Katie L
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Microbiology 240 Quiz on Micro, created by Katie L on 27/11/2017.

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Katie L
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Question 1 of 98

1

What is used for Oxacillin Screens?

Select one of the following:

  • MH + oxacillin

  • MH + 4% NaCl + oxacillin

  • MH with Sheep blood + 4% NaCl + oxacillin

  • MH with sheep blood + Oxacillin

Explanation

Question 2 of 98

1

What is used in a vancomycin screen?

Select one of the following:

  • BHI + vanc

  • BHI + vanc + 4% NaCl

  • MH + vanc + 4% NaCl

  • MH + vanc

Explanation

Question 3 of 98

1

If the MIC is 0.08ug/mL for a staphylococcus aureus organism, how should we report this?

Select one of the following:

  • report as resistant

  • report as susceptible

  • it is not relevant

  • confirm susceptibility with penicillin zone edge test

Explanation

Question 4 of 98

1

Which of these are associated with infection control significant VRE organisms?

Select one of the following:

  • vanC gene

  • vanA and VanB gene

  • yellow pigment of colonies

  • motility observed on wet prep

Explanation

Question 5 of 98

1

what should you expect to see on an MRSA select II agar?

Select one or more of the following:

  • magenta colonies

  • no growth

  • blue colonies

  • growth if it is MRSA

  • growth if it is MSSA

Explanation

Question 6 of 98

1

What additional testing should you do if you see growth on MRSA select II agar?

Select one or more of the following:

  • staphaurex

  • tube coagulase

  • PBP2' agglutination

  • oxacillin screen

  • vancomycin screen

  • oxidase

Explanation

Question 7 of 98

1

What are the next steps for growth on a brilliance VRE?

Select one of the following:

  • gram stain and catalase

  • gram stain

  • gram stain and oxidase

Explanation

Question 8 of 98

1

what do you expect to see with an VRE organism?

Select one or more of the following:

  • gram positive cocci in chains and pairs

  • catalase negative

  • PYR positive

  • DNase positive

Explanation

Question 9 of 98

1

What are the next steps after PYR is performed on a VRE suspect?

Select one or more of the following:

  • vitek GPI

  • vitek AST

  • vancomycin screen

  • oxacillin screen

  • penicillin screen

Explanation

Question 10 of 98

1

What will grow on a BEAA plate?

Select one of the following:

  • staphylococcus species

  • enterobacteriacaea species

  • haemophilus species

  • enterococcus species

Explanation

Question 11 of 98

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

A penicillin zone edge test will give a edge.

Explanation

Question 12 of 98

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Penicillin zone edge test is more sensitive for detection.

Explanation

Question 13 of 98

1

A negative penicillin zone edge test will have a beach edge.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 98

1

when do we call ICP (infection control practitioner)?

Select one of the following:

  • isolated a super bug i.e. MRSA

  • isolated GC

  • isolated S.pneumoniae

Explanation

Question 15 of 98

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Methicillin Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) isolated. Please follow procedures. Further report to follow.

Explanation

Question 16 of 98

1

How do we differentiate between a class A ESBL and a class C ESBL?

Select one of the following:

  • Phenotypic confirmatory testing

  • PYR

  • Staphaurex

  • Bile Esculin hydrolysis

Explanation

Question 17 of 98

1

Class A ESBL organisms are inhibited by?

Select one of the following:

  • beta-lactamase inhibitors

  • clavulanic acid

  • penicillins

  • clindamycin

Explanation

Question 18 of 98

1

What classifies a class A ESBL?

Select one or more of the following:

  • potentiation when combined with clavulanic acid

  • susceptible to cefoxitin

  • resistance to cefoxitin

  • zone of >15mm on cefoxitin

Explanation

Question 19 of 98

1

class C ESBLs are resistant to 3rd generation cephalosporins, clavulanic acid and cephamycins such as cefoxitin.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 98

1

SPICE group are intrinsically resistant to ampicillin, cephalosporins and cefoxitin.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 98

1

What antibiotics are used in PCT?

Select one or more of the following:

  • cefotaxime

  • cefotaxime + clavulanic acid

  • ceftazidime

  • ceftazidime + clavulanic acid

  • cefoxitin

  • vancomycin + clavulanic acid

  • ampicillin + clavulanic acid

  • ampicillin

  • vancomycin

Explanation

Question 22 of 98

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Escherichia coli class ESBL. Please follow procedures.

