40 Question quiz 14 (521-560)

Question 1 of 40

1

Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Parameter type mismatches.
B. Errors in requirements.
C. Undeclared variables.
D. Uncalled functions.

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

1

Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Number of undetected defects.
B. Total number of defects in the product.
C. Number of test cases not yet executed.
D. Effort required to fix all defects.

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

1

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has �4000 of salary tax free.
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next $28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

Select one or more of the following:

A. $4000; $5000; $5500.
B. $32001; $34000; $36500.
C. $28000; $28001; $32001.
D. $4000; $4200; $5600.

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

1

Which of the following test activities can be automated?
i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.

Select one or more of the following:

A. i, iii, iv.
B. i, ii, iii.
C. ii, iv, v.
D. ii, iii, v.

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

1

In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?

Select one or more of the following:

A. After the software or system has been produced.
B. During development.
C. As early as possible.
D. During requirements analysis.

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

1

Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
C. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
D. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

1

Functional system testing is:

Select one or more of the following:

A. Testing that the system functions with other systems
B. Testing that the components that comprise the system function together
C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
D. Testing the system performs functions within specified response times

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

1

Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Operating systems
B. Test documentation
C. Live data
D. User requirement documents

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

1

What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Setting up forms and databases
B. Analysing metrics and improving processes
C. Writing the documents to be inspected
D. Time spent on the document outside the meeting

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

1

Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
B. White box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
D. Black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

1

Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

Select one or more of the following:

A. To find faults in the software
B. To prove that the software has no faults
C. To give confidence in the software
D. To find performance problems

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

1

532: Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Component testing
B. Non-functional system testing
C. User acceptance testing
D. Maintenance testing

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

1

What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

Select one or more of the following:

A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Management review
D. Post project review

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

1

Maintenance means

Select one or more of the following:

A. Updating tests when the software has changed
B. Testing a released system that has been changed
C. Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
D. Testing to maintain business advantage

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

1

A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

Select one or more of the following:

A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

1

All of the following might be done during unit testing except

Select one or more of the following:

A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

1

Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools

Select one or more of the following:

A.I, II &III
B.I, II &IV
C.II, III&IV
D.I, III&IV

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

1

When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:

Select one or more of the following:

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

1

The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed

Select one or more of the following:

A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

1

Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

1

A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements,or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.

Select one or more of the following:

A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing

Explanation

Question 22 of 40

1

You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources( work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.

Select one or more of the following:

A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided

Explanation

Question 23 of 40

1

There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity

Explanation

Question 24 of 40

1

Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.

Select one or more of the following:

A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning

Explanation

Question 25 of 40

1

Which of the following assertions about code coverage are correct?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Statement coverage usually requires more test case suites
B. 100 % statement coverage guarantees 100 % decision coverage
C. 100 % decision coverage implies 100 % statement coverage
D. Decision tables cannot be used to list statement coverage values

Explanation

Question 26 of 40

1

Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?

Select one or more of the following:

A. It includes functional testing
B. It includes loop testing
C. It is usually done after black-box testing
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase

Explanation

Question 27 of 40

1

The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation" done by

Select one or more of the following:

A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities

Explanation

Question 28 of 40

1

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % condition coverage?

if ((temperature < 0) or
(temperature > 100)) {
alert ("DANGER");
if ((speed > 100) and (load <= 50)) {
speed = 50;
}
} else {
check = false;
}

Select one or more of the following:

A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3

Explanation

Question 29 of 40

1

Big bang approach is related to

Select one or more of the following:

A. Regression testing
B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing

Explanation

Question 30 of 40

1

Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.

Select one or more of the following:

A. I, II&III
B.II, III&IV
C.I, II&IV
D.I, III&IV

Explanation

Question 31 of 40

1

An expert based test estimation is also known as

Select one or more of the following:

A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi

Explanation

Question 32 of 40

1

A test harness is a

Select one or more of the following:

A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test

Explanation

Question 33 of 40

1

Be bugging is known as

Select one or more of the following:

A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester

Explanation

Question 34 of 40

1

A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to

Select one or more of the following:

A. Establish a relationship with the customer
B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
C. Modify the project' s organizational structure to meet the manager's management style
D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace

Explanation

Question 35 of 40

1

This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks" This statement is best suited for

Select one or more of the following:

A. Water fall model
B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model
D. V-Model

Explanation

Question 36 of 40

1

Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?

Select one or more of the following:

A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system

Explanation

Question 37 of 40

1

Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting

Select one or more of the following:

A.I, II&III
B.II, III &IV
C.I, III &IV
D.I, II & IV

Explanation

Question 38 of 40

1

System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control

Select one or more of the following:

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Explanation

Question 39 of 40

1

Defect Density is calculated in terms of

Select one or more of the following:

A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

	Created by Daniel Neag almost 7 years ago

Quiz on 40 Question quiz 14 (521-560), created by Daniel Neag on 06/12/2017.

40 Question quiz 14 (521-560)

40 Question quiz 14 (521-560)

Question 1 of 40

Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

Which of the following test activities can be automated? i Reviews and inspections. ii Metrics gathering. iii Test planning. iv Test execution. v Data generation.

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

Functional system testing is:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

532: Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

Maintenance means

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:- i. Test Items ii. Test Scripts iii. Test Deliverables iv. Responsibilities

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

All of the following might be done during unit testing except

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment? I. Ease of use II. Capacity for incremental implementation III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project IV. Inclusion of advanced tools

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug. I. Phase injected II. Phase detected III. Phase fixed IV. Phase removed

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?

Which of the following test activities can be automated?
i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.

A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools

The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % condition coverage?

if ((temperature < 0) or
(temperature > 100)) {
alert ("DANGER");
if ((speed > 100) and (load <= 50)) {
speed = 50;
}
} else {
check = false;
}

Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting