Maggie Throckmorton
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Quiz on Pain Management, created by Maggie Throckmorton on 04/12/2017.

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Maggie Throckmorton
Created by Maggie Throckmorton over 6 years ago
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Pain Management

Pain Management

Question 1 of 147

1

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Neuropathic pain is abnormal signal processes in the CNS and can be peripheral and

Explanation

Question 2 of 147

1

Examples of peripheral neuropathic pain include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lumbar radiculopathy

  • Peripheral neuropathy with DM

  • Postherpetic Neuralgia

Explanation

Question 3 of 147

1

A example of central neuropathic pain is fibromyalgia.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 4 of 147

1

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Opioid therapy is not a line treatment for neuropathic pain.

Explanation

Question 5 of 147

1

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An example of nociceptive pain is tissue .

Explanation

Question 6 of 147

1

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There are two types of nociceptive pain, which includes muscle, skin and bones and which includes organs.

Explanation

Question 7 of 147

1

Acute pain is defined as (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sudden, usually an identifiable cause, less than 3 months in duration

  • Usually a response to injury

  • Usually nociceptive in nature

Explanation

Question 8 of 147

1

Chronic pain (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • lasts longer than 3 months

  • is non-cancer pain

  • Is cancer pain

  • is breakthrough pain

Explanation

Question 9 of 147

1

T or F. The WHO analgesic ladder recommends non-opioids in the treatment of mild pain.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 10 of 147

1

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The WHO analgesic ladder recommends the use of opioids along with non-opioid and adjuvant treatments in treating to pain.

Explanation

Question 11 of 147

1

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The 1st line treatment for mild to pain is Acetaminophen and NSAIDS.

Explanation

Question 12 of 147

1

T or F. Use the max dose of acetiminophen or NSAIDS before proceeding to analgesics.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 13 of 147

1

T or F. Acetaminophen generally has a favorable side effect profile.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 147

1

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Two considerations in using NSAIDS are patients with a history of CV disease and bleeding.

Explanation

Question 15 of 147

1

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Acetaminophen is best for patients with non-inflammatory like Osteoarthritis and chronic low back pain.

Explanation

Question 16 of 147

1

T or F. Acetaminophen does not alter platelet functioning.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 147

1

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Acetaminophen is known to be hepatoxic and can impact function.

Explanation

Question 18 of 147

1

There is caution in using acetaminophen in patients with a history of ETOH abuse and hepatic dysfunction.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 147

1

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Acetaminophen interacts with warfarin/coumadin and prolongs .

Explanation

Question 20 of 147

1

Acetaminophen is the drug of choice as an analgesic and antypyretic in (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pregnant women

  • Lactating women

Explanation

Question 21 of 147

1

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NSAIDS have and analgesic properties.

Explanation

Question 22 of 147

1

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Prescription examples of NSAIDS like Naprosyn has a more onset and Meloxicam has a duration of action.

Explanation

Question 23 of 147

1

T or F. NSAIDS are effective treatment for acute and chronic pain and inflammatory conditions.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 24 of 147

1

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GI concerns with the of NSAIDS includes dyspepsia, ulceration and bleeding.

Explanation

Question 25 of 147

1

T or F. Selective COX 2 inhibitors have less GI Risk.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 147

1

Safety concerns and considerations with NSAID with CV disease or thrombotic events include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Nonselective NSAIDs reversibly inhibit platelet function.

  • NSAIDS interfere with the cardioprotective effect of aspirin

  • Naproxen may have less CV toxicity than comparable doses of other NSAIDS.

Explanation

Question 27 of 147

1

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In patients with or at risk for CV disease, NSAIDS should be , or, if benefits outweigh risks, use at the effective dose, for the duration necessary.

Explanation

Question 28 of 147

1

T or F. NSAIDS should be avoided in older adults and in pregnancy.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 29 of 147

1

NSAIDS monitoring should include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Renal function

  • Edema

  • Blood pressure

  • Hgb and Hct

Explanation

Question 30 of 147

1

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In some psych patients, NSAIDS may lithium levels.

Explanation

Question 31 of 147

1

NSAIDS should also be avoided in patients with a history of (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Uncontrolled HTN

  • Renal insufficiency

  • GI Bleed

  • Platelet dysfunction

  • Reduced cardiac output

  • Cirrhosis

  • History of Venous Thrombosis

Explanation

Question 32 of 147

1

T or F. NSAIDS may cause or worsen renal impairment.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 147

1

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Indomethacin (Indocin) is an NSAID that is used in the treatment of acute and specific types of headaches.

Explanation

Question 34 of 147

1

T or F. The MOA for Indomethacin is a potent inhibitory effect on renal prostaglandin synthesis.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 147

1

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Indomethacin has more frequent side effects and has a higher risk of renal and CV toxicities.

Explanation

Question 36 of 147

1

T or F. Sulindac (Clinoril) is an NSAID which cause more frequent hepatic inflammation, can contribute to the formation of renal calculi and the prescribing of this drug should be limited to specialists.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 37 of 147

1

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Ketorolac is used for moderate pain, comes in tablets or injection and carries a BBW for short term use, less than days in adults.

Explanation

Question 38 of 147

1

Contraindications and cautions in the use of Ketorolac include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • GI

  • CV

  • Renal

  • Bleeding

  • Labor and Delivery

Explanation

Question 39 of 147

1

T or F. Oral Ketorolac is not indicated in pediatrics.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 40 of 147

1

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Topical NSAIDS have a risk for systemic effects.

Explanation

Question 41 of 147

1

T or F. Diclofenac (Voltaren) gel is helpful in the relief of OA pain.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 147

1

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Flector, an NSAID patch is helpful in pain due to minor strains, sprains and contusions.

Explanation

Question 43 of 147

1

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The MOA of topical lidocaine for pain is blocking the initiation and conduction of impulses.

Explanation

Question 44 of 147

1

T or F. Topical lidocaine is best for neuropathic, local and OA pain.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 147

1

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Adverse effects of topical lidocaine include local irritation.

Explanation

Question 46 of 147

1

T or F. There is a low risk for systemic side effects if topical lidocaine is used properly.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 47 of 147

1

The following is true of steroid therapy for pain (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Has anti-inflammatory properties

  • Evidence shows little to no benefit

  • Are not generally 1st line

  • Can be considered short term if refractory to NSAIDS.

Explanation

Question 48 of 147

1

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A taper is required if steroids like Prednisone or Medrol dose pack are used for more than weeks.

Explanation

Question 49 of 147

1

T or F. Cortisone can be given as an IM injection and has a short-acting duration of 2-3 days.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 50 of 147

1

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Triamcinolone(Kenalog) Methylprednisolone (Depo-Medrol) have an intermediate potency and duration.

Explanation

Question 51 of 147

1

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Dexamethasone/Decadron has a potency and long-acting duration up to about days.

Explanation

Question 52 of 147

1

T or F. Steroid injections in joints for pain, must be done by a trained provider.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 147

1

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Major side effects associated with the use of systemic glucocorticoids is often -dependent and more likely to occur with -term use.

Explanation

Question 54 of 147

1

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Systemic glucocorticoids can cause elevated pressure, mood disorders, psychosis, insomnia, and impact blood sugar by causing hyerglycemia.

Explanation

Question 55 of 147

1

Additional major side effects associated with the use of systemic glucocorticoids includes (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Gastritis

  • Ulcer formation

  • GI Bleeding

  • Bone loss

  • Heightened risk of typical infections

Explanation

Question 56 of 147

1

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Muscle relaxants used for pain are to be used short-term for less than weeks, and should be avoided in patients older than years.

Explanation

Question 57 of 147

1

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The main adverse effect of muscle relaxants for pain is .

Explanation

Question 58 of 147

1

T or F. Antispasmodic skeletal muscle relaxants are indicated in the treatment of acute cervical or lumbar pain.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 59 of 147

1

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Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) is not and can be dosed up to times a day if needed.

Explanation

Question 60 of 147

1

T or F. Tizanidine (Zanaflex) is an Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 61 of 147

1

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Carisoprodol (Soma) is a substance that can cause respiratory and physical and psycholgic .

Explanation

Question 62 of 147

1

Treatment options for chronic pain include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pharmacologic

  • Physical medicine like PT and massage

  • Behavioral medicine (CBT and biofeedback)

  • Neuromodulation (TENS and spinal cord stimulation)

  • Interventional (Percutaneous injections of glucocorticoid and/or local anesthetic

  • Surgery (spinal fusion for example)

Explanation

Question 63 of 147

1

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Treatment of chronic pain should be a multidisciplinary effort, using multiple approaches and collaborative care models to improve pain management and patient .

Explanation

Question 64 of 147

1

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should not be the sole focus of treatment, but should be used when according to evidence-ased recommendations to meet treatment goals and in conjunction with other treatment modalities.

Explanation

Question 65 of 147

1

T or F. Adjuvants for chronic pain include anticonvulsants and antidepressants; they enhance analgesia and manage other symptoms associated with pain like depression and anxiety.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 66 of 147

1

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Gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregablin (Lyrica) have proven efficacy versus placebo in several neuropathic conditions.

Explanation

Question 67 of 147

1

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Adverse effects of anticonvulsants like gabapentin and pregabalin for pain include and sedation.

Explanation

Question 68 of 147

1

T or F. When using anticonvulsants as an adjuvant in pain management, start it with a low dose with gradual increases until pain relief.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 69 of 147

1

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Pregabalin is controlled , reported to cause and is a Schedule .

Explanation

Question 70 of 147

1

T or F. There are some reports of misuse with gabapentin.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 71 of 147

1

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Venlafaxine (Effexor) and Duloxetine (Cymbalta) are that may provide relief separate from their anti-depressant effect.

Explanation

Question 72 of 147

1

T or F. The analgesic effects of SNRI's appear to occure early and at lower doses.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 73 of 147

1

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SNRI's are helpful treating pain from neuropathy, fibromyalgia and chronic musculoskeletal pain.

Explanation

Question 74 of 147

1

T or F. SNRI's would have to be tapered gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 75 of 147

1

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like amitriptyline (Elavil) are associated with multiple side-effects and do not carry a indication for management.

Explanation

Question 76 of 147

1

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In patients with chronic kidney disease and the elderly avoid and COX 2 inhibitors like Celebrex.

Explanation

Question 77 of 147

1

T or F. Avoid NSAIDS with peptic ulcer disease and glucocorticoid use.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 78 of 147

1

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In patients with cardiovascular disease or risk, use the lowest effective dose of NSAIDS; in patients who require treatment consider .

Explanation

Question 79 of 147

1

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Opioids are indicated for moderate to pain, are controlled drugs and powerful analgesics.

Explanation

Question 80 of 147

1

T or F. When combined with acetaminophen and ibuprofen, opioids provide better pain control than if they are used alone.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 81 of 147

1

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Opioids are receptor agonists.

Explanation

Question 82 of 147

1

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Mu1 correlate to supraspinal analgesia, bradycardia and sedation.

Explanation

Question 83 of 147

1

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Mu2 correlate to respiratory depression, euphoria and physical dependence

Explanation

Question 84 of 147

1

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Delta correlate to spinal analgesia and respiratory depression.

Explanation

Question 85 of 147

1

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Kappa correlate to spinal analgesia, respiratory depression and sedation.

Explanation

Question 86 of 147

1

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Higher potency opioids like morphine, hydromorphone and fentanyl are reserved for pain.

Explanation

Question 87 of 147

1

Literature suggests opioids should only be used on a chronic basis in patients (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Have persistent pain despite trials of non-opioid analgesics and other options

  • Are at low risk for substance abuse

  • Should be referred to a pain management specialist.

Explanation

Question 88 of 147

1

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Tramadol (Ultram) is a centrally acting weak of opioid receptors which also inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and causes release.

Explanation

Question 89 of 147

1

T or F. Ultram is a Schedule IV controlled substance and has a higher risk for drug interaction due to hepatic metabolism due to CYP-450.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 90 of 147

1

Adverse effects of tramadol (Ultram) include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sedation

  • Seizures

  • Serotonin Syndrome

  • Increased risk for suicide in patients with mental health disorders

Explanation

Question 91 of 147

1

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Tramadol (Ultram) should be avoided in patients with a history of or substance abuse and is not FDA approved for use.

Explanation

Question 92 of 147

1

T or F. Tramadol (Ultram) would need to be tapered if discontinuing after prolonged use.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 93 of 147

1

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Current evidence supports the role of opioid therapy in more severe forms of pain and in pain.

Explanation

Question 94 of 147

1

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There is limited evidence for effectiveness of -term opioid therapy for pain relief and improved functional outcomes.

Explanation

Question 95 of 147

1

T or F. Opioid administration in chronic non-cancer pain remains controversial.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 96 of 147

1

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Adverse effects of opioids include sedation and the highest risk for respiratory depression is in opioid patients.

Explanation

Question 97 of 147

1

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There is a higher risk for depression in the elderly, COPD and severe asthma.

Explanation

Question 98 of 147

1

Additional adverse effects of opioids includes (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Euphoria/Dysphoria

  • Dyspepsia

  • Itching due to histamine release

  • Urinary retention

  • Constipation

  • Hyperalgesia-nociceptive sensitization (increased pain)

  • Decreased libido (increase prolactin, decreased cortisol, LH, FSH, estrogen and testosterone)

Explanation

Question 99 of 147

1

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Opioid overdose increases with increased dosing.

