40 Question quiz 13 (481-520)

Question 1 of 40

1

Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
B. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
D. Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

1

Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"
IF the customer wants �return�
Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies �Cheap-day�
Say: "That will be �11:20"
ELSE
Say: "That will be �19:50"
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: "That will be �9:75"
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.

Select one or more of the following:

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

1

Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

Select one or more of the following:

A. To find faults in the software.
B. To assess whether the software is ready for release.
C. To demonstrate that the software doesn't work.
D. To prove that the software is correct.

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

1

Enough testing has been performed when:

Select one or more of the following:

A. Time runs out.
B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.
C. No more faults are found.
D. The users won't find any serious faults.

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

1

Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Actual results
B. Program specification
C. User requirements
D. System specification

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

1

Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn't play correctly.

Select one or more of the following:

A. i, iii, iv, v.
B. ii, iv and v.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i and v.

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

1

Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?

Select one or more of the following:

A. All document reviews involve the development team.
B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

1

The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?

Select one or more of the following:

A. iii, i, iv, ii.
B. iii, iv, i, ii.
C. iii, ii, i, iv.
D. ii, iii, i, iv.

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

1

Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?

Select one or more of the following:

A. An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.
B. An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software.
C. An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

1

Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.

Select one or more of the following:

A. 17, 18, 19.
B. 29, 30, 31.
C. 18, 29, 30.
D. 17, 29, 31.

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

1

Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage

Select one or more of the following:

A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are
B. i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

1

What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project's capability to deliver its objectives.
B. Project risks are the risks that surround the project's capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.
C. Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
D. Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

1

During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?

Select one or more of the following:

A Test implementation and execution.
B Evaluating test exit criteria.
C Test analysis and design.
D Test planning and control.

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

1

What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?

Select one or more of the following:

A. To communicate how incidents will be managed.
B. To communicate how testing will be performed.
C. To produce a test schedule.
D. To produce a work breakdown structure.

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

1

Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Test plan.
B. Test procedure specification.
C. Test case specification.
D. Test design specification.

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

1

Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Determining the test approach.
B. Preparing test specifications.
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

1

What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?

Select one or more of the following:

A. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
B. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

1

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has $4000 of salary tax free.
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next $28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Select one or more of the following:

A. $28000.
B. $33501.
C. $32001.
D. $1500.

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

1

Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Dynamic Analysis tool.
B. Test Execution tool.
C. Static Analysis tool.
D. Security tool.

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

1

When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

Select one or more of the following:

A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product
B. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail
C. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design
D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

1

Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B. Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
C. Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D. Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.

Explanation

Question 22 of 40

1

Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Evaluate testers competence to use the tool.
B. Complete the testing of a key project.
C. Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D. Discover what the requirements for the tool are.

Explanation

Question 23 of 40

1

What is an informal test design technique where a tester uses information gained while testing to design new and better tests?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Error guessing
B. Exploratory testing
C. Use case testing
D. Decision table testing

Explanation

Question 24 of 40

1

Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Extent of testing.
B. Scope for the use of test automation.
C. Size of the test team.
D. Requirement for regression testing.

Explanation

Question 25 of 40

1

When should testing be stopped?

Select one or more of the following:

A. When all the planned tests have been run
B. When time has run out
C. When all faults have been fixed correctly
D. It depends on the risks for the system being tested

Explanation

Question 26 of 40

1

Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options Regression testing should be performed:
i Once a month
ii When a defect has been fixed
iii When the test environment has changed
iv When the software has changed

Select one or more of the following:

A. ii and iv.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iii.
D. i and iii.

Explanation

Question 27 of 40

1

The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:
i Information about how the software is constructed.
ii Models of the system, software or components.
iii Analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv Analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?

Select one or more of the following:

A. ii and iii.
B. ii and iv.
C. i and iv.
D. i and iii.

Explanation

Question 28 of 40

1

Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?

Select one or more of the following:

A. The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B. The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C. The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D. The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.

Explanation

Question 29 of 40

1

Based on the error guessing test design technique, which of the following will an experienced tester MOST LIKELY test in calendar software?
i. First two letters of the month, e.g., MA can represent March or May
ii. First letter of the day, e.g., T can mean Tuesday or Thursday
iii. Leap year
iv. Number of days in a month
v. Three-digit days and months

Select one or more of the following:

A. i, ii, iv and v
B. iii and iv
C. i, ii, iii and iv
D. i, ii and v

Explanation

Question 30 of 40

1

Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?

i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.

Select one or more of the following:

A. i, ii, iii.
B. i, ii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. ii, iii, iv.

Explanation

Question 31 of 40

1

What is the objective of debugging?
i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.

Select one or more of the following:

A. i, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. ii, iv.
D. i, ii.

Explanation

Question 32 of 40

1

Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.

Select one or more of the following:

A. i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B. iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C. ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D. vi is static, i-v are dynamic.

Explanation

Question 33 of 40

1

Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF

Select one or more of the following:

A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Explanation

Question 34 of 40

1

Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
D. Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.

Explanation

Question 35 of 40

1

Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Test analysis and design.
B. Test planning and control.
C. Test closure.
D. Test implementation and execution.

Explanation

Question 36 of 40

1

In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B. Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C. Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D. Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.

Explanation

Question 37 of 40

1

For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.

Select one or more of the following:

A. i, iv, vi.
B. ii, iii, v.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iv, v, vi.

Explanation

Question 38 of 40

1

Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?

Select one or more of the following:

A. The coverage of the current regression pack.
B. The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C. The time since the last change was made to the system.
D. Defects found at the last regression test run.

Explanation

Question 39 of 40

1

What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Because testing everything is not feasible.
B. Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C. Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
D. Because software is inherently risky.

Explanation

Question 40 of 40

1

Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?
i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.

Select one or more of the following:

A. i,ii, and iii.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i,iii and iv.

	Created by Daniel Neag almost 7 years ago

Quiz on 40 Question quiz 13 (481-520), created by Daniel Neag on 06/12/2017.

40 Question quiz 13 (481-520)

40 Question quiz 13 (481-520)

Question 1 of 40

Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

Enough testing has been performed when:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition? If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10%. The next $28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%. To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has $4000 of salary tax free.
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next $28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options Regression testing should be performed:
i Once a month
ii When a defect has been fixed
iii When the test environment has changed
iv When the software has changed

What is the objective of debugging?
i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.

Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.

Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF