Anthony Schulmeister
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Contains all questions and answers from the previous chapter exams (CH 1-10)

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Anthony Schulmeister
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Project Management Final CH 1-10

Question 1 of 200

1

Identify the example that would not usually be considered a project.

Select one of the following:

  • building a house

  • developing a computer software application program

  • hosting a wedding reception

  • assembly line manufacturing of automobiles

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

According to the authors, the prime objectives of project management are

Select one of the following:

  • scope, cost, time

  • quality, scope, schedule

  • customer satisfaction, budget, schedule

  • cost, quality, customer satisfaction

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

In a conventional project lifecycle, as work progresses, uncertainty about the expected outcome should

Select one of the following:

  • become a constant

  • decrease

  • increase

  • be fully removed

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

The attributes that characterize a project are

Select one of the following:

  • purpose, repetition, inter-dependencies, consistency, uncertainty, conflict, and one¬time occurrence

  • life cycle, schedule, cost, uncertainty, independence, uniqueness, and purpose

  • resources, uniqueness, conflict, inter-dependencies, one-time occurrence, and finite duration,

  • purpose, life cycle, conflict, certainty, independence, performance, and finite duration

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

The "stretched-5" pattern observed during the project lifecycle, for the most part, is a result of the

Select one of the following:

  • changing levels of resources used during successive stages of the project lifecycle

  • changing attitudes of the people who work in the project

  • difficulty in performing the individual activities of a project

  • principle that work expands to fill the allotted time

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

The desired outcomes or results of a project are called

Select one of the following:

  • subgroups

  • work packages

  • subprojects

  • deliverables

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

Earned value is based on the concept that the percentage of project completion is closely correlated with

Select one of the following:

  • the number of levels in the project

  • relevance of the project

  • cost or the use of resources

  • final assembly of the output

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Which of the following is not one of the four dimensions of project success?

Select one of the following:

  • opening new opportunities for the future

  • number of people working on the project

  • impact on the customer

  • business impact on the organization

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

The project to construct a highway is unique because

Select one of the following:

  • the characteristics of terrain will be different for different segments

  • consistency of the concrete will vary for different segments

  • different types of laborers will be used to build various segments of the highway

  • different people manage different sections of the highway

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

Projects often interact with other projects being carried out simultaneously within the organization and these interactions take the form of competition for scarce resources between project. This is an example of project

Select one of the following:

  • bottleneck

  • breakdown

  • interdependencies

  • malfunctioning

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

When done properly, project management begins with

Select one of the following:

  • stakeholder interviews

  • scope definition

  • the initial concept for the project

  • budget estimation

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

The chance that project processes or outcomes will not turn out as planned is called

Select one of the following:

  • risk

  • projecting

  • effort

  • negative outcome

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Having only partial or no information about the situation or outcomes is called

Select one of the following:

  • uncertainty

  • risk

  • effort

  • cluelessness

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

Relations between organizational functions, where one function or task is dependent on others, are known as

Select one of the following:

  • interdependencies

  • links

  • projects

  • tasks

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

The of the project team is a crucial but unstated element of ancillary trade-
offs that the project manager must consider.

Select one of the following:

  • health

  • plan

  • task

  • effort

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

The project is generally credited with beginning the era of modern project
management

Select one of the following:

  • Manhattan

  • Chicago

  • Great Wall of China

  • Egyptian pyramids

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

is a subset of a project consisting of work packages

Select one of the following:

  • task

  • program

  • project

  • process

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

Projects are bound by the three objectives of scope, time, and cost. These are collectively referred to as the

Select one of the following:

  • Triple Constraint

  • Triple Factors

  • Three Constraints

  • Triple Play

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

Individuals or groups with a special interest in a project are called

Select one of the following:

  • stakeholders

  • project managers

  • leaders

  • directors

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

The production of weekly employment reports or the delivery of mail could be considered a

Select one of the following:

  • project

  • non-project

  • quasi-projects

  • triple projects

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

Which of the following demonstrates the quality of flexibility required of a project selection model?

Select one of the following:

  • It does not require special interpretation, data that are difficult to acquire, or excessive personnel.

  • It gives valid results within the range of conditions that the firm might experience.

  • It reflects the multiple objectives of both the firm and its managers.

  • It deals with situations both internal and external to the project.

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

The two basic types of project selection models identified in the text are

Select one of the following:

  • biased and unbiased

  • numeric and nonnumeric

  • active and passive

  • numeric and qualitative

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

If a system is being updated due to operating necessity, the project was selected because

Select one of the following:

  • the system is worth saving at any cost

  • the system is worth saving at the estimated cost of the project

  • the dimension of cost is not relevant to execution of the project

  • the cost overruns can be hidden in someone else's budget

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

The drawback of the ___________ model is that it fails to consider cash flows obtained once the initial investment has been recovered.