Explanation

Question 23 of 98

1

SPICE organisms are;

Select one or more of the following:

  • Serratia spp.

  • pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • indole positive proteus (morganella and providencia spp.)

  • citrobacter spp.

  • enterobacter spp.

Explanation

Question 24 of 98

1

Which antibiotics are reported as resistant with a class A ESBL?

Select one or more of the following:

  • all beta-lactam drugs

  • carbapenems

  • cephamycin

  • beta-lactam inhibitor combinations

Explanation

Question 25 of 98

1

Which antibiotics are not reported as resistant for a class A ESBL?

Select one or more of the following:

  • carbapenems

  • cephamycins

  • penicillin

  • oxacillin

Explanation

Question 26 of 98

1

Bacterial meningitis in neonates can be caused by

Select one or more of the following:

  • Group B streptococcus

  • E.coli

  • Listeria monocytogenes

  • Neisseria meningitidis

Explanation

Question 27 of 98

1

Bacterial meningitis in infants 6 months to 5 years old can be caused by?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Haemophilus influenza type b

  • Neisseria meningitidis

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • E.coli

Explanation

Question 28 of 98

1

Bacterial meningitis in older children and adults can be caused by?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • Neisseria meningitidis

  • Listeria monocytogenes

  • Group B Streptococcus

Explanation

Question 29 of 98

1

What is normal skin flora?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bacillus spp

  • Corynebacterium spp. diphtheroids, urea negative

  • coagulase negative Staphylococcus species except for S. lugdunensis

  • Proprionibacterium spp

  • Alpha hemolytic streptococcus

  • Nonpathogenic Neisseria spp

  • Bacteroides spp

  • Enterobacteriaceae spp

Explanation

Question 30 of 98

1

For an aerotolerance test, what disks do you use for a GPC?

Select one of the following:

  • bile

  • SPS

Explanation

Question 31 of 98

1

For an aerotolerance test, what disks would you use for a GNB?

Select one of the following:

  • bile

  • SPS

Explanation

Question 32 of 98

1

You must report AST for superficial ear and eye isolates.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 98

1

When do you use a NYC plate?

Select one or more of the following:

  • When GC is requested by doctor

  • When GC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1

  • When the patient is under 2 weeks old

  • When GPDC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1

Explanation

Question 34 of 98

1

Bodily fluids such as CSF or tympanocentesis fluid will contain some normal flora.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 98

1

What organism is this? oxidase+, nitrate reduced to nitrite, GNDC, strict aerobic, on BA-sm, grey, NH, dry

Select one or more of the following:

  • Moraxella catarrhalis

  • Neisseria meningitis

  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Explanation

Question 36 of 98

1

What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase-, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need V factor

Select one of the following:

  • Haemophilus parainfluenza

  • Haemophilus influenzae

Explanation

Question 37 of 98

1

What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase+, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need X and V factor

Select one of the following:

  • Haemophilus influenzae

  • Haemophilus parainfluenzae

Explanation

Question 38 of 98

1

What organism is this? strict anaerobe, large GPB, double zone hemolysis, reverse camp+, catalase-

Select one of the following:

  • Clostridium perfringens

  • Clostridium spp

  • Bacillus spp

Explanation

Question 39 of 98

1

what organism is this? large GPB, large tan colonies, BH, motile at RT and 35 degrees

Select one of the following:

  • Bacillus spp

  • Clostridium perfringens

  • corynebacterium spp

Explanation

Question 40 of 98

1

What organism is this? sm GNB, on BA-med grey NH, catalase+, strict anaerobe

Select one of the following:

  • Bacteriodes spp

  • Enterobacteriacaea spp

  • Listeria monocytogenes

Explanation

Question 41 of 98

1

What organism is this? facultative, sm GPB, urea negative, on BA-sm white NH

Select one of the following:

  • Corynebacterium diphtheroid

  • Corynebacterium ulcerans

  • Listeria monocytogenes

Explanation

Question 42 of 98

1

What causes the Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Enterovirus

  • Hentavirus

  • Parvovirus

  • Rubivirus

Explanation

Question 43 of 98

1

What is the role of micro RNA?

