Joe Panuto
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Fire Detection and Alarm Systems

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Joe Panuto
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Fire Detection and Alarm Systems

Question 1 of 65

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1. Who designs fire detection and alarm systems? (446)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Fire marshals

  • B. Code inspectors

  • C. Building engineers

  • D. Fire protection engineers

Explanation

Question 2 of 65

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2. Which of the following components of a fire detection and alarm system is responsible for processing signals from detection devices and transmitting them to alerting devices? (447)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Smoke alarm

  • B. Power supply

  • C. System device

  • D. Fire alarm control panel (FACP)

Explanation

Question 3 of 65

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3. Which of the following statements regarding a fire detection and alarm system dedicated branch circuit is MOST accurate? (448)

Select one of the following:

  • A. It must be easily accessible.

  • B. It must be marked in orange.

  • C. It must be mechanically protected.

  • D. It must be permanently identified as DEDICATED CIRCUIT.

Explanation

Question 4 of 65

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4. A secondary power supply must be able to make the system fully operational within how long of the main supply’s failure? (448)

Select one of the following:

  • A. 15 seconds

  • B. 30 seconds

  • C. 1 minute

  • D. 2 minutes

Explanation

Question 5 of 65

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5. Which of the following statements regarding system devices is LEAST accurate? (449-450)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They may be manual.

  • B. They may be activated by flame.

  • C. They may send a signal to the FACP by computer line.

  • D. They may utilize signaling devices such as strobe lights.

Explanation

Question 6 of 65

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6. Which of the following statements regarding automatic alarm-initiating devices is LEAST accurate? (451-452)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They may detect both heat and smoke.

  • B. They continuously monitor the atmosphere of a structure.

  • C. Devices send a signal to the FACP when atmospheric changes are detected.

  • D. Smoke detectors are the only device that will not activate due to excessive moisture.

Explanation

Question 7 of 65

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7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fixed-temperature heat detectors? (452)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They are very expensive.

  • B. They are the slowest type to activate.

  • C. They are among the oldest in service.

  • D. They are the least prone to false activations.

Explanation

Question 8 of 65

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8. Which of the following statements regarding fixed-temperature heat detectors is MOST accurate? (452)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They must be coded with pictographs.

  • B. They must be marked with listed operating temperatures.

  • C. They use one of five primary principles of physics to detect heat.

  • D. They must be placed in areas where heat is not likely to accumulate.

Explanation

Question 9 of 65

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9. Which of the following components of fixed-temperature heat detectors holds a spring device in the detector in an open position? (453)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Fusible link

  • B. Wire clamp

  • C. Bimetallic strip

  • D. Frangible bulb

Explanation

Question 10 of 65

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10. In which of the following types of fixed-temperature heat detectors can two types of metal with different heat-expansion ratios be found? (454)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Duoburn

  • B. Bimetallic

  • C. Continuous-line

  • D. Fragmented-line

Explanation

Question 11 of 65

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11. In which of the following types of fixed-temperature heat detectors is conductive metal core cable sheathed in stainless steel tubing? (454)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Duoburn

  • B. Bimetallic

  • C. Continuous-line

  • D. Fragmented-line

Explanation

Question 12 of 65

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12. Rate-of-rise heat detectors: (456)

Select one of the following:

  • A. are unreliable.

  • B. are manually reset.

  • C. often falsely activate due to the presence of toxic gases.

  • D. send a signal when rise in temperature exceeds a set amount.

Explanation

Question 13 of 65

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13. Which of the following types of heat detectors is not self-contained and includes a flexible diaphragm that responds to an increase in pressure from tubing? (456)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Rate-compensation

  • B. Electronic spot-type

  • C. Pneumatic rate-of-rise line

  • D. Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot

Explanation

Question 14 of 65

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14. Which of the following types of heat detectors has alarm wiring that extends from the detector to the FACP and includes a flexible diaphragm that responds to an increase in pressure from tubing? (456)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Rate-compensation

  • B. Electronic spot-type

  • C. Pneumatic rate-of-rise line

  • D. Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot

Explanation

Question 15 of 65

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15. Which of the following types of heat detectors is used in areas subject to regular temperature changes at rates slower than those of fire conditions? (456)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Rate-compensation

  • B. Electronic spot-type

  • C. Pneumatic rate-of-rise line

  • D. Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot

Explanation

Question 16 of 65

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16. Which of the following types of heat detectors consists of one or more thermistors and produces a marked change in resistance when exposed to heat? (457)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Rate-compensation

  • B. Electronic spot-type

  • C. Pneumatic rate-of-rise line

  • D. Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot

Explanation

Question 17 of 65

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17. Which of the following statements regarding smoke detectors is MOST accurate? (458)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Their performance is affected by few factors.