Select one of the following:

  • payback period

  • average rate of return

  • discounted cash flow

  • profitability index

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

If the NPV for a project is < 0, it indicates that the project will

Select one of the following:

  • report a profit loss

  • report a profit gain

  • fail to cover its required rate of return

  • fail to generate cash inflows

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

Scoring models are most often used to overcome this disadvantage of profitability models.

Select one of the following:

  • The inability to account for the time value of money

  • The inability to account for project results beyond the payback period

  • The inability to account for multiple decision criteria

  • The inability to account for cash flow

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

Firms usually have two or more projects and this collection of projects is referred to as

Select one of the following:

  • a portfolio

  • an initiation

  • a program

  • a stochastic model

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

A technique useful for developing numeric values that are equivalent to subjective, verbal measures of relative value is the

Select one of the following:

  • Delphi system

  • expert system

  • portfolio

  • simulation

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

Which of the following is a type of numeric model?

Select one of the following:

  • the sacred cow

  • the operating necessity

  • payback period

  • the product line extension

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

The _________ is the value of an opportunity foregone

Select one of the following:

  • real option

  • profit

  • opportunity cost

  • revenue

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

The _________ is the interest rate set by an organization as the minimum acceptable rate of return for a project

Select one of the following:

  • hurdle rate

  • acceptable rate

  • internal rate of return

  • net present value

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

In a project portfolio, _______________ projects have objectives or deliverables that are only
incrementally different in both product and process from existing offerings.

Select one of the following:

  • breakthrough

  • R&D

  • platform

  • derivative

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

In a project portfolio, a project that involves a new technology or even a disruptive technology that is known to the industry would serve as an example of a project

Select one of the following:

  • breakthrough

  • R&D

  • platform

  • derivitive

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

The set of documents submitted when evaluating a project is referred to as the

Select one of the following:

  • project proposal

  • evaluation set

  • evaluation criteria

  • project manual

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

When the decision maker's information is not complete, he/she will have to make a decision under conditions of

Select one of the following:

  • proof

  • uncertainty

  • management

  • risk mitigation

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

The discounted cash flow method determines the net present value of all cash flows by discounting them by the

Select one of the following:

  • hurdle rate

  • acceptable rate

  • internal rate of return

  • net present value

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Financial forecasts are reported as __________ financial statements.

Select one of the following:

  • final

  • initial

  • pro forma

  • hypothetical

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

A project selection criteria that focuses on how well new products would fit the firm's existing product line would be

Select one of the following:

  • sustainability

  • comparative benefit model

  • production line extension

  • operating necessity

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

According to research by Sanchez and Robert (2010), which of the following is not a reason why strategic benefits may be difficult to appraise?

Select one of the following:

  • Not immediately realized

  • Difficult to quantify

  • May be confounded with other factors

  • Easy to plan for when they occur

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

________ is a modeling technique for emulating a process, usually conducted a
considerable number of times to understand the process better and measure its outcomes under different policies.

Select one of the following:

  • Simulation

  • Project management

  • Projectizing

  • Modeling

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

According to the authors, the analytic method, when applied to systems, focuses on

Select one of the following:

  • assembling the components of a system into an integrated package

  • building an array of individually designed and manufactured components

  • calculating the cost and schedule requirements

  • dividing the components of a system into smaller and smaller elements

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

The ideal project manager should be

Select one of the following:

  • a direct, technical supervisor knowledgeable in the technology of the process being used

  • both generalist/facilitator and have a high level of technical competence in the science of the project

  • a facilitator and specialist with technical credibility

  • a technical specialist competent in principles of robust design

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

The project manager must make trade-offs between project progress and process. Conceptually, this involves trade-offs between the _______ functions.

Select one of the following:

  • technical and managerial

  • schedule and cost

  • performance and schedule

  • cost and performance

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

According to the authors the project manager should be more skilled at

Select one of the following:

  • general management

  • technology

  • synthesis

  • analysis

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

The project manager needs _______ credibility.

Select one of the following:

  • technical and personal

  • administrative and personal

  • technical and administrative

  • technical and financial

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

Projects are conducted in four important environments. They are

Select one of the following:

  • economic, political, legal, and sociotechnical

  • internal, external, transitional, and multicultural

  • routine, unique, fast-paced, and complex

  • profit, not for profit, government, and industry

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

According to the authors, the key to coping with uncertainty at the end of a project (a common obstacle for project managers) is

Select one of the following:

  • discipline

  • communication

  • planning

  • supervision

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

During the buildup phase, the project goals, in order of importance, are

Select one of the following:

  • schedule, scope, cost

  • cost, schedule, scope

  • schedule, cost, scope

  • cost, scope, schedule

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

Resources initially budgeted for a project are frequently _________ for the task, partly because of natural optimism by the proposer about how many resources are needed.

Select one of the following:

  • sufficient

  • delayed

  • insufficient

  • hindrances

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

Most of the time spent by a project manager is spent

Select one of the following:

  • attending technical workshops

  • overseeing the workforce

  • filing paperwork

  • coordinating and communicating

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

11. The functional manager uses the ________ approach and the PM uses the ________ approach

Select one of the following:

  • systems; analytic

  • numerical; nonnumeric

  • analytic; systems

  • nonnumeric; numerical

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

The project manager's responsibility to the project and to the client is met by ensuring that the _______ of the project is preserved in spite of conflicting demands made by stakeholders.

Select one of the following:

  • management

  • integrity

  • analysis

  • synthesis

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

During the final or phaseout stage of the project lifecycle, ___________ is the dominant goal of many project managers.

Select one of the following:

  • schedule

  • cost

  • scope

  • quality

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

The structure of a society is determined by its

Select one of the following:

  • institutions

  • wages

  • jobs

  • enemies

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a phase in the Tuckman ladder?

Select one of the following:

  • forming

  • defining

  • norming

  • mourning

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

The _________ is a person who spearheads an idea or action and sells it throughout the organization.

Select one of the following:

  • stakeholder

  • champion

  • interviewer

  • coach

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

The ______________ is an alternative action if the expected result fails to materialize.

Select one of the following:

  • trade-off

  • system plan

  • feedback

  • contingency plan

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

The __________ represents everything outside the system that delivers inputs or
receives outputs from the system.

Select one of the following:

  • environment

  • feedback

  • culture

  • system

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

The __________ is the "corporate culture" within the organization, or even within the
project

Select one of the following:

  • cultural anomaly

  • microculture

  • multiculture

  • interfirm culture

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

The project manager makes a ___________ by allowing one aspect of the project to get
worse in return for allowing another aspect of the project to get better.

Select one of the following:

  • decision

  • turnaround

  • trade-off

  • chart

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

A party to a conflict will usually be satisfied when the level of frustration has been

Select one of the following:

  • increased by the domination of the other party

  • lowered to the point where no action against the other party is contemplated

  • lowered because the party realizes the hopelessness of continuing the conflict

  • eliminated because the party has surrendered to the other party

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

Most of the conflicts that involve the organization and outsiders have to do with

Select one of the following:

  • interpersonal differences

  • cultural differences and status differences

  • technical differences

  • property rights and contractual obligations

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

During project formation, the organizational structure selected will have a major impact on the ways in which conflicts are handled. Lack of clarity about the relative power/influence/authority of the PM and the functional managers is a major component of all conflicts involving

Select one of the following:

  • contractual obligations

  • property rights

  • budgeting

  • resource allocation, and scheduling

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

If a resource conflict arises between two high-priority projects, precedence is typically given to the project with the

Select one of the following:

  • earliest due date

  • fastest completion time

  • biggest revenue stream

  • lowest cost to complete

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

During project build-up, the project should move from a general concept to

Select one of the following:

  • implementation of plans

  • a highly detailed set of plans

  • a project charter

  • a project contract

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

During project build-up, if the project is independent and standalone, the project manager seeks a commitment of __________ from the functional departments.

Select one of the following:

  • work

  • materials

  • people

  • budgets

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

During project build-up, if the project is functionally tied down, the project manager seeks a commitment of _________ from the functional departments.

Select one of the following:

  • work

  • materials

  • people

  • budgets

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

Personality conflicts during project phase-out are often caused by

Select one of the following:

  • the absence of deadlines

  • the influx of newer technology

  • pressure to complete the project and anxiety about leaving the project

  • distribution of expenses charged to the project

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

According to the authors, the nature of negotiation as it applies to project management is the realization that few of the conflicts arising in projects have to do with

Select one of the following:

  • whether or not the task will be done

  • the precise design of the deliverable

  • how the design will be achieved

  • who will do the work, when, and at what cost

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

When dealing with conflict between parties, it is recommended that one _______ in order to avoid the conflict becoming interpersonal.

Select one of the following:

  • avoid the situation

  • define the substantive problem

  • leisurely discuss the issue

  • focus on interests

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

Partnering is an attempt to _________ the risk associated with sub-contracting.

Select one of the following:

  • mitigate

  • Increase

  • absorb

  • allow

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

_________ is the process which begins when one party perceives that the other has frustrated, or is about to frustrate, some concern of his.

Select one of the following:

  • conflict

  • happiness

  • contentment

  • utility

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

According to the authors, the favored technique for resolving conflict is

Select one of the following:

  • negotiation

  • mitigation

  • avoidance

  • collaboration

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

The process through which two or more parties seek an acceptable rate of exchange for items they own or control is called

Select one of the following:

  • negotiation

  • mitigation

  • compromising

  • collaboration

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

During the early program phases of the project lifecycle, Thamhain et al say that conflict intensity is the greatest with respect to

Select one of the following:

  • cost

  • schedules

  • scope

  • quality

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

During the main program phases of the project lifecycle, Thamhain et al say that conflict intensity is the greatest with respect to

Select one of the following:

  • cost

  • schedules

  • scope

  • quality

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Toward the end of the project lifecycle, Thamhain et at say that conflict intensity is the greatest with respect to

Select one of the following:

  • cost

  • schedules

  • scope

  • quality

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

Negotiating to a(n) __________ solution is the key to conflict resolution in project management.

