The military working dog team should always approach buildings from the

Select one of the following:

  • front side or street side

  • crosswind direction

  • downwind direction

  • upwind direction

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the average military working dog detect and respond to intruders?

Select one of the following:

  • 100 yards

  • 150 yards

  • 200 yards or less

  • 250 yards or more

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

The military working dog's primary mission is to

Select one of the following:

  • deter, detect, and detain intruders

  • provide a psychological deterrent

  • search vehicles and buildings

  • act as back up on all calls

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must..

Select one of the following:

  • search occupied buildings

  • bite and hold multiple witnesses

  • search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds

  • bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, as the handler you must..

Select one of the following:

  • give a verbal warning stating you are about to release the dog

  • loudly announce your intentions to order the dog to bite

  • place the military working dog on a long leash

  • have the dog bark three times

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, the investigator should..

Select one of the following:

  • allow another investigator to do the interview

  • find out why the interviewee does not like him or her

  • continue with the interview

  • threaten the interviewee

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

If same sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an interview, what should you do?

Select one of the following:

  • Have a second investigator present

  • Reschedule when a same sex SF is available

  • Continue the interview alone

  • Stop the interview and release the witness as unreliable

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Which type of interviewee is normally interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?

Select one of the following:

  • Suspects

  • Victims

  • Witnesses

  • Prosecutors

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

The goal of any interview is to..

Select one of the following:

  • obtain statements by all means possible

  • to obtain legally admissible statements

  • interrogating suspects into confessions

  • to gain written statements

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

What are the types of interview approaches?

Select one of the following:

  • Reverse, direct, indirect

  • Direct, indirect, and reverse

  • Indirect, alternating, and straight

  • Direct, indirect, and alternating

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Which interview approach is primarily used to interrogate?

Select one of the following:

  • Direct approach

  • Indirect approach

  • Alternating approach

  • Good cop - Bad cop approach

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview, you should?

Select one of the following:

  • call the staff judge advocate

  • get some tissues and continue

  • wait an hour and continue

  • terminate and reschedule

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

Air Force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released..

Select one of the following:

  • to their spouse

  • on their own recognizance

  • to their supervisor, first sergeant, or commander

  • to their commander, first sergeant, or staff judge advocate

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

As a security Forces member, what is the primary rule in court testimony?

Select one of the following:

  • Ensure your opinion is heard and justice is served

  • make sure the accused goes to jail

  • make sure your testimony sounds real

  • tell the truth

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

As a Security Forces member, prior to testifying in court, you should..

Select one of the following:

  • Review the entire case file

  • contact your lawyer for information

  • wait for the trial to begin before preparing

  • take some leave to clear your mind and get prepared

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Which of the following is NOT a purpose behind Security Management and Automation Resource Tracking Network (SMARTNet)?

Select one of the following:

  • Consolidate programs

  • Maximize efficiency

  • increase computer usage

  • reduce resource allocation

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

What office is responsible for the management, program development, and publication of Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG)?

Select one of the following:

  • AFSFC

  • SFCFM

  • SFCEM

  • AFSFS

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

What "S" function uses Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG) to train you and your fellow squadron members?

Select one of the following:

  • S-1

  • S-2

  • S-3

  • S-4

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS) is capable of reading all of the following forms of identifications EXCEPT..

Select one of the following:

  • State identification cards

  • retiree identification cards

  • dependent identification cards

  • Department of defense-issued identification

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Who is responsible to ensure personnel are Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) trained?

Select one of the following:

  • Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), training.

  • Staff judge advocate (SJA)

  • Unit training manager (UTM)

  • Installation defense force commander (DFC)

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Security Forces Management Information Systems (SFMIS) users report information only to those with..

Select one of the following:

  • a security clearance

  • a valid need to know

  • appropriate credentials

  • a vested interest in the case

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

National Crime Information Center (NCIC) training must meet..

Select one of the following:

  • state and Federal Bureau of Investigators (FBI) requirements

  • installation and major command (MAJCOM) requirements

  • Security Forces Center and Air Force Office of Investigative (AFOSI) requirements

  • Air Force Office of Investigative Services (AFOSI) requirements

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

Restrict access to National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data as..

Select one of the following:

  • For Official Use Only (FOUO) Department of Defense classified

  • FOUO Department of Defense classified

  • FOUO Department of Defense sensitive

  • FOUO Law Enforcement sensitive

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

You must complete Phase 2 training within how many calendar days of completing phase 1 training?

Select one of the following:

  • 30

  • 60

  • 90

  • 120

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Which type of training is considered UNIVERSAL training regardless of your Air Force Specialty code?

Select one of the following:

  • Ancillary

  • On-the-job

  • Special skills

  • battlefield skills training

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Skills obtained through a tiered training approach and target knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) not routinely acquired during occupational and/or other ancillary training venues are called..

Select one of the following:

  • expeditionary skills training

  • collective skills training

  • individual skills training

  • battlefield skills training

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

You must complete live-fire sustainment training within how many months after completion of qualification training on your primary weapon(s)?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 to 3

  • 3 to 6

  • 5 to 7

  • 6 to 12

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Who is responsible for the OVERALL management of the Stan/Eval program?

Select one of the following:

  • Defense force commander

  • Security forces manager

  • Operations commander

  • Flight commander

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

A Stan/Eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every

Select one of the following:

  • 48 months

  • 24 months

  • 12 months

  • 6 motnhs

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Which position requires individuals to achieve at LEAST 79 percent to pass the verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation (DPE)?

Select one of the following:

  • Urgent

  • Critical

  • Necessary

  • Mandatory

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

The purpose of Flight level exercises for Security Forces members is to..

Select one of the following:

  • help them pass the time during duty hours

  • have them practice their hand-to-hand combat training

  • help them to stay sharp and put their training into practice

  • have them demonstrate their ability to keep the installation secure

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

What information should leadership brief all personnel on BEFORE conducting any exercise?

Select one of the following:

  • Location of exercise

  • Type of scenarios being evaluated

  • how long the exercise will take

  • Weapon, vehicle, and ground safety

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

What document is used for issuing firearms to personnel on a FREQUENT basis?

Select one of the following:

  • AF Form 626, SMALL ARMS HAND RECEIPT

  • AF Form 627, SMALL ARMS HAND RECEIPT

  • AF Form 628, SMALL ARMS HAND RECEIPT

  • AF Form 629, SMALL ARMS HAND RECEIPT

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a TEMPORARY basis?

Select one of the following:

  • AF Form 522

  • AF Form 629

  • AF Form 797

  • AF Form 1297

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

What should Security Forces members be familiar with prior to being assigned as controllers?

Select one of the following:

  • Squadron leadership

  • Geography of the base

  • Local law enforcement

  • Installation operating hours

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

What type of land mobile radio do walking patrols, security patrols, and fixed patrols use?

Select one of the following:

  • Hand and arm signals and base station remote

  • Portable hand held radio

  • mobile two-way radio

  • Base station

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

What is the purpose of call signs?

Select one of the following:

  • To return entire transmission back to sender

  • For use as an order, a request, or as information

  • To separate the text from other portions of the message

  • To simplify, clarify, and make communications more protected

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Localized training alarm monitors receive must be approved by the..

Select one of the following:

  • installation commander

  • operations officer

  • major command

  • Chief, Security Forces

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms?

Select one of the following:

  • MAJCOM/DET

  • AFSFC/DET

  • AFDFC/A7R

  • USAFA/A7S

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

Conducting building checks is an excellent form of..

Select one of the following:

  • exercise

  • in processing

  • intelligence gathering

  • proactive crime prevention

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

When conducting a building check, what is the FIRST step you take if you find a building with signs of forced entry?

Select one of the following:

  • Contact the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) and inform the controller of the incident

  • Take cover in a position that allows you to observe the building

  • Enter the building and conduct a room-to-room search for suspects

  • Make contact with the on-duty K9 patrol and initiate an off-leash search

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

What is your FIRST responsibility when assuming your post as an installation access controller (IAC)

Select one of the following:

  • Conduct a post changeover

  • Test your radio and duress system

  • Call Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) and tell them you have arrived

  • Change the radio station, store your gear, and relax

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Which is NOT a required piece of equipment for Security Forces personnel?

Select one of the following:

  • Flashlight

  • Commercial Radio

  • Handcuffs with key

  • Cold/foul weather gear

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Which confinement facility or joint regional correctional facility is used to house all male confines with sentences over 10 years?

Select one of the following:

  • Level 1 RCF

  • Level 1 CF

  • Level 2 CF

  • Level 3 CF

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Which US military service is the executive agency for Level 3 corrections

Select one of the following:

  • Naval Brigade

  • Marine Corps

  • Air Force

  • Army

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

The humane treatment/incarceration procedures of confines is the operational responsibility of the..

Select one of the following:

  • Wing commander

  • Security Forces manager

  • Chief, Security Forces

  • Installation commander and defense force commander

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Individuals awaiting the filing of charges, disposition of charges, trial by courts-martial, or trial by foreign court are designated as..

Select one of the following:

  • pretrial detainees

  • pretrial convicts

  • post-trial confinees

  • stand-by detainees

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Which custody classification is assigned to confinees who may by assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervision?

Select one of the following:

  • Trustee

  • Minimum

  • Maximum

  • Medium

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

What are the two types of searches used in confinement facilities?

Select one of the following:

  • Complete and frisk

  • Simple and complete

  • Initial and simple

  • Complete and modest frisk

Explanation

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