USA - Pharm Final

Question 1 of 39

1

Involuntary, continuous tonic contraction resulting in increased tension in skeletal muscle after injury and inflammation;
generally, more orthopedic and localized in nature

Select one of the following:

Spasm
Spasticity
Seizure

Explanation

Question 2 of 39

1

UMN lesions interrupt control of stretch reflex, leading to a neurologically induced, velocity-dependent, exaggerated muscle stretch reflex

Select one of the following:

Spasticity
Spasm
Seizure

Explanation

Question 3 of 39

1

Which of the following drugs/drug types given for spasms, causes general sedation and muscle relaxation by potentiating the inhibitory effect of GABA?

Select one or more of the following:

Diazepam
Benzodisepines
Centrally Acting Antispasm Drugs
Baclofen
Dantrolene sodium
Tizanidine

Explanation

Question 4 of 39

1

As with the Centrally-Acting Anti-spasm Drugs, Diazepam should only be used to treat muscle spams in the short-term, due to a plethora of side effects, including sedation, decreased psychomotor ability, physical dependence, and, during sudden withdrawal, anxiety/seizures/death.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 5 of 39

1

Which of the following anti-spasticity drugs would be the best choice for chronic pain or headaches?

Select one of the following:

Tizanidine
Baclofen
Diazepam
Botulinum Toxin

Explanation

Question 6 of 39

1

Which of the following are advantages of intrathecal administration of baclofen versus oral administration?

Select one or more of the following:

Localized effect
Less side effects
Better for long-term usage
Affects both LE and UE to the same extent
Favors UE over LE

Explanation

Question 7 of 39

1

The effects of which of the following anti-spasticity drugs is limited to just one muscle and carries no generalized effects?

Select one of the following:

Botulinum Toxin
Diazepam
Intrathecal Baclofen
Dantrolene Sodium

Explanation

Question 8 of 39

1

Which of the following is the most likely reason that a patient is taking a mixed agonist-Antagonist analgesic rather than a full agonist (strong or mild)?

Select one of the following:

Less risk of addiction and overdose
Less expensive
Mixed Agonist-Antagonists are more effective for some patients
Mixing the agonist with an antagonist reduces the risk of potential side effects, like hallucinations

Explanation

Question 9 of 39

1

Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Strong Agonists?

Select one or more of the following:

Morphine
Fentanyl
Methadone
Codeine
Naloxone
Petnazocine
Hydrocodone

Explanation

Question 10 of 39

1

Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Mild-Moderate Agonists?

Select one or more of the following:

Codeine
Hydrocodone
Oxycodone
Morphine
Fentanyl
Naloxone
Methadone
Pentazocine

Explanation

Question 11 of 39

1

Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Mixed Agonist-Antagonists?

Select one of the following:

Pentazocine
Morphine
Fentanyl
Methadone
Codeine
Naloxone
OxyContin

Explanation

Question 12 of 39

1

Of the following, which are opiod analgesic antagonists?

Select one or more of the following:

Naloxone
Codeine
Fentanyl
Pentazocine
OxyContin

Explanation

Question 13 of 39

1

Select the potential side effects of opiod analgesics.

Select one or more of the following:

Sedation
Dizziness
Respiratory Depression
GI Distress
Agitation
Exophthalmos
Dry Skin
Delusions of Grandeur

Explanation

Question 14 of 39

1

Inhibition of the Cox 1 enzymes causes which of the following side effects?

Select one of the following:

Gastrointestinal erosions
Increased blood pressure
Increased risk of cardiovascular events
Hemorrhage

Explanation

Question 15 of 39

1

Inhibition of the Cox 2 enzymes causes which of the following adverse effects?

Select one of the following:

Gastrointestinal erosions
Increased risk of cardiovascular events
Cancer
Inflammation

Explanation

Question 16 of 39

1

Which of the following are Non-Selective COX-Blockers?

Select one or more of the following:

Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Celebrex
Diclofenac

Explanation

Question 17 of 39

1

Which of the following are COX2-Blockers?

Select one or more of the following:

Diclofenac
Celebrex
Aspirin
Ibuprofen

Explanation

Question 18 of 39

1

How does Tylenol differ from Aspirin?

Select one or more of the following:

Tylenol is not associated wit GI Issues
Tylenol treats pain and inflammation
Tylenol is not an antiinflammatory or anticoagulant
Tylenol can be safely used by children
Tylenol is less effective at treating osteoarthritis

Explanation

Question 19 of 39

1

Combining Naloxone with an opiod in a patient controlled analgesic results in adequate analgesia with reduced side effects.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 20 of 39

1

Combining Droperidol with an opiod in a patient controlled analgesic results in adequate analgesia with reduced side effects.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 21 of 39

1

With PCEA, the analgesic is delivered directly to the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord at a specific level.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 22 of 39

1

With PCEA, the analgesic is delivered directly to the epidural space of the spinal cord at a specific level.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 23 of 39

1

❌ - A single large dose is given initially to establish analgesia.
❌ - The amount of drug that is self-administered by the patient each time he or she activates the PCA delivery mechanism.
❌ - The minimum amount of time allowed between each demand dose.
❌ - In some patients, a small amount of the analgesic is infused continuously to maintain a low background level of analgesia.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Loading dose

Demand dose

Lockout interval

Background infusion rate

Starter dose

Rest interval

Drip

Continuous administration

Explanation

Question 24 of 39

1

When reviewing the chart of a new patient you notice that the number of total PCA demands is much higher than the number of successful demands. What does this most likely indicate?

Select one of the following:

The PCA parameters are not effective in providing adequate analgesia
The PCA pump is malfunctioning
This is not possible, there is no difference between successful and total demands.
The PCA pump is providing too much analgesia with each dose.

Explanation

Question 25 of 39

1

❌ - Cough Suppressant
❌ - Reduce Mucus Production by binding to Alpha-1 receptors
❌ - Reduce allergic reactions by binding to H1 receptors
❌ - Decrease Mucus Viscosity
❌ - Facilitate production and ejection of mucus

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Antitussive

Decongestant

Antihistamine

Mucolytics

Expectorants

Anticoagulant

Anticholinergics

Explanation

Question 26 of 39

1

Guaifenesin belongs to which category of respiratory drugs?

Select one of the following:

Antitussives
Decongestant
Antihistamines
Mucolytics
Expectorants

Explanation

Question 27 of 39

1

❌ (-terol) – cause bronchodilation and relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle
❌ - control inflammation-mediated bronchospasm; Most effective treatment for Asthma
❌ - mediate airway inflammation that underlies bronchoconstriction
❌ - prevent bronchoconstriction by inhibiting the release of inflammatory mediators

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Beta-2 adrenergic agonists

Glucocorticoids (corticosteroids)

Leukotriene (LOX) inhibitors

Cromones

Anticholinergics

Explanation

Question 28 of 39

1

Which of the following is/are most effective in promoting healing of ulcers?

Select one of the following:

H2 receptor blockers
Antacids
Proton pump inhibitor
Cimedtidine

Explanation

Question 29 of 39

1

What is a potential problem with prolonged and excessive use of antacids?

Select one of the following:

Acid production may increase
Altered pharmacokinetics
Electrolyte imbalances
All of these

Explanation

Question 30 of 39

1

Steroid hormones are derived from which of the following?

Select one of the following:

Amino acid links
Lipids, such as cholesterol
Bisphosphonates

Explanation

Question 31 of 39

1

An individual with hypothyroidism will present with all of the following EXCEPT?

Select one of the following:

Weight gain
Bradycardia
Lethargy
Tachycardia

Explanation

Question 32 of 39

1

Hyperthyroidism symptoms can be suppressed by beta-adrenergic blockers.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 33 of 39

1

Which of the following inhibits osteoclast activity?