Select one of the following:

  • win-lose

  • win-win

  • avoidance

  • confrontation

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

The total level of conflict in the project lifecycle is highest during the _________ stage

Select one of the following:

  • closing

  • main program

  • project build-up

  • project formation

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

The ___________ approach to negotiation aims to achieve a win-win result.

Select one of the following:

  • principled

  • posititional

  • stakeholder

  • paretto

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

If the project manager controls when and what people do while the functional managers control who will be assigned to the project and what technology will be used, the ______organizational form is probably being used.

Select one of the following:

  • projectized

  • pure project

  • matrix

  • weak project

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

In the systems approach to design, one organization would have to take responsibility for

Select one of the following:

  • manufacturing everything in the system

  • the integrity of the project design

  • the integrity of the subcontractors

  • product warranties

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

The process of dealing with uncertainties in projects that may affect the project for better or for worse has come to be known as

Select one of the following:

  • scope management

  • risk management

  • quality management

  • procurement management

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

A common objective of an organization's PM is often created by organizations to

Select one of the following:

  • establish consistent project management standards and methods

  • deal with technological obsolescence

  • train process managers

  • administer application software

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

A major purpose of the project management office should be to serve as

Select one of the following:

  • the central location for all clerical support

  • the critical disaster recovery support

  • a link between strategic management and project management

  • maintenance for the project management library

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

This member of the project team is in charge of product design and development and is responsible for functional analysis, specifications, drawings, cost estimates, quality/reliability, engineering changes, and documentation

Select one of the following:

  • systems architect

  • manufacturing engineer

  • project controller

  • support services manager

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

This member of the project team is responsible for the efficient production of the product of the process, including the manufacturing engineering, design and production of tooling, production scheduling, and other production tasks

Select one of the following:

  • project engineer

  • development engineer

  • contract administrator

  • support services manager

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

This person is responsible for the installation, testing, and support of the product (process) once its engineering is complete.

Select one of the following:

  • development engineer

  • systems architect

  • test engineer

  • project controller

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

One of the main technical problems faced by the project manager is meeting ________ without compromising performance.

Select one of the following:

  • supplier's targets

  • schedule and cost goals

  • technical specifications

  • cost and conflict goals

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

A major advantage of using a _________ placement for a project is that individual
experts can be utilized by many different projects.

Select one of the following:

  • standard

  • virtual

  • projectized

  • functional

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Virtual teams, when composed, should consist of "boundary spanners" who number about one in every _________ team members

Select one of the following:

  • 6-7

  • 8-12

  • 10-20

  • 25-30

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

When a firm engages in a large number of similar projects, the ___________ organizational form is apt to be preferred.

Select one of the following:

  • pure project

  • partial matrix

  • functional

  • mixed matrix

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

When the standard departments of the organization represent individual disciplines such as engineering, marketing, purchasing, and so on, the organization follows

Select one of the following:

  • projectized management

  • matrixed management

  • functional management

  • mixed management

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

The firm or organization within which the project is being conducted is known as the

Select one of the following:

  • parent organization

  • consulting firm

  • project team

  • stakeholder company

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

______________ engineering refers to the use of a design team that includes design and manufacturing engineers as well as staff from other relevant areas of the business.

Select one of the following:

  • Concurrent

  • Alignment

  • Matrix

  • Social

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

The _________ is a basic project document that describes all the work that must be done to complete the project and forms the basis for costing, scheduling, and work

Select one of the following:

  • WBS

  • OBS

  • PMO

  • project charter

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

The approach to organizing that includes both functions (disciplines) and projects in its hierarchy is known as the

Select one of the following:

  • mixed organization

  • functional organization

  • projectized organization

  • matrix organization

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

This person's task is the efficient production of the product or process the project engineer has designed, including responsibility for manufacturing engineering, design and production of code, unit testing, production scheduling, and other production tasks.

Select one of the following:

  • test engineer

  • contract administrator

  • development engineer

  • systems architect

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

TQM and Six Sigma are good examples of ____________ programs

Select one of the following:

  • participative

  • exclusive

  • frequency

  • inclusive

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

If both functional and projectized divisions coexist in a firm, this would result in the __________ organizational structure.

Select one of the following:

  • composite

  • objective

  • encompassing

  • free-form

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

The _________ is a specialized view of the action plan that focuses on who has what
responsibility for each project task.

Select one of the following:

  • resource histogram

  • linear responsibility chart

  • project team directory

  • scope management plan

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

The success of the project launch meeting is dependent on the existence of

Select one of the following:

  • a project charter

  • the project's scope statement

  • a well-defined set of objectives for the project

  • project planning templates

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

This project plan element describes both the managerial and the technical approaches to the work. The technical discussion describes the relationship of the project to available technologies.

Select one of the following:

  • overview

  • objectives

  • general approach

  • contractual aspects

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

This project plan element should include profit and competitive goals as well as technical goals.

Select one of the following:

  • overview

  • objectives

  • general approach

  • contractual aspects

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

The _______ of a project includes the objectives of the project as well as the time and cost required to complete the project to the customer's satisfaction.

Select one of the following:

  • scope

  • change order

  • outcome

  • purpose

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

RACI stands for

Select one of the following:

  • responsive, accountable, consult, inform

  • responsible, accountable, consult, inform

  • responsive, accountable, consult, integrate

  • responsible, admissible, consult, integrate

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

The set of physical elements required to build a project is called the

Select one of the following:

  • bill of materials

  • deliverable

  • milestone list

  • work statement

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

___________ is an approach that breaks the planning task down into the activities that must be done in each managerial level of the organization. Typically, the upper level sets the objectives for the next lower level.

Select one of the following:

  • Strategic planning

  • Organizational planning

  • Hierarchical planning

  • Agile planning

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

The major tool that a project manager uses during the planning phase is called the

Select one of the following:

  • WBS

  • change request

  • scope statement

  • project plan

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

___________is the tendency for the project objectives to be changed with little or no discussion with other parties actively engaged in the project

Select one of the following:

  • Scope reference

  • Scope creep

  • Effectiveness

  • Hierarchical planning

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

_______________ is a visual approach that closely mirrors how the human brain records and stores information that can help tap the creative potential of the entire project team

Select one of the following:

  • WBS generation

  • Project planning

  • Risk response planning

  • Mind mapping

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

When using a WBS, all of the work should roll up to the next level such that no extra work is required. This is referred to as the

Select one of the following:

  • Development rule

  • All-inclusive rule

  • 100% rule

  • WBS rule

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

For projects that are constantly changing, the __________ methodology is recommended

Select one of the following:

  • waterfall

  • agile

  • adaptable

  • organic

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

Having key stakeholders involved early in the project tends to

Select one of the following:

  • increase communication errors

  • increase project risk

  • create buy-in

  • create more problems than it is worth

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

When using the mind mapping process, you should designate one team member as the ___________ to ensure that all team members are involved and contributing, and to ensure that team members are focusing on the work that must be done.

Select one of the following:

  • planner

  • facilitator

  • contractor

  • manager

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

A useful tool for facilitating the management of changes to a project's scope is the

Select one of the following:

  • requirements traceability matrix

  • WBS

  • project charter

  • mind map

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

A project manager must ___________ as a type of risk response planning in order to soften the danger of a threat by reducing the likelihood that it will occur or by reducing its impact if it does occur.

Select one of the following:

  • avoid

  • transfer

  • accept

  • mitigate

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

The ____________ is a list of the project activities with major activities broken down into subactivities.

Select one of the following:

  • linear responsibility chart

  • PCMCIA

  • activity prioritization

  • WBS

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

The process of coordinating the work and timing of the different groups working on multidisciplinary teams is called

Select one of the following:

  • procurement management

  • integration management

  • vertical management

  • matrix management

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

This element of the project plan contains a brief description of the procedure to be followed in monitoring, collecting, storing, and evaluating the history of the project

Select one of the following:

  • schedule

  • resources

  • personnel

  • evaluation methods

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

If a project budget is under funded, it will often

Select one of the following:

  • stimulate increased performance

  • improve utilization of resources

  • frustrate committed stakeholders

  • reduce costs

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

The project's budget should

Select one of the following:

  • associate resource use with the achievement of organizational goals

  • allow funds to be spent without linkage to achievement

  • not reflect the timing of expenses associated with the use of resources

  • never be changed during project execution

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

In order to develop a budget, the PM must forecast

Select one of the following:

  • the resources required

  • when resources will be needed

  • the cost of resources

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

A work element whose cost is fully developed would

Select one of the following:

  • exclude the cost of labor and resources

  • include only the profit and direct costs

  • exclude the cost of special machinery and overheads

  • include direct costs plus overhead and G&A charges

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

The traditional organizational budget is

Select one of the following:

  • category-oriented

  • project-oriented

  • program-oriented

  • project-oriented or program-oriented

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

__________ budgeting allows income and expenditures to be aggregated across projects.

Select one of the following:

  • Category-oriented

  • Activity-oriented

  • Project-oriented

  • Expense-oriented

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

The authors identify ____________ estimation errors as the two types of generic estimation errors.

Select one of the following:

  • small and large

  • random and planned

  • certain and uncertain

  • random and biased

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

The pattern of deviations in cost and usage used for exception reporting to management is called

Select one of the following:

  • simulations

  • assumptions

  • variances

  • summaries

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

___________ costs vary with output.

Select one of the following:

  • general and administrative

  • overhead

  • direct

  • indirect

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

Unless the project manager is familiar with the firm's ______________ it will be very difficult to exercise budget control.