Explanation

Question 100 of 147

1

The most common opioids involved in overdose deaths include (select all that appy):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hydrocodone (Vicodin)

  • Oxycodone (Oxycontin)

  • Oxymorphone (Opana)

  • Methadone

Explanation

Question 101 of 147

1

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Benzodiazepines and opioids should be co-prescribed.

Explanation

Question 102 of 147

1

T or F. Between 1999-2003, adults ages 25-54 had the highest overdose rates.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 103 of 147

1

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Opioid naive patients have the risk for overdose death in the first two weeks of treatment and are defined as patients who have not received opioids for one week or longer at doses defined by the FDA for tolerance.

Explanation

Question 104 of 147

1

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According to the FDA, patients who are opioid-tolerant have been taking opioids for a 1 or longer in the following doses: at least 60mg of oral morphine QD, 25 mcg of transdermal fentanyl per hour, 30 mg oral oxycodone QD, 8 mg hydromorphone QD, 25 mg of oxymorphone QD or an equianalgesic dose of another opioid.

Explanation

Question 105 of 147

1

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Equianlagesic dosing is defined as the dose in state providing the same analgesic response also know as morphine equivalent dosing.

Explanation

Question 106 of 147

1

T or F. Morphine is the gold standard for comparison of all pain relieving meds and serves as a reference point for analgesic potency.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 107 of 147

1

T or F. Morphine 30mg PO is equivalent to hydromorphone 7.5 mg PO.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 108 of 147

1

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There is substantial interpatient variability in relative potency of different opioid .

Explanation

Question 109 of 147

1

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When changing from one opioid to another, it is preferable to consider initially underestimating requirements and provide rescue medication as needed to potentially fatal overdose.

Explanation

Question 110 of 147

1

T or F. The elderly are more susceptible to the adverse effects of opioids and the NP should consider starting at 1/2 the typical starting dose.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 111 of 147

1

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Opioids should not be prescribed in .

Explanation

Question 112 of 147

1

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Neonatal abstinence syndrome presents as irritability, hyperactivity, abnormal sleep patterns, high pitched , tremor, vomiting, diarrhea and failure to gain weight.

Explanation

Question 113 of 147

1

T or F. Pregnant women who are dependent on opioids should be referred to a specialist who will likely place them on methadone or buprenorphine.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 114 of 147

1

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Dependence is the emergence of withdrawal symptoms when the drug is abruptly discontinued or the dose is rapidly decreased, and usually occurs after taking the drug for month or longer.

Explanation

Question 115 of 147

1

T or F. Dependence is a component of addiction, but not all patients with dependence are addicts.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 116 of 147

1

Opioid withdrawal signs and symptoms include (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diaphoresis

  • HTN

  • Tachycarida

  • Lacrimation

  • Shivering

  • Piloerection

  • N/V/D

  • Rhinorrhea

  • Sleeplessness

  • Restlessness

Explanation

Question 117 of 147

1

T or F. Additional symptoms of opioid withdrawal include tremors, dysphoria, anxiety, mood volatility, abdominal cramping, bone pains and diffuse muscle aches, as well as strong drug cravings.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 118 of 147

1

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Tolerance is defined as increasing amounts of opioid required to produce an equivalent level of efficacy.

Explanation

Question 119 of 147

1

T or F. Tolerance typically does not develop in patient with cancer who are treated for pain.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 120 of 147

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Addiction is characterized as a psychological and behavioral syndrome, with extreme behavior patterns that are associated with procuring and consuming the .

Explanation

Question 121 of 147

1

Features of opioid addiction include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Drug craving

  • Compulsive use

  • Strong tendency to relapse after withdrawal

Explanation

Question 122 of 147

1

Maladaptive behavior associated with addiction include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Adverse consequences due to drug use

  • Loss of control over drug use

  • Preoccupation with obtaining opioids

Explanation

Question 123 of 147

1

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Prescription drug is using the prescribed drug outside of the intent for which it was prescribed and includes using to "get high". having multiple prescribers or non-prescribed sources for the medication, and concurrent use of alcohol, illicit substances or non-prescribed opioid controlled medications.