  • B. They sense fire more slowly than heat-detection devices.

  • C. They are tested and listed by third-party testing services.

  • D. They may respond to differing fire tests based on authority having jurisdiction (AHJ).

Explanation

Question 18 of 65

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18. Which of the following types of smoke detectors works on all types of fires and is best suited for living rooms and bedrooms? (458)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Ionization

  • B. Low-flame

  • C. High-heat

  • D. Photoelectric

Explanation

Question 19 of 65

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19. Which application of smoke detectors uses a beam of light focused across a monitored area onto a photoelectric-receiving device? (459)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Reflectory

  • B. Refractory

  • C. Mirrored-beam

  • D. Projected-beam

Explanation

Question 20 of 65

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20. Which application of smoke detectors uses a beam of light from a light-emitting diode that passes through a small chamber at a point distant from the light source? (459)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Reflectory

  • B. Refractory

  • C. Mirrored-beam

  • D. Projected-beam

Explanation

Question 21 of 65

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21. Which of the following types of smoke detectors responds more quickly to flaming fires? (461)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Ionization

  • B. Low-flame

  • C. High-heat

  • D. Photoelectric

Explanation

Question 22 of 65

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22. Which of the following types of light is NOT detected by flame detectors? (462)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Infrared

  • B. Ultraviolet

  • C. Infrared and pulsed

  • D. Ultraviolet and infrared

Explanation

Question 23 of 65

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23. Which of the following statements regarding flame detectors is MOST accurate? (462)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They are the slowest to respond to fires.

  • B. They are not easily tripped by nonfire conditions.

  • C. They must be placed in areas where triggers are limited.

  • D. They may be positioned out of the way of the protected area.

Explanation

Question 24 of 65

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24. Infrared wave spectrum (IR) detectors are designed to respond to 1 square foot (0.09 m2) of fire from a distance of ___ feet (m). (463)

Select one of the following:

  • A. 25 (7)

  • B. 50 (16)

  • C. 75 (23)

  • D. 100 (30)

Explanation

Question 25 of 65

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25. Which of the following statements regarding fire-gas detectors is LEAST accurate? (463)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They may monitor carbon dioxide.

  • B. They operate faster than a heat detector.

  • C. They operate faster than a smoke detector.

  • D. They may use semiconductors to sense a particular gas.

Explanation

Question 26 of 65

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26. Which of the following is NOT a type of combination detector? (464)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Heat/smoke

  • B. Smoke/fire-gas

  • C. Fixed rate/smoke

  • D. Fixed rate/rate-of-rise

Explanation

Question 27 of 65

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27. Which of the following statements regarding water-flow devices is LEAST accurate? (464)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They may notify the FACP.

  • B. They are manual initiating devices.

  • C. They activate a gong when water begins flowing.

  • D. They are required on automatic sprinkler systems.

Explanation

Question 28 of 65

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28. Which of the following statements regarding tamper switches is MOST accurate? (464)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They monitor secondary shutoff valves.

  • B. They are supervised by automatic sprinkler systems.

  • C. They monitor air pressure in wet-pipe sprinkler systems.

  • D. They report to the FACP when the main water shutoff valve is closed.

Explanation

Question 29 of 65

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29. How should manual alarm-initiating devices be marked? (464)

Select one of the following:

  • A. White with red lettering

  • B. Red with white lettering

  • C. Orange with black lettering

  • D. Yellow with orange lettering

Explanation

Question 30 of 65

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30. According to NFPA® 72, manual alarm-initiating devices should have a travel distance not exceeding how far? (464)

Select one of the following:

  • A. 100 feet (30 m)

  • B. 150 feet (45 m)

  • C. 200 feet (60 m)

  • D. 250 feet (75 m)

Explanation

Question 31 of 65

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31. Which of the following statements regarding manual alarm-initiating devices is MOST accurate? (464)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Breakable glass must surround the device.

  • B. Multistory facilities should have at least one per floor.

  • C. They are intended for use when buildings are unoccupied.

  • D. They are required in all structures with automatic sprinkler systems.

Explanation

Question 32 of 65

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32. In which of the following types of manual pull station devices does a lever move into alarm position and send a signal to the FACP when the station lever is pulled? (466)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Multi-action

  • B. Triple-action

  • C. Single-action

  • D. Double-action

Explanation

Question 33 of 65

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33. In which of the following types of manual pull station devices does the operator lift a cover to access the alarm control? (466)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Multi-action

  • B. Triple-action

  • C. Single-action

  • D. Double-action

Explanation

Question 34 of 65

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34. Which of the following statements regarding fire-alarm signaling systems is LEAST accurate? (467)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They may be complex.

  • B. They may include central station systems.

  • C. Their requirements are contained in NFPA® 72.

  • D. Their purpose is to alert entire neighborhoods of a problem.

Explanation

Question 35 of 65

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35. Which of the following is NOT a major type of fire-alarm signaling system? (467)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Proprietary system

  • B. Full coverage system

  • C. Remote receiving system

  • D. Protected premises system

Explanation

Question 36 of 65

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36. Which of the following statements about a protected premises alarm system is MOST accurate? (467)

Select one of the following:

  • A. It must be manually activated.

  • B. It must have outside supervision.

  • C. It may perform off-site reporting.

  • D. It can activate other auxiliary services.

Explanation

Question 37 of 65

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37. Which of the following types of protected premises systems sounds all fire alarms the same regardless of the location of the initiating device? (468)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Limited alarm

  • B. Addressable alarm

  • C. Noncoded local alarm

  • D. Zoned/annunciated alarm

Explanation

Question 38 of 65

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38. Which of the following types of protected premises systems enables responders to quickly identify the general location of a fire? (469)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Limited alarm

  • B. Addressable alarm

  • C. Noncoded local alarm

  • D. Zoned/annunciated alarm

Explanation

Question 39 of 65

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39. Which of the following types of protected premises systems ensures that responders can pinpoint the specific activated device and reduces time taken to respond to emergencies? (470)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Limited alarm

  • B. Addressable alarm

  • C. Noncoded local alarm

  • D. Zoned/annunciated alarm

Explanation

Question 40 of 65

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40. Which of the following statements regarding auxiliary fire alarm systems is MOST accurate? (470)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They are rarely connected to municipal fire alarm systems.

  • B. Their alarms cannot be transmitted to a public fire telecommunications center.

  • C. Their alarms are significantly different than those transmitted over manual fire alarm boxes.

  • D. They are connected to a municipal fire alarm system and are the same as those transmitted over manual fire alarm boxes.

Explanation

Question 41 of 65

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41. Which of the following types of auxiliary fire alarms has its own power source? (470)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Shunt

  • B. Transmitting

  • C. Local energy

  • D. Independent

Explanation

Question 42 of 65

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42. Which of the following types of auxiliary fire alarms depends upon the municipal system’s source of power? (470)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Shunt

  • B. Transmitting

  • C. Local energy

  • D. Independent

Explanation

Question 43 of 65

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43. Which of the following types of systems has a receiving point located outside the protected premises and monitored by a contracted service? (472)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Auxiliary

  • B. Proprietary

  • C. Central station

  • D. Remote receiving

Explanation

Question 44 of 65

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44. Which of the following types of systems is connected directly to the fire department telecommunications center through a leased telephone line or other means? (472)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Standard

  • B. Proprietary

  • C. Central station

  • D. Remote receiving

Explanation

Question 45 of 65

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45. Which of the following types of systems protects large commercial and industrial buildings, with a receiving point on-site but remote from hazardous operations? (471)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Auxiliary

  • B. Proprietary

  • C. Central station

  • D. Remote receiving

Explanation

Question 46 of 65

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46. Which of the following types of systems has the ability to transmit a trouble signal to a remote site when the system is impaired? (472)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Auxiliary

  • B. Proprietary

  • C. Central station

  • D. Remote receiving

Explanation

Question 47 of 65

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47. Which of the following types of systems is most commonly connected by dedicated phone lines and sells services to many customers? (472)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Auxiliary

  • B. Proprietary

  • C. Central station

  • D. Remote receiving

Explanation

Question 48 of 65

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48. Which of the following statements regarding emergency voice/alarm communications systems is MOST accurate? (473)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They are unreliable.

  • B. They must be stand-alone.