Select one of the following:

  • accounting system

  • budget plans

  • marketing procedure

  • cost accounting

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

The __________ form of budgeting has the advantage of using individuals closer to the work to provide estimates of resource requirements.

Select one of the following:

  • top-down budgeting

  • work element costing

  • bottom-up budgeting

  • iterative budgeting

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

The ___________ charge is composed of the costs of senior management, the various data functions, and any other expenses not included in overhead. Often, these charges are a fixed percentage of either the direct costs or the total of all direct and indirect costs.

Select one of the following:

  • salary

  • project management

  • ethical

  • G&A

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

Each time the output doubles, the worker hours per unit decrease to a fixed percentage of their previous value. That percentage is called the ___________ rate.

Select one of the following:

  • inflation

  • hurdle

  • interest

  • learning

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Suppose that a person requires 60 minutes to complete a work element on the first attempt. On the second attempt, the work element is completed in 48 minutes. The learning rate for this person is _________% for this work element

Select one of the following:

  • 80

  • 60

  • 70

  • 120

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

_____________ relies on well-known statistical correlations between various factors such as the total cost of a house relative to the square feet of living area.

Select one of the following:

  • Parametric estimating

  • Statistical equivalence

  • Bottom-up estimating

  • Top-down estimating

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

A budget strategy that is based on collecting the judgments and experiences of top and middle managers is referred to as the ___________ approach or method.

Select one of the following:

  • parametric estimating

  • statistical equivalence

  • bottom-up estimating

  • top-down estimating

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

________________ are where the defined responses to the risks are detailed, but their amounts are not
yet precisely known.

Select one of the following:

  • Known-unknowns

  • Unknown-knowns

  • Known-knowns

  • Unknown-unknowns

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Unknown-unknowns are not part of the baseline budget and are referred to as

Select one of the following:

  • management reserves

  • contingency reserves

  • PMBOK reserves

  • Buffered reserves

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

The advantage of the ____________ process is that it is generally associated with participative management

Select one of the following:

  • bottom-up

  • top-down

  • Murphy's

  • Efficient

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

______________ issues are present when bidders "low-ball" a bid or when some bidders get a "last look."

Select one of the following:

  • Ethical

  • Strategic

  • Efficient

  • Effective

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

The authors recommend preparing a schedule for each

Select one of the following:

  • work package in the WBS

  • task in the WBS

  • major task level in the WBS

  • project that has a WBS

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

In the AOA network, circles depict

Select one of the following:

  • networks

  • events

  • logical dependencies

  • dummy activities

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

The shortest time in which the entire network can be completed is referred to as the

Select one of the following:

  • critical time of the network

  • real duration of the network

  • elapsed time of the network

  • slack time of the network

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

A precedence relationship where the completion of a successor activity depends on the completion of a predecessor activity is called a

Select one of the following:

  • start to finish dependency

  • finish to start dependency

  • finish to finish dependency

  • start to start dependency

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

A precedent relationship where the completion of a predecessor activity depends on the initiation of a successor activity is called a

Select one of the following:

  • start to finish dependency

  • finish to start dependency

  • finish to finish dependency

  • start to start dependency

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

The difference between the late start and early start for an activity is called its

Select one of the following:

  • critical path

  • task

  • progress

  • float

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

A(n) __________ is the conversion of the project work breakdown structure into an operating timetable.

Select one of the following:

  • chart

  • application

  • crash

  • schedule

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

A(n) _________ is a specific task or set of tasks that are required by the project, use up resources, and take time to complete

Select one of the following:

  • milestone

  • activity

  • node

  • path

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

The arrangement of all activities (and, in some cases, events) in a project arrayed in their logical sequence and represented by arcs and nodes is called a

Select one of the following:

  • network

  • critical path

  • path

  • crashed path

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

In a network, if the delay of an activity will delay completion of the project, the activity is called a(n)

Select one of the following:

  • valuable

  • efficient

  • critical

  • noteworthy

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

In AOA networks, an activity of zero duration is called a(n)

Select one of the following:

  • dummy activity

  • critical

  • important

  • critical activity

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

The _____________ chart shows planned and actual progress for a number of tasks displayed against a horizontal timescale.

Select one of the following:

  • PERT

  • timeline

  • critical

  • Gantt

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

A clearly identifiable point in a project or set of activities that commonly denotes a reporting requirement or completion of a large or important set of activities is called a(n)

Select one of the following:

  • milestone

  • anniversary

  • node

  • dummy activity

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

In AON diagrams, a(n) ________________ is a point where one or more lines (arrows) begin or terminate, commonly used for depicting an event or activity.

Select one of the following:

  • activity

  • path

  • node

  • arc

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

______________ is the amount of one factor that must be sacrificed in order to achieve more or less of another factor.

Select one of the following:

  • trade-off

  • synergy

  • barter limit

  • limiting quantity

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

A _____________ is a combination of interrelated activities and events depicted with arcs and nodes.