Explanation

Question 124 of 147

1

Risk factors associated with increased risk for opioid misuse include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Personal or family history of substance use disorder

  • Mental health disorder, to include depression or PTSD

  • History of legal problems or incarceration

  • Age less than 40-45 years old

Explanation

Question 125 of 147

1

Aberrant behaviors associated with addiction include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Doctor shopping

  • Diversion

  • Failure to comply with dosing instructions

  • Use of other illicit drugs or controlled substances that are not prescribed.

Explanation

Question 126 of 147

1

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The DSM-5 definition of Opioid Use Disorder is a problematic pattern of opioid use leading to clinically significant impairment of distress, as manifested by at least specific behaviors in a month period: larger amounts/longer period; persistent desire for opioid; spending excessive time to obtain, use or recover from the effects of opioids.

Explanation

Question 127 of 147

1

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Assisted Treatment or MAT, may be used to treat opioid use disorder and includes naltrexone (mild d./o). buprenorphine and methadone (moderate to severe) and naloxone (mild, moderate, severe)

Explanation

Question 128 of 147

1

Indications for tapering in chronic opioid therapy include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Violation of pain contract/abberant drug related behaviors

  • Lack of progress toward therapeutic goals

  • Intolerable adverse effects

Explanation

Question 129 of 147

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

When tapering opioids, it is recommended to reduce the dose by % each week.

Explanation

Question 130 of 147

1

T or F. Clonidine can be used to treat the diarrhea and muscle pain associated with opiate withdrawal and Zolpidem or Doxepin for sleep issues.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 131 of 147

1

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Methadone is a long-acting synthetic opioid with dual-mechanism on the Mu and NMDA receptor, and is a Schedule controlled substance.

Explanation

Question 132 of 147

1

The following is true of methadone (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Is reserved as an advanced therapy for severe pain when other conventional therapies fail

  • Is highly regulated and only available at specialized clinics

  • Is difficult to dose, potenitally lethal in overdose

  • Has many drug interactions and adverse reactions

Explanation

Question 133 of 147

1

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Buprenorphine is a opioid, used for severe pain (just an FYI, our doctors at my hospital say it is illegal to prescribe it for pain) and opioid dependence and is considered a partial Mu-opioid and is a Schedule controlled substance.

Explanation

Question 134 of 147

1

T or F. Buprenorphine can only be prescribed by specially trained MD's and NP.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 135 of 147

1

T or F. Buprenorphine combined with the antagonist naloxone is called Suboxone.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 136 of 147

1

T or F. There are critical opioid interactions with CNS depressants and alcohol.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 137 of 147

1

T or F. Many drugs can inhibit or induce the metabolism of opioids and raise or lower serum opioid levels, leading to increase risk for respiratory depression or sedation, or cause the development of withdrawal symptoms.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 138 of 147

1

The following drugs may induce the metabolism of opioids (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • St. John's Wort

  • Phenobarbital

  • Phenytonin

  • Rifampin

Explanation

Question 139 of 147

1

T or F. Naloxone (Narcan) competitively binds to opioid receptors without producing analgesic response.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 140 of 147

1

Pain medications that are scheduled include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Opioids

  • Lyrica (Pregabaliin)

  • Soma (Carisoprodol)

  • Fioricet with codiene

Explanation

Question 141 of 147

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Schedule drugs have no currently accepted medical use in the US and have a high potential for abuse.

Explanation

Question 142 of 147

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Schedule drugs have a high potential for abuse, which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, can only be prescribed with a max day quantity, no refills, no orders (hard copy of the Rx required).

Explanation

Question 143 of 147

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Schedule drugs have a potential for abuse less than substances in Schedules I/II, and abuse may lead to moderate or low physical depedence or high psychological dependene, can prescibe a max month supply and verbal orders are allowed.

Explanation

Question 144 of 147

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Schedule drugs have a low potential for abuse relative to the substances in Schedule III, can have a max 6 month supply, verbal orders are and includes several benzodiazipines like Xanax, Kolnopin and Valium.

Explanation

Question 145 of 147

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Schedule drugs have a low potential for abuse relative to substances listed in Schedule IV and consist primarily of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics, like cough preparations with codeine.

Explanation

Question 146 of 147

1

The five A' s framework for follow-up of patients prescribed chronic opioids includes (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Analgesia

  • ADL's and assessment of functional status

  • Addiction

  • Adverse effects

  • Adherence to treatment plan

Explanation

Question 147 of 147

1

T or F. Urine Drug Testing can be used to determine if the patient is taking the controlled substance as prescribed and/or if the patient is taking other drugs that may interfere with safe prescribing of controlled drugs.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

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