Select one of the following:

  • keeps latent virus-infected cells alive

  • it is a part of prions

  • RNA codes for micro proteins

Explanation

Question 44 of 98

1

A 55-year old make just returned from a trip from Saudi Arabia. He was rushed to the ER with symptoms of acute respiratory illness. His condition rapidly progressed to pneumonitis and multi-organ failure. This patient has:

Select one of the following:

  • Tularemia

  • Cat Scratch disease

  • Rat bite fever

  • MERS

  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Explanation

Question 45 of 98

1

What animals have been found to be carriers of MERS?

Select one of the following:

  • Bat

  • Rabbit

  • Camel

  • All of the above

  • Camel and Bats

Explanation

Question 46 of 98

1

Which of these viruses causes MERS?

Select one of the following:

  • Hantavirus

  • Coronavirus

  • Lentivirus

  • Enterovirus

Explanation

Question 47 of 98

1

What is the gold standard for laboratory diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

Select one of the following:

  • Culture

  • Clinical presentation

  • Immunofluorescence

  • PCR

Explanation

Question 48 of 98

1

A 22-year old female was hiking in the Rocky Mountains. A few days later she had a headache, fever and flat pink macules on her trunk and ankles. The lab found Rickettsii rickettsia. What is the vector of this infection?

Select one of the following:

  • Mosquito

  • Tick

  • Black fly

  • Rat

Explanation

Question 49 of 98

1

What is the Gram stain and motility of the Rickettsii rickettsia infection?

Select one of the following:

  • GPB, motile

  • GPB, non-motile

  • GNB, motile

  • GNB, non-motile

Explanation

Question 50 of 98

1

What is the atmospheric preference of Brucella?

Select one of the following:

  • facultative anaerobe

  • strict anaerobe

  • strict aerobe

  • capnophile

  • strict aerobe and capnophile

Explanation

Question 51 of 98

1

Which of the following is NOT ta type of Brucella species?

Select one of the following:

  • Brucella suis

  • Brucella canis

  • Brucella abortus

  • Brucella melitensis

  • Brucella tigris

Explanation

Question 52 of 98

1

What clinical manifestation of Brucellosis?

Select one of the following:

  • arthritis

  • valve endocarditis

  • malta fever

  • Bieber fever

  • arthritis and malta fever

Explanation

Question 53 of 98

1

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for leptospirosis?

Select one of the following:

  • microscopic agglutination test (MAT)

  • MALDI

  • Latex agglutination

  • PCR

Explanation

Question 54 of 98

1

What does leptospirosis look like under dark-field microscopy?

Select one of the following:

  • tumbling motility

  • long bacilli

  • question mark/interrogation points

  • branching bacilli

Explanation

Question 55 of 98

1

A patient presents with meningoencephalitis with multi system involvement (jaundice, kidney failure). Chemistry results reveal elevated kidney and liver enzymes. Culturing the organism proved to be difficult. What bacterial disease is suspected?

Select one of the following:

  • Brucellosis

  • Leptospirosis

  • MERS

  • Plague

Explanation

Question 56 of 98

1

Which organism causes the plague?

Select one of the following:

  • Francisella tularensis

  • Leptospira interrogans

  • Yersinia pestis

  • Bartonella henselae

Explanation

Question 57 of 98

1

What is the main reservoir for the organism responsible for the plague?

Select one of the following:

  • birds

  • deer ticks

  • fleas of rats

  • cats

Explanation

Question 58 of 98

1

Which of the following correctly describes the Gram stain of the organism responsible for the plague?

Select one of the following:

  • GNB with 'safety pin' appearance

  • GPC pairs

  • Filamentous GPB

  • large GPB with subterminal spores

Explanation

Question 59 of 98

1

What organism causes Rat Bite Fever?

Select one of the following:

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • Capnocytophaga canimorsus

  • Streptobacillus moniliformis

  • Pasteurella multocida

Explanation

Question 60 of 98

1

What is the virulence factor of Streptobacillus moniliformis?

Select one of the following:

  • inhibits phagocytosis

  • convert to D form allowing it to survive in the host

  • convert to L form allowing it to survive in the host

  • secretes pyogenic toxin

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 61 of 98

1

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Streptocbacillus moniformis?