Select one of the following:

  • linked plan

  • chain of events

  • critical chain

  • network

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

____________ law suggests that work expands to fill the allotted time.

Select one of the following:

  • Parkinson's

  • Murphy's

  • Brooks'

  • Federal

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

In application, PERT has primarily been used for

Select one of the following:

  • construction projects

  • manufacturing projects

  • industrial projects

  • research and development projects

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

The authors define _________ as the time an activity can be delayed without affecting the start time of any successor activity

Select one of the following:

  • free slack

  • total slack

  • project slack

  • overhead slack

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

__________ is one possible way to check the nature and impacts of interactions between probabilistic paths in a network.

Select one of the following:

  • simulation

  • extrapolation

  • guessing

  • probabilistic time estimates

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

If deterministic time estimates are used, and if project deadlines are firm, there is a high likelihood that it will

Select one of the following:

  • not be necessary to crash any activities in projects

  • be necessary to crash the last few activities of most projects

  • be completed on time and within budget

  • be completed as per schedule

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

Assume two activities, printing and binding. Printing is a predecessor of binding. If printing is _______, then binding will start late by whatever amount of lateness is bequeathed to it by printing.

Select one of the following:

  • necessary

  • early

  • late

  • time-neutral

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

________ aims to minimize the period-by-period variations in resource loading by shifting tasks within their slack allowances. The purpose is to create a smoother distribution of resource usage.

Select one of the following:

  • Resource loading

  • Resource leveling

  • Scope loading

  • Resource succeeding

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

A project task is said to be __________ if it requires a fixed amount of time and known quantities of resources

Select one of the following:

  • scope constrained

  • time constrained

  • resource constrained

  • system constrained

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

One of the problems that Goldratt observed was that if an activity has slack time, the task might become delayed until the slack is removed. This is referred to as

Select one of the following:

  • Goldratt's Law

  • Murphy's Law

  • the delay game

  • the student syndrome

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

The points between the extreme points of the relationship between time use and resource use represent

Select one of the following:

  • time constrained projects

  • resource constrained projects

  • alternative trade-offs between time and resources

  • a non-feasible solution space of trade-off alternatives related to time and resource use

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

The _________ technique overlaps the design and build phases of a project to expedite its completion.

Select one of the following:

  • crashing

  • fast-tracking

  • leading

  • blitzing

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Most heuristic solution methods start with the _____________ and analyze resource usage period by period, resource by resource.

Select one of the following:

  • GERT schedule

  • Gantt chart

  • PERT/CPM schedule

  • Master schedule

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

The use of ______________ activity time estimates may reduce the chance that crashing the
project will be needed.

Select one of the following:

  • one probabilistic

  • two probabilistic

  • three probabilistic

  • four probabilistic

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

The standard practice with AOA and AON is to estimate activity times under the assumption of resource loadings that are

Select one of the following:

  • probabillistic

  • crashed

  • normal

  • dynamic

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

With respect to project scheduling, __________ is the amount of work waiting to be processed because there is a shortage of some resource.

Select one of the following:

  • in-process inventory

  • schedule slippage

  • resource utilization

  • management delay

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

If the appropriate scheduling equation for task A of a project were W = D * U, and it was initialized so that W = 40d, D = 10d, and U = 4 resources, and task A is an effort-driven activity, correctly balance this equation if the value for U is changed from 4 to 5. To balance the equation, the altered variable and its new value are

Select one of the following:

  • D = 6w

  • W = 6d

  • D = 8d

  • W = 8d

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

The principal reason why a project manager is surprised by resource constraints on a project is the failure to include _________ in risk identification activities.

Select one of the following:

  • resource availability

  • resource cost

  • resource mobility

  • resource skill

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

Which of the following describes a situation where priorities are assigned to activities according to some rule not associated with task length, slack, or resource requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • student's syndrome

  • arbitrary

  • most successors

  • most resources

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

The two fundamental approaches to constrained allocation problems are

Select one of the following:

  • heuristic approaches and rules of thumb

  • linear programming approaches and optimization models

  • heuristic approaches and optimization models

  • goal programming and trial and error

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

When crashing a project, our first task is to develop

Select one of the following:

  • a table or graph of the cost of a project as a function of the project's possible completion dates

  • a schedule that shows the risks associated with each activity in the project

  • a list that shows the activities and the events of a project without referring to the costs

  • a table showing the noncritical activities and the cost associated with each of those activities

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

In some situations, two activities are scheduled to be carried out in parallel and using the same scarce resource. If the supply of the scarce resource is not sufficient to allow both activities to be carried out simultaneously, then whichever of the two is given priority immediately lengthens the other activity's path but not its actual

Select one of the following:

  • duration

  • slack

  • float

  • buffer

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

The two principles to follow when crashing a project focuses on the

Select one of the following:

  • critical path and selects the least expensive alternative

  • critical path and selects the most expensive alternative

  • shortest path and selects the least expensive alternative

  • shortest path and selects the most expensive alternative

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Using Goldratt's meaning of the word "dependent," the activities of a project can be ordered into paths based on their resource dependencies as well as on their technological precedence requirements. The longest of these paths of sequentially time-dependent activities is known as the

Select one of the following:

  • priority chain

  • critical chain

  • dependency path

  • heuristic path

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

The ___________ heuristic provides a general solution for critical path and time and is usually the default rule for a schedule.

