Posible Examen de Navegación Aérea

Question 1 of 55

1

1. The NAVSTAR/GPS control segment comprises:

Select one of the following:

a) The space segment the user segment and the ground segment
b) A ground segment and the INMARSAT geostationary satellites
c) A master control station, a back-up control station and five monitoring stations
d) A master control station, a back-up control station, five monitoring station and the INMARSAR geostationary satellites

Explanation

Question 2 of 55

1

2. The model of the earth used for NAVSTAR/GPS is:

Select one of the following:

a) Wgs90
b) Pz90
c) Wgs84
d) Pz84

Explanation

Question 3 of 55

1

2.2 The minimum number of satellites required for a 3D fix is:

Select one of the following:

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

Explanation

Question 4 of 55

1

2.3 The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises how many satellites:

Select one of the following:

a) 12
b) 21
c) 24
d) 30

Explanation

Question 5 of 55

1

3. On the following display E what is approximate deviation from the required track?

Select one of the following:

a) 3nm
b) 8º
c) 3º
d) 1.5º

Explanation

Question 6 of 55

1

4.1 Which is the expanded ILS mode?

Select one of the following:

a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E

Explanation

Question 7 of 55

1

4.2 Which mode is display C?

Select one of the following:

a) Centre Map
b) Map
c) Plan
d) Expanded nav

Explanation

Question 8 of 55

1

4.3 Which mode is display A?

Select one of the following:

a) Full ILS
b) Full VOR
c) Full nav
d) Full map

Explanation

Question 9 of 55

1

5 The accuracy required of a precision area navigation system is:

Select one of the following:

a) 0.25 nm
b) 2 nm
c) 1 nm
d) 0.5 nm

Explanation

Question 10 of 55

1

6 A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from:

Select one of the following:

a) Twin DME
b) VOR/DME
c) Twin VOR
d) Any of the above

Explanation

Question 11 of 55

1

6.2 An aircraft using a basic 2D RNAV system is on a section between WP1 and WP2, a distance of 45nm. The aircraft is 20 nm from the phantom station which is 270º/30 nm from the VOR/DME. The aircraft is 15nm from the VOR/DME. The range readout will show:

Select one of the following:

a) 15nm
b) 20nm
c) 25nm
d) 30nm

Explanation

Question 12 of 55

1

7 The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar is stabilized:

Select one of the following:

a) In Pitch, roll and yaw
b) In pitch and roll
c) In pitch and roll but only when 0º tilt has been selected
d) In pitch and roll whether the stabilization is on or off

Explanation

Question 13 of 55

1

8 A false indication of water maybe given by the AWR display when:

Select one of the following:

a) Flying over land with the Land/sea switch in the sea position
b) Flying over mountainous terrain
c) There is cloud and precipitation between the aircraft and a cloud target
d) Attempting to use the mapping beam for mapping in excess of 50nm.

Explanation

Question 14 of 55

1

11. Airborne DME equipment is sable to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and pulses intended for other aircraft because:

Select one of the following:

a) Aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies.
b) Aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses
c) Aircraft reject pulses not synchronized with its own random pulse recurrence rate
d) Each aircraft has its own frequency allocation

Explanation

Question 15 of 55

1

12. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within

Select one of the following:

a) 3% of rangev
b) 1.25% of range
c) 0.5 nm
d) +/-0.25 +/-1.25% of range

Explanation

Question 16 of 55

1

12.2 The DME____

Select one of the following:

a) Utilizes paired pulses transmitted from ground station to the aircraft at a specific spacing
b) Utilizes paired pulses transmitted from the aircraft to a ground station at a specific spacing
c) Utilizes paired pulses transmitted from ground station to the aircraft at a specific frequency
d) Utilizes paired pulses transmitted from the aircraft to a ground station at a specific frequency

Explanation

Question 17 of 55

1

12.3 About DME

Select one of the following:

a) Provides ground distance from aircraft to the station. By applying a simple formula can also know the slant Range
b) The GS provided by the DME equipment can be consider valid when distance(DME) is minor than the height in thousands of feet 100
c) Above 5000 feet GS can always be considered exact, it doesn’t matter the DME distance.
d) All the options are false.