Select one of the following:

Calcitonin
Bisosphonates
Vitamin D
Teriparatide

Explanation

Question 34 of 39

1

A primary adverse effect of mineralcorticoid therapy?

Select one of the following:

Hypertension
Catabolic effect on bone and other tissues
Muscle wasting
Increased blood glucose

Explanation

Question 35 of 39

1

Which patient would you be cautious with stretching?

Select one of the following:

Pt taking Cipro
Pt taking Metronidazole
Pt taking Sulfonamide
Pt taking an Amingoglycoside

Explanation

Question 36 of 39

1

Tetracyclines, sulonamindes, and fluoroquinolones will not cause increased skin sensitivity to UV light.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 37 of 39

1

❌ will reduce glucose levels
❌ will increase glucose levels
Generally speaking, Diabetes leads to an uncontrolled ❌ in glucose levels.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Insulin

Glucagon

increase

decrease

Glycogen

Explanation

Question 38 of 39

1

Prolonged use of cortisol can cause ______.

Select one of the following:

HTN
Increased risk of bone fracture
Decreased blood glucose and glycogen
Decreased ability in body’s ability to handle stress

Explanation

Question 39 of 39

1

Just like the Irish girl in this photo, patients taking which of the following medication types are at increased risk of sunburn (aka photosensitivity)?

Select one of the following:

Antitussives
Decongestants
Antibacterial
Antirheumatics
NSAIDs

	Created by Ben Williams over 6 years ago

Flex - Fall 2017 Based heavily upon the amazing study guide by H. Glauben.

USA - Pharm Final

Question 1 of 39

Involuntary, continuous tonic contraction resulting in increased tension in skeletal muscle after injury and inflammation; generally, more orthopedic and localized in nature

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 39

UMN lesions interrupt control of stretch reflex, leading to a neurologically induced, velocity-dependent, exaggerated muscle stretch reflex

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 39

Which of the following drugs/drug types given for spasms, causes general sedation and muscle relaxation by potentiating the inhibitory effect of GABA?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 39

As with the Centrally-Acting Anti-spasm Drugs, Diazepam should only be used to treat muscle spams in the short-term, due to a plethora of side effects, including sedation, decreased psychomotor ability, physical dependence, and, during sudden withdrawal, anxiety/seizures/death.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 39

Which of the following anti-spasticity drugs would be the best choice for chronic pain or headaches?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 39

Which of the following are advantages of intrathecal administration of baclofen versus oral administration?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 39

The effects of which of the following anti-spasticity drugs is limited to just one muscle and carries no generalized effects?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 39

Which of the following is the most likely reason that a patient is taking a mixed agonist-Antagonist analgesic rather than a full agonist (strong or mild)?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 39

Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Strong Agonists?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 39

Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Mild-Moderate Agonists?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 39

Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Mixed Agonist-Antagonists?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 39

Of the following, which are opiod analgesic antagonists?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 39

Select the potential side effects of opiod analgesics.

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 39

Inhibition of the Cox 1 enzymes causes which of the following side effects?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 39

Inhibition of the Cox 2 enzymes causes which of the following adverse effects?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 39

Which of the following are Non-Selective COX-Blockers?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 39

Which of the following are COX2-Blockers?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 39

How does Tylenol differ from Aspirin?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 39

Combining Naloxone with an opiod in a patient controlled analgesic results in adequate analgesia with reduced side effects.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 39

Combining Droperidol with an opiod in a patient controlled analgesic results in adequate analgesia with reduced side effects.

Involuntary, continuous tonic contraction resulting in increased tension in skeletal muscle after injury and inflammation;
generally, more orthopedic and localized in nature

❌ - Cough Suppressant
❌ - Reduce Mucus Production by binding to Alpha-1 receptors
❌ - Reduce allergic reactions by binding to H1 receptors
❌ - Decrease Mucus Viscosity
❌ - Facilitate production and ejection of mucus

❌ will reduce glucose levels
❌ will increase glucose levels
Generally speaking, Diabetes leads to an uncontrolled ❌ in glucose levels.