Select one of the following:

  • molar tooth

  • fried egg

  • dry, hockey puck

  • medusa head

  • no distinct characteristic

Explanation

Question 62 of 98

1

Laboratory diagnosis of hantavirus includes the following techniques except?

Select one of the following:

  • IgM antibody detection

  • PCR

  • Viral culture

  • Rising IgG antibody titre

  • Immunohistochemistry

Explanation

Question 63 of 98

1

Which zoonotic microorganism is associated with potentially fatal pulmonary symptoms which have been described as a sensation of ‘tight band around chest’ or ‘pillow over the face’?

Select one of the following:

  • Zika virus

  • Francisella tularensis

  • Bartonella henselae

  • Hantavirus

Explanation

Question 64 of 98

1

What is the primary strategy for preventing hantavirus infection?

Select one of the following:

  • Usage of insect repellent

  • Avoidance of contact with feral cats

  • Improved water quality and sanitation

  • Avoidance of pigeon droppings

  • Rodent control in and around the home

Explanation

Question 65 of 98

1

Which of the following causes microcephaly in infants?

Select one of the following:

  • Zika Virus

  • Cytomegalovirus

  • Rubella

  • All of the above

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 66 of 98

1

Which of the following is not a mode of transmission for Zika virus?

Select one of the following:

  • Mosquito bite

  • Airborne

  • Sexual contact

  • Infected mother to child

  • Blood transfusion

Explanation

Question 67 of 98

1

What condition can be associated with Zika virus?

Select one of the following:

  • Malaria

  • West Nile Fever

  • Yellow Fever

  • Guillain-Barre Syndrome

  • Chikungunya

Explanation

Question 68 of 98

1

Bartonella henselae is the specific cause of:

Select one of the following:

  • Rat bite fever

  • Beaver fever

  • Cat Scratch Disease

  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

  • Zika

Explanation

Question 69 of 98

1

A patient presents lack of appetite, wounds with lesions and has a history of working at an animal shelter. Biopsy of the lesion shows GNB but no growth or cultures was seen after 24 hours. What is the best reason for this?

Select one of the following:

  • Organism is an anaerobe

  • Organism is a slow grower

  • Organism requires special media

  • Organism is a capnophile

Explanation

Question 70 of 98

1

What is not a symptom of Cat Scratch Disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Papule or Pustule at bite on scratch site

  • Lymphadenpathy

  • Anorexia for 1-3 weeks

  • Tissue necrosis at wound area

Explanation

Question 71 of 98

1

Which form of oropharyngeal tularemia causes photophobia?

Select one of the following:

  • Pneumonic form

  • Oculoglandular form

  • Systemic typhoidal form

  • Exudative form

Explanation

Question 72 of 98

1

A patient at a clinic showed fevers, chills and headache. A swab of the lesions was sent for culture and sensitivity. After questioning, it was determined the patient was an avid rabbit hunter. The Gram showed GNB organism intracellularly in reticuloendothelial cells. It grew only aerobically and grew on special media containing iron and cysteine. What probable disease could have caused the infection?

Select one of the following:

  • Cat Scratch Disease

  • Tularemia

  • Zika virus

  • Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

Explanation

Question 73 of 98

1

What organism causes Tularemia?

Select one of the following:

  • Neisseria species

  • Legionella

  • Francisella

  • Salmonella

Explanation

Question 74 of 98

1

Scabies

Select one or more of the following:

  • itching

  • rash

  • Sarcoptes scabiei

Explanation

Question 75 of 98

1

Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

Select one or more of the following:

  • self limiting

  • sandfly

Explanation

Question 76 of 98

1

Herpes

Select one or more of the following:

  • latent, lifelong infection

  • neuronal ganglia

  • Type 1 - cold sores

  • Type 2 - sexually transmitted infections

Explanation

Question 77 of 98

1

Varicella zoster

Select one or more of the following:

  • chicken pox

  • shingles

  • highly contagious, rash, red spots

Explanation

Question 78 of 98

1

Fifth Disease

Select one or more of the following:

  • Parvovirus B19

  • slapped cheek

Explanation

Question 79 of 98

1

Actinomyces

Select one or more of the following:

  • sulphur granules

  • anaerobe

  • acid fast negative

  • chronic, granulomatous infectious disease

Explanation

Question 80 of 98

1

Nocardia

Select one or more of the following:

  • ubiquitous in nature

  • aerobic

  • acid fast negative

  • GPB, branching

  • modified acid fast positive

  • BA- white, chalky, dry, smooth

Explanation

Question 81 of 98

1

Madura Foot

Select one of the following:

  • Nocardia and S.aureus

  • Madurella mycetomi, Actinomadura, others

  • outdoor labourers

  • no person to person transmission

  • All of them

Explanation

Question 82 of 98

1

Tinea versicolor

Select one of the following:

  • Malassezia furfur

  • superficial skin infection

  • lipid loving fungus

  • spaghetti and meatballs under the microscope

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 83 of 98

1

Bacillus anthracis

Select one or more of the following:

  • dormant spore form can survive for long periods of time and in harsh conditions

  • highly lethal

  • transmitted by inhalation, ingesting and contact with skin lesions

  • glutamic acid capsule - evades phagocytosis

  • lethal factor + edema factor + protective factor = becomes active

  • eschar - black ulcerative skin lesion

  • GPB with subterminal spores, aerobic, non-motile, NH, Cat+

Explanation

Question 84 of 98

1

Mycobacteria

Select one of the following:

  • thin bacilli, non-motile, aerobe

  • N-glucolymuramic acid and mycolic acids in cell wall

  • acid fast positive

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 85 of 98

1

Mycobacterium leprae

Select one of the following:

  • mainly affects skin and nerves

  • claw hand and drop foot

  • Tuberculoid and Lepromatous form

  • not highly contagious

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 86 of 98

1

what is rhabdomyolysis?

Select one of the following:

  • breakdown of skeletal muscle

  • overproduction of collagen

  • inflammation or swelling of muscles

Explanation

Question 87 of 98

1

how are diabetic patients affected in muscle disorders?

Select one or more of the following:

  • vascular insufficiency

  • poor blood supply

  • antibiotic ineffectiveness

  • insulin deficiency

  • increased in glucose makes them more prone

Explanation

Question 88 of 98

1

Osteomyelitis:

Select one or more of the following:

  • pyogenic organisms

  • occurs rapidly in children

  • occurs rapidly in adults

  • S.aureus is the most common cause

  • in children under 2, spreads into the diaphysis

Explanation

Question 89 of 98

1

Capnocytophaga canimorsus:

Select one of the following:

  • GNB

  • zoonotic

  • treat with cephalosporins

  • common in asplenic patients

  • all except for 'treat with cephalosporin'

Explanation

Question 90 of 98

1

Pasteurella multocida:

Select one or more of the following:

  • dog bites

  • can cause osteomyelitis or endocarditis

  • GPB

  • spot indole +

Explanation

Question 91 of 98

1

septic arthritis:

Select one or more of the following:

  • inflammation of synovial membrane

  • damage to cartilage

  • examining the joint fluid is diagnostic

  • this is not real

  • mild and preventable

Explanation

Question 92 of 98

1

what can cause septic arthritis?

Select one of the following:

  • S.aureus

  • Peptostreptococcus

  • Brucella

  • Mycobacteria

Explanation

Question 93 of 98

1

Reactive arthritis:

Select one or more of the following:

  • non-infectious inflammatory joint disease

  • Neisseria meningitidis

  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  • GAS

  • GBS

Explanation

Question 94 of 98

1

what do we make note of when inspecting synovial fluid?

Select one or more of the following:

  • volume

  • color

  • odor

  • turbidity

  • protein content

  • glucose content

  • WBC

Explanation

Question 95 of 98

1

Osteoarthritis:

Select one of the following:

  • the most common form of arthritis

  • thinning of cartilage

  • synovial hypertrophy

  • in both male and females

  • all of the options

Explanation

Question 96 of 98

1

Artificial arthritis:

Select one or more of the following:

  • biofilm formation

  • difficult to treat

  • normal skin flora is agent

  • cannot treat, will result in amputation

Explanation

Question 97 of 98

1

what can cause bacterial conjunctivitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Neisseria spp

  • S. pneumoniae

  • S. aureus

  • Candida spp

  • anaerobes

Explanation

Question 98 of 98

1

cause of viral conjunctivitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • herpes simplex type 1 and 2

  • adenovirus

  • HIV

  • hentavirus

Explanation

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