Explanation

Question 18 of 55

1

13. Si mantengo 240 kts Para virajes estándar (3º/seg) ¿Número de NM de anticipación?

Select one of the following:

a) 1.5
b) 2
c) 1.2
d) 0.5

Explanation

Question 19 of 55

1

13.2 In a TACAN approach we have to flight the 15 DME arc mile to intercept after radial 150 in approach. What anticipation do we need to start turning if your speed is 200 kts?

Select one of the following:

a) With 1radial anticipation
b) With 4 radial anticipation
c) With 2 radial anticipation
d) No anticipation is needed

Explanation

Question 20 of 55

1

14. ¿Qué ocurre cuando hay un fallo en el giróscopo de instrumentos con respecto al VOR y ADF?

Select one of the following:

a) Aparece banderola Nav
b) Aparece banderola HDG
c) Aparece banderola NDB
d) No hay indicación

Explanation

Question 21 of 55

1

15. The Flight Management System(FMS)___

Select one of the following:

a) Consist of a Flight Management Computer(FMC), one or more Control Display Units(CDU), one or more Display Unit(DU), a Data Base and an Emergency Navigation System
b) The FMS utilizes aircraft sensors and navigation database information to compute and display aircraft position, performance data, and navigation information during all phases of flight.
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Explanation

Question 22 of 55

1

16. About markers Beacons:

Select one of the following:

a) Three marker beacons are located along ILS final to “mark” a specific position along the approach course, and are depicted on the terminal chart by the letters OM, MM an IM,. All of them must always be installed for every ILS approach.
b) Minimum are normally reached at or near de MM whereby if an aircraft is on glideslope, it will be at an altitude of approximately 200 feet above the elevation of the touchdown zone. The MM may not be used as the sole method of identifying the MAPt.
c) Inner marker- A marker beacon located between the MM and the OM, transmitting a radiation pattern keyed at six dots per second and indicating to the pilot, both aurally and visually, that he/she is at the designated decision height(DH), normally 100 feet above touchdown zone elevation.
d) Marker beacons are not installed for navigation purposes, but indicate a specific point on the localizer course to provide information of aircraft position in relation to the runway. If it were not possible to install marker beacons would be wishable to have a DME system associated.

Explanation

Question 23 of 55

1

17. ¿Which component doesn’t belong to the ILS ground equipment?

Select one of the following:

a) Two highly directional transmitting systems
b) As many as three marker beacons or compass locators
c) Optional DME transmitters
d) Malfunction indication system

Explanation

Question 24 of 55

1

18. The “TO and FROM” indicators in the HIS depend on the heading that you are maintaining in your aircraft:

Select one of the following:

a) True
b) False

Explanation

Question 25 of 55

1

19. An aircraft bears 175º from a VOR. If the aircraft OBS is set to 002 and its heading is 359º(M) which diagram below represents the aircraft VOR/ILS deviation indicator?

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 26 of 55

1

20. A radio wave is

Select one of the following:

a) An energy wave comprising an electrical field in the same plane as a magnetic field
b) An electrical field alternating with a magnetic field
c) An energy wave where there is an electrical field perpendicular to a magnetic field
d) An energy field with an electrical component

Explanation

Question 27 of 55

1

21. The formula of the radio wave to is: (no aparece en ningun lado esto es lo que dice cachón)
Wave longitude=c/frequency

Select one of the following:

a
b

Explanation

Question 28 of 55

1

22. The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 6.98 cm is:

Select one of the following:

a) 4298 GHz
b) 4,298 GHz
c) 429,8 GHz
d) 42,98 GHz

Explanation

Question 29 of 55

1

22.2 If the wavelength of a radio wave is 3.75 metres, the frequency is:

Select one of the following:

a) 80kHz
b) 8MHZ
c) 80MHz
d) 800kHz

Explanation

Question 30 of 55

1

23. The process which causes the reduction in signal strength as range from a transmitter increases is known as:

Select one of the following:

a) Absortion
b) Diffraction
c) Attenuation
d) ionisation

Explanation

Question 31 of 55

1

24. When flying over the sea and using an inland NDB to fix position with a series of position lines, the plotted position in relation to the aircraft’s actual position will be:

Select one of the following:

a) Further from the coast
b) Closer to the coast
c) Co-incident
d) Inaccurate due to the transmitted wave front decelerating

Explanation

Question 32 of 55

1

25. ADF Quadrantal Error is caused by:

Select one of the following:

a) Static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo’s Fire
b) The aircraft’s major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming NDB transmissions.
c) Station interference and/or night effect
d) NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation path.