  • C. They are a primary type of system.

  • D. They may be integrated directly into the overall system.

Explanation

Question 49 of 65

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49. Which of the following types of emergency voice/alarm communications systems allows people at other locations inside a building to communicate with the main control station? (473)

Select one of the following:

  • A. One-way

  • B. Two-way

  • C. Three-way

  • D. Integrated

Explanation

Question 50 of 65

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50. Which of the following statements regarding parallel telephone systems is LEAST accurate? (474)

Select one of the following:

  • A. They are not often found today.

  • B. They are increasing in popularity.

  • C. They are not to be used for any other purpose.

  • D. They include a dedicated phone line between each alarm box.

Explanation

Question 51 of 65

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51. Which of the following statements regarding service testing and periodic inspection of detection and alarm systems is MOST accurate? (477)

Select one of the following:

  • A. All tests must be witnessed by the fire department.

  • B. Testing intervals are uniform throughout all jurisdictions.

  • C. They should receive annual inspections by the manufacturer.

  • D. They should receive general inspections by the building owner.

Explanation

Question 52 of 65

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52. How often should nickel-cadmium and sealed lead-acid batteries be inspected? (477)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Monthly

  • B. Bimonthly

  • C. Semiannually

  • D. Annually

Explanation

Question 53 of 65

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53. How should all equipment be cleaned to be sure no foreign materials are present? (477)

Select one of the following:

  • A. With a dry cloth

  • B. With a vacuum cleaner

  • C. With a chlorine solution

  • D. With a pressure washer

Explanation

Question 54 of 65

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54. Which of the following statements regarding testing and inspection of alarm-initiating devices is LEAST accurate? (478)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Inspectors may witness their activation to ensure operability.

  • B. They should be sent to a testing laboratory if they are obviously corroded.

  • C. They must be in working order or the entire system is ineffective.

  • D. Inspections should only be performed prior to installation and annually thereafter.

Explanation

Question 55 of 65

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55. Which of the following is NOT an item to check when testing and inspecting alarm-initiating devices? (478)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Unobstructed access

  • B. Easy operation of units

  • C. Loosely closed unit housing

  • D. Replacement of impaired glass

Explanation

Question 56 of 65

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56. How many years should records of testing and inspection of alarm-initiating devices be kept? (478)

Select one of the following:

  • A. 3

  • B. 5

  • C. 7

  • D. 9

Explanation

Question 57 of 65

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57. What percentage of nonrestorable fixed-temperature detectors should be laboratory tested at the proper time? (479)

Select one of the following:

  • A. 2

  • B. 4

  • C. 6

  • D. 8

Explanation

Question 58 of 65

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58. How many detectors on each signal circuit of a restorable heat detection device should be tested semiannually? (479)

Select one of the following:

  • A. 1

  • B. 3

  • C. 5

  • D. 7

Explanation

Question 59 of 65

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59. How often should replaceable links on fusible link detectors be checked? (479)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Monthly

  • B. Bimonthly

  • C. Semiannually

  • D. Annually

Explanation

Question 60 of 65

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60. How often should smoke detectors be sensitivity tested after the first year of service? (479)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Every year

  • B. Every 2 years

  • C. Every 3 years

  • D. Every 4 years

Explanation

Question 61 of 65

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61. Which of the following statements regarding FACPs is MOST accurate? (479-480)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Occasional sticking is expected and may be excused.

  • B. At least one complete round of printed signals should be clearly visible.

  • C. At least two complete rounds of printed signals should be clearly visible.

  • D. The time stamp should indicate the time of signal within 75 percent accuracy.

Explanation

Question 62 of 65

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62. How often should supervisory equipment be tested? (480)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Weekly

  • B. Biweekly

  • C. Monthly

  • D. Bimonthly

Explanation

Question 63 of 65

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63. How often should manual fire alarm devices be tested? (480)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Monthly

  • B. Semiannually

  • C. Annually

  • D. Biannually

Explanation

Question 64 of 65

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64. How often should all parts of auxiliary fire-alarm systems be checked to ensure working order? (480)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Weekly

  • B. Biweekly

  • C. Monthly

  • D. Bimonthly

Explanation

Question 65 of 65

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65. How often should fire-detection components of remote station and proprietary systems be checked? (480)

Select one of the following:

  • A. Monthly

  • B. Semiannually

  • C. Annually

  • D. Biannually

Explanation

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