40 Question quiz 17 (641-680)

Question 1 of 40

1

A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production.
Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?

Select one or more of the following:

A. To build confidence in the application.
B. To detect bugs in the application.
C. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.
D. To train the users.

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

1

According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word 'bug' is synonymous with which of the following words?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Incident
B. Defect
C. Mistake
D. Error

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

1

According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Negative feedback to the tester.
B. Negative consequences that will occur.
C. Negative consequences that could occur.
D. Negative consequences for the test object.

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

1

Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Preventing defects in the system.
B. Finding defects through dynamic testing.
C. Gaining confidence in the system.
D. Finishing the project on time.

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

1

A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Exhaustive testing is impossible
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Absence-of-errors fallacy

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

1

According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

Select one or more of the following:

A. To verify the success of corrective actions.
B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

1

Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Understanding what managers value about testing.
B. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
C. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
D. Promoting better quality software whenever possible.

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

1

Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
B. Test principles only affect test execution activities.
C. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.
D. Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

1

Using an error guessing test design technique to convert temperature (Celsius to Fahrenheit, and Fahrenheit to Celsius), experienced testers will MOST LIKELY use which set of test data?

Select one or more of the following:

A. -1, 0, 89.6 and 212
B. -40, 37.78, and 100
C. -1, 0, 1 and 37.78
D. -40, 0, 32 and 100

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

1

Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Objectives should be generic for any test level.
B. Objectives are the same for each test level.
C. The objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance.
D. Each level has objectives specific to that level.

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

1

Which of the following is a test type?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Component testing
B. Functional testing
C. System testing
D. Acceptance testing

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

1

is a non-functional quality characteristic?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Feasibility
B. Usability
C. Maintenance
D. Regression

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

1

Which of these is a functional test?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Measuring response time on an on-line booking system.
B. Checking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.
C. Checking the on-line bookings screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.
D. Checking how easy the system is to use.

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

1

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency changes?

Select one or more of the following:

A. There is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process.
B. Just run the retest of the defect actually fixed.
C. Always run a full regression test of the whole system in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.
D. Retest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected.

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

1

A regression test:

Select one or more of the following:

A. Is only run once.
B. Will always be automated.
C. Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected.
D. Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected.

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

1

Non-functional testing includes:

Select one or more of the following:

A. Testing to see where the system does not function correctly.
B. Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability.
C. Gaining user approval for the system.
D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

1

Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Software code
B. Requirements specification
C. Test designs
D. All of the above

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

1

Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Gives quality information about the code without executing it.
B. Checks expected results against actual results.
C. Can detect memory leaks.
D. Gives information about what code has and has not been exercised.

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

1

Which is not a type of review?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Informal review
D. Management approval

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

1

What statement about reviews is true?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Inspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily.
B. Technical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not.
C. In a walkthrough, the author does not attend.
D. Participants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly trained.

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

1

Which of the following faults can be found by a static analysis tool?
I. Incorrect branch conditions logic.
II. Variables which are used after being defined.
III. Variables which are defined but never used.
V. Standards violations
V. Illegal calls to routines

Select one or more of the following:

A. III, IV and V
B. II only
B. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III, IV and V

Explanation

Question 22 of 40

1

Which of the following characteristics and types of review processes belong together?
1. Led by the author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry and exit criteria
s. Inspection
t. Technical review
u. Informal review
v. Walkthrough

Select one or more of the following:

A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2

Explanation

Question 23 of 40

1

What statement about static analysis is true?

Select one or more of the following:

A. With static analysis, defects can be found that are difficult to find with dynamic testing.
B. Compiling is not a form of static analysis.
C. When properly performed, static analysis makes functional testing redundant.
D. Static analysis finds all faults.

Explanation

Question 24 of 40

1

Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which are false?
1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix.
2. Early test design can find defects.
3. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements.
4. Early test design takes more effort.

Select one or more of the following:

A. 1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false.
B. 2 is true. 1, 3 and 4 are false.
C. 2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false.
D. 2, 3 and 4 are true. 1 is false.

Explanation

Question 25 of 40

1

Static code analysis typically identifies all but one of the following problems. Which is it?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Unreachable code
B. Undeclared variables
C. Faults in the requirements
D. Too few comments

Explanation

Question 26 of 40

1

In which document described in IEEE 829 would you find instructions for the steps to be taken for a test including set-up, logging, environment and measurement?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Test plan
B. Test design specification
C. Test case specification
D. Test procedure specification

Explanation

Question 27 of 40

1

With a highly experienced tester with a good business background, which approach to defining test procedures would be effective and most efficient for a project under severe time pressure?

Select one or more of the following:

A. A high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take.
B. Every step in the test spelled out in detail.
C. A high-level outline of the test conditions with the steps to take discussed in detail with another experienced tester.
D. Detailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step taken in the testing.

Explanation

Question 28 of 40

1

Put the test cases that implement the following test conditions into the best order for the test execution schedule, for a test that is checking modifications of customers on a database.
1. Print modified customer record.
2. Change customer address: house number and street name.
3. Capture and print the on-screen error message.
4. Change customer address: postal code.
5. Confirm existing customer is on the database by opening that record.
6. Close the customer record and close the database.
7. Try to add a new customer with no details at all.

Select one or more of the following:

A. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3, 7, 6
B. 4, 2, 5,1, 6, 7, 3
C. 5, 4, 2, 1, 7, 3, 6
D. 5,1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6

Explanation

Question 29 of 40

1

Why are both specification-based and structure-based testing techniques useful?

Select one or more of the following:

A. They find different types of defect.
B. Using more techniques is always better.
C. Both find the same types of defect.
D. Because specifications tend to be unstructured.

Explanation

Question 30 of 40

1

What is a key characteristic of structure-based testing techniques?

Select one or more of the following:

A. They are mainly used to assess the structure of a specification.
B. They are used both to measure coverage and to design tests to increase coverage.
C. They are based on the skills and experience of the tester.
D. They use a formal or informal model of the software or component.

Explanation

Question 31 of 40

1

Which of the following would be an example of decision-table testing for a financial application applied at the system-test level?

Select one or more of the following:

A. A table containing rules for combinations of inputs to two fields on a screen.
B. A table containing rules for interfaces between components.
C. A table containing rules for mortgage applications.
D. A table containing rules for chess.

Explanation

Question 32 of 40

1

Which of the following could be a coverage measure for state transition testing?
V. All states have been reached.
W. The response time for each transaction is adequate.
X. Every transition has been exercised.
Y. All boundaries have been exercised.
Z. Specific sequences of transitions have been exercised.

Select one or more of the following:

A. X, Y and Z
B. V, X, Y and Z
C. W,X and Y
D. V, X and Z

Explanation

Question 33 of 40

1

Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which sections of the test incident report should the following details be recorded?
Sections
a) Test incident report identifier
b) Summary
c) Incident description
d) Impact

Details
1. Unique identifier
2. Version level of the test items
3. Inputs
4. Expected results
5. Actual results
6. Anomalies
7. Dale and time

Select one or more of the following:

A. a: 1; b: 2 and 7; c: 3, 4 and 5; d: 6
B. a: 1; b: 6 and 7; c. 3, 4 and 5; d: 7
C. a: 1; b: 2; c: 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
D. a: 1; b: 6 and 7: c: 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Question 34 of 40

1

Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for specification based (black-box) test techniques?
V. Decision outcomes exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. State transitions exercised
Z. Statements exercised

Select one or more of the following:

A. Y, W, V, or Z
B. W, X or Y
C. V, X or Z
D. W, X, Y or Z

Explanation

Question 35 of 40

1

Which of the following is a potential pilot project objective when introducing a test support tool into an organization?

Select one or more of the following:

A. Measuring the satisfaction of management for staying within scope
B. Assessing whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost
C. Receiving compliments from the users on the aesthetic aspects of the tool
D. Reducing the amount of overtime need to finish the project on time

Explanation

Question 36 of 40

1

Use case testing is useful for which of the following?
P. Designing acceptance tests with users or customers.
Q. Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested.
R. Finding defects in the interaction between components.
S. Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field.
T. Identifying the percentage of statements exercised by a sets of tests.

Select one or more of the following:

A. P, Q and R
B. Q, S and T
C. P,Q and S
D. R, S and T

Explanation

Question 37 of 40

1

Which of the following statements about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is correct?

Select one or more of the following:

A. 100% decision coverage is achieved if statement coverage is greater than 90%.
B. 100% statement coverage is achieved if decision coverage is greater than 90%.
C. 100% decision coverage always means 100% statement coverage.
D. 100% statement coverage always means 100% decision coverage.

Explanation

Question 38 of 40

1

If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may get upgraded to business class, especially if you hold a gold card in the airline's frequent flier program. If you don't hold a gold card, there is a possibility that you will get 'bumped' off the flight if it is full and you check in late. This is shown in following Figure. Note that each box (i.e. statement) has been numbered.
Three tests have been run:
Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flight
What is the statement coverage of these three tests?

Select one or more of the following:

A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%

Explanation

Question 39 of 40

1

Why are error guessing and exploratory testing good to do?

Select one or more of the following:

A. They can find defects missed by specification-based and structure-based techniques.
B. They don't require any training to be as effective as formal techniques.
C. They can be used most effectively when there are good specifications.
D. They will ensure that all of the code or system is tested.

Explanation

Question 40 of 40

1

How do experience-based techniques differ from specification-based techniques?

Select one or more of the following:

A. They depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is structured rather than on a documented record of what the system should do.
B. They depend on having older testers rather than younger testers.
C. They depend on a documented record of what the system should do rather than on an individual's personal view.
D. They depend on an individual's personal view rather than on a documented record of what the system should do.

	Created by Daniel Neag almost 7 years ago

Quiz on 40 Question quiz 17 (641-680), created by Daniel Neag on 09/12/2017.

40 Question quiz 17 (641-680)

40 Question quiz 17 (641-680)

Question 1 of 40

A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word 'bug' is synonymous with which of the following words?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

Using an error guessing test design technique to convert temperature (Celsius to Fahrenheit, and Fahrenheit to Celsius), experienced testers will MOST LIKELY use which set of test data?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

Which of the following is a test type?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

is a non-functional quality characteristic?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

Which of these is a functional test?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency changes?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

A regression test:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

Non-functional testing includes:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

Which is not a type of review?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

What statement about reviews is true?

A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production.
Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?

Which of the following faults can be found by a static analysis tool?
I. Incorrect branch conditions logic.
II. Variables which are used after being defined.
III. Variables which are defined but never used.
V. Standards violations
V. Illegal calls to routines

Which of the following characteristics and types of review processes belong together?
1. Led by the author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry and exit criteria
s. Inspection
t. Technical review
u. Informal review
v. Walkthrough

Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which are false?
1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix.
2. Early test design can find defects.
3. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements.
4. Early test design takes more effort.

Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for specification based (black-box) test techniques?
V. Decision outcomes exercised
W. Partitions exercised
X. Boundaries exercised
Y. State transitions exercised
Z. Statements exercised