Explanation

Question 33 of 55

1

25.2 The phenomenon of coastal rafractation which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings:

Select one of the following:

a) Is most marked at night
b) Can be minimized by using beacons situated well inland
c) Can be minimized by taking bearings where the signal crosses the costline at right angles
d) Os most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset

Explanation

Question 34 of 55

1

26. What is the difference between VOR and DVOR(Doppler VOR):

Select one of the following:

a) The DVOR provides DME distance to the station
b) The DVOR is second generation VOR but provides the same signal quality and accuracy as a regular VOR
c) The DVOR is the combination of TACAN and VOR
d) The DVOR avoids errors caused by reflected signals

Explanation

Question 35 of 55

1

27. The coverage of an ILS localizer extend to__ either side of the on course line out to a range of _ nm.

Select one of the following:

a) 10º, 35
b) 35º, 10
c) 35º, 17
d) 25º, 25

Explanation

Question 36 of 55

1

28. The coverage of the ILS glideslope in azimuth is: (27.1)

Select one of the following:

a) ±8 out to 10nm
b) ±10º out to 8nm
c) ±12º out to 17nm
d) ±35º out to 25nm

Explanation

Question 37 of 55

1

29. An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localizer inbound on the approach side but outside the published coverage angle:

Select one of the following:

a) Will receive false on-course or reverse sense signals
b) Will not normally receive signals
c) Will receive signals without coding
d) Can expect signals to give control indications.

Explanation

Question 38 of 55

1

30. The coverage of the Micro-wave landing system in the UK extends to __nm up to a height of_ and___degrees either side of the on course line.

Select one of the following:

a) 20nm; 20000ft; 40 degrees
b) 35nm; 5000ft; 40 degrees
c) 35nm; 5000ft; 30 degrees
d) 17nm; 2000ft; 35 degrees

Explanation

Question 39 of 55

1

31. The colours used to denote variations in rainfall rate on an Airborne Weather Radar screen are ___ for very light or no returns,_ for light returns,_ for medium returns and ____ for strong returns.

Select one of the following:

a) Black, yellow, green, magenta
b) Black, green, yellow, magenta
c) Grey, green, yellow, red
d) Black, green, yellow, red.

Explanation

Question 40 of 55

1

32. Airborne weather radar is an example _ of radar operating on a frequency of in the ___band.

Select one of the following:

a) Primary 8800Mhz SHF
b) Secondary 9.375Mhz UHF
c) Secondary 9375Mhz SHF
d) Primary 9375 Mhz SHF

Explanation

Question 41 of 55

1

33. If the SSR transponder IDENT button is pressed

Select one of the following:

a) It causes a momentary distinctive display to appear on the controller’s screen.
b) An identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35µ sec before the last framing pulse
c) An identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 10 seconds, 4.35µ sec after the las framing pulse.
d) An identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds 4.35µ sec after last framing pulse

Explanation

Question 42 of 55

1

34. The special SSR codes are as follows; emergency_ radio failure, entering UK airspace_, unlawful interference with the conduct of the flight__:

Select one of the following:

a) 7700; 7600; 2000; 7500
b) 7700; 7600; 7500; 2000
c) 7600; 7500; 2000; 7700
d) 7500; 7600; 2000; 7700

Explanation

Question 43 of 55

1

35. Secondary radar require:

Select one of the following:

a) A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft
b) A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground based
c) A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft or a ground based transponder
d) A quiescent target

Explanation

Question 44 of 55

1

36. On receipt of TCAS RA your action Is to:

Select one of the following:

a) Initiate the required manoeuver immediately
b) Make a note of the details
c) Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC
d) Do nothing until a TA is received

Explanation

Question 45 of 55

1

37. The aural messages provided by TCAS II are:

Select one of the following:

a) Threat, climb; threat, descend
b) Climb left, Climb right, Descend left, Descend right.
c) Climb, descend, increase climb, increase descent
d) Turn left, Turn right, Increase turn, Decrease turn.