Select one of the following:

  • as soon as possible

  • as late as possible

  • minimum slack first

  • shortest task first

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

Monitoring, as an activity, should be kept distinct from __________, which uses data supplied by monitoring to bring actual performance into approximate congruence with planned performance.

Select one of the following:

  • recording

  • controlling

  • collecting

  • reporting

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

An appropriate and common secondary user for monitoring includes

Select one of the following:

  • auditing, learning from mistakes, and reporting progress and status

  • exercising effective control over the project

  • evaluating current status of the project

  • fixing the blame when things go wrong

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

According to the authors, the key items to be planned, monitored, and controlled are

Select one of the following:

  • schedule, budget, and financial stability

  • schedule, quality, performance, and customer satisfaction

  • schedule, budget, and feasibility

  • schedule, budget, and performance

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

According to the authors, in the planning - monitoring - controlling cycle, the directions of the flows indicate that

Select one of the following:

  • information flows from the top to bottom and authority flows from the bottom to the top

  • information flows from the bottom to the top and authority flows from the top to the bottom

  • authority flows from the bottom to the top

  • information flows from the top to the bottom

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

The first step in setting up a monitoring system is to

Select one of the following:

  • collect existing data to see what data is relevant and available

  • collect every available piece of information so it can be analyzed

  • use whatever information is available

  • identify the key factors to be controlled

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

In earned value analysis, the 50-50 rule assumes that

Select one of the following:

  • 50 percent is earned when the task is half done and 50 percent is earned at completion

  • 50 percent is earned when the task begins and 50 percent is earned at completion

  • 50 percent is earned when the task begins and 50 percent is earned at the halfway stage

  • 50 percent is earned when the project is planned and 50 percent is earned when the project is over

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

In earned value analysis, if the cost variance is (-$10,000),

Select one of the following:

  • the cost variance is favorable

  • the cost variance is unfavorable

  • the scheduled variance is favorable

  • the scheduled cost avoidance is unfavorable

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

One of the most common errors when collecting data is

Select one of the following:

  • collecting rapidly changing data frequently

  • collecting data infrequently because data collection is so time consuming

  • collecting data that rarely changes

  • reporting to management after collecting data

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

Reports for ______________ have a need for detailed information about individual tasks and the factors affecting such tasks.

Select one of the following:

  • top executives

  • lower-level personnel

  • all the stakeholders

  • project managers

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

The project control process should be viewed as a(n) ________________, with revised plans
and schedules (if warranted) following corrective actions. The project control process should run continuously until the project is completed.

Select one of the following:

  • closed loop system

  • open loop system

  • open environment

  • earned value plan

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

Ordinal rankings of performance are examples of a _________ type of measure.

Select one of the following:

  • frequency count

  • raw number

  • verbal measure

  • subjective numeric rating

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

____________ are used when some aspect of system performance cannot be measured
directly

Select one of the following:

  • Indicators

  • Frequency counts

  • Raw numbers

  • Verbal measures

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

____________ can often give the project manager early warning signals of potential problems in a project and help understand the relationships of individual tasks to one another and to the overall project.

Select one of the following:

  • Detailed and timely reports

  • Executive summaries

  • Scope change reports

  • The WBS

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

The earned value rule that divides the actual task time-to-date by the scheduled time for the task to calculate percent complete is called the _________ rule.

Select one of the following:

  • 50-50

  • 0-100 percent

  • critical input use

  • proportionality

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

In earned value analysis, EAC refers to the

Select one of the following:

  • estimated cost at completion

  • estimated actual cost

  • eliminated annual cost

  • estimated annual cost

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

In earned value analysis, BAC refers to the

Select one of the following:

  • budgeted annual cost

  • budget at completion

  • budget at close-out

  • big annual cost

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

If EV= $500, AC = $475, PV = $450; SV =

Select one of the following:

  • $50

  • $25

  • 90%

  • 95%

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

If CSI is less than 1, it is indicative of a(n)

Select one of the following:

  • problem

  • good project

  • efficient project

  • budget error

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

Conceptually, EAC represents the amount spent to date

Select one of the following:

  • plus the delay costs

  • BAC

  • CV

  • ETC

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

In earned value analysis, the 0 - 100 percent rule allows

Select one of the following:

  • 100 percent credit before starting work and 0 percent credit after the completion

  • 0 percent credit when work begins and 100 percent credit when the project is complete

  • 0 percent credit when work begins and 100 percent credit at completion of the activity

  • 0 percent credit at completion of the activity and 100 percent credit at formal acceptance during scope verification

Explanation