Explanation

Question 46 of 55

1

38. A conventional VOR

Select one of the following:

a) Has an FM refenrence signal and an AM variable signal
b) Has a 150Hz reference signal and a 90Hz variable signal
c) Has an AM reference signal and a 150Hz variable signal
d) Has an AM reference signal and a FM variable signal

Explanation

Question 47 of 55

1

40. We are flying over LISAS that is in radial 343, 40 miles from JOA, and the ATC want us to fly to MUROS, that is radial 059 and 18 milles from JOA. What bearing should we have to put in order to arrive to MUROS?

Select one of the following:

a) 240
b) 135
c) 330
d) 085

Explanation

Question 48 of 55

1

41. intercept the QDM 180:
dist: 27NM

Select one of the following:

a) 150
b) 300
c) 270
d) 285

Explanation

Question 49 of 55

1

42. intercept the QDR 080:
dist: 10NM

Select one of the following:

e) 100
f) 110
g) 040
h) 030

Explanation

Question 50 of 55

1

43. intercept the QDR 300:
dist: 50NM

Select one of the following:

a) 1º 300; 2º 345
b) 1º 120; 2º 165
c) 1º 300; 2º 210
d) 1º 300; 2º 255

Explanation

Question 51 of 55

1

44. Which heading do you have to mantein to proceed from present position to Terto?
Terto is on radial 015/15NM

Select one of the following:

a) 265º
b) 015º
c) 295º
d) 310º

Explanation

Question 52 of 55

1

45. Which heading do you have to maintain to proceed from present position to Korno?
Korno is on radial 210/20NM

Select one of the following:

a) 250º
b) 300º
c) 280º
d) 210º

Explanation

Question 53 of 55

1

28.2 Which of these ILS indicators shows an aircraft on final approach left of the center line and at maximum safe deviation below the glide path

Select one of the following:

a
b
c
d

Explanation

Question 54 of 55

1

29.2 An aircraft is attempting to use ILS approach outside the coverage sectors of an ICAO standard system:

Select one of the following:

a) From the glideslope needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse sense indications and from the localizer needle intermittent and incorrect indications.
b) The aircraft’s receiver is not detecting any transmissions and the ILS needle OFF flags are visible
c) From the localizer needle the captain may be receiving false course and intermittent indications and from the glideslope needle reverse sense and incorrect indications.
d) From the localizer needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse sense indications and from the glideslope needle intermittent and incorrect indications.

Explanation

Question 55 of 55

1

39. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:

Select one of the following:

a) RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC
b) RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity
c) RAs mist never be disregarded
d) RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary.

	Created by Juanan Aroca Balsalobre over 6 years ago

Navegación Aérea Quiz on Posible Examen de Navegación Aérea, created by Juanan Aroca Balsalobre on 25/11/2017.

Posible Examen de Navegación Aérea

Posible Examen de Navegación Aérea

Question 1 of 55

1. The NAVSTAR/GPS control segment comprises:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 55

2. The model of the earth used for NAVSTAR/GPS is:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 55

2.2 The minimum number of satellites required for a 3D fix is:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 55

2.3 The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises how many satellites:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 55

3. On the following display E what is approximate deviation from the required track?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 55

4.1 Which is the expanded ILS mode?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 55

4.2 Which mode is display C?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 55

4.3 Which mode is display A?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 55

5 The accuracy required of a precision area navigation system is:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 55

6 A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 55

6.2 An aircraft using a basic 2D RNAV system is on a section between WP1 and WP2, a distance of 45nm. The aircraft is 20 nm from the phantom station which is 270º/30 nm from the VOR/DME. The aircraft is 15nm from the VOR/DME. The range readout will show:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 55

7 The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar is stabilized:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 55

8 A false indication of water maybe given by the AWR display when:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 55

11. Airborne DME equipment is sable to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and pulses intended for other aircraft because:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 55

12. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 55

12.2 The DME____

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 55

12.3 About DME

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 55

13. Si mantengo 240 kts Para virajes estándar (3º/seg) ¿Número de NM de anticipación?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 55

13.2 In a TACAN approach we have to flight the 15 DME arc mile to intercept after radial 150 in approach. What anticipation do we need to start turning if your speed is 200 kts?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 55

21. The formula of the radio wave to is: (no aparece en ningun lado esto es lo que dice cachón)
Wave longitude=c/frequency

27. The coverage of an ILS localizer extend to__ either side of the on course line out to a range of _ nm.