year 1 Infancy Pathology focus :)

Question 1 of 81

1

Which of the following is not an example of a PAMP?

Select one of the following:

Lipopolysaccharide
Lipoteichoic acid
Viral Genome (dsRNA)
DAMPs
Complement

Explanation

Question 2 of 81

1

What do PRRs do?

Select one of the following:

receptors on leukocytes that recognize PAMPS
receptors on infected cells that can be activated for cell death
specified subclass of PAMPS
Special proteins displayed on bacterial surfaces

Explanation

Question 3 of 81

1

What are some physical barriers that are part of the innate system?

Select one or more of the following:

skin
mucosa
stomach pH
lysozomes
natural body flora
macrophages
body fat

Explanation

Question 4 of 81

1

Which cells are involved in innate immunity?

Select one or more of the following:

macrophage
neutrophil
natural killer cell
dendritic cell
B-cell lymphocytes
T-cell lymphocytes
bone marrow cells
mast cells
thymus cellls

Explanation

Question 5 of 81

1

Which of the following isnt a granulocyte?

Select one of the following:

basophils
neutrophils
mast cells
eosinophils

Explanation

Question 6 of 81

1

Macrophages in the blood are known as monocytes.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 7 of 81

1

Macrophages in CNS are known as macroglia.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 8 of 81

1

What regarding Major Histocompability Complexes is true?

Select one or more of the following:

MHCI, MHCII, and MHCIII all serve different purposes in cell communication
all nucleated cells display MHC I
cytotoxic T cells interact with both MHC I and MHC II
MHC I recognizes antigens from the inside of the cell
MHC II is on all nucleated cells
MHC III recognizes antigens on the outside of cell
Helper T cells interact with MHC II
some complement proteins, cytokines, and enzymes displa MHC III
MHC I, MHC II, and MHC III all refer to the same receptor at different stages which is why they have very similar functions

Explanation

Question 9 of 81

1

Which statements regarding innate immunity are false?

Select one or more of the following:

C3 convertase leads to C3 cleaving into C3a and C3b
C3b leads to C5 convertase activating and cleaving into C5a and C5b
C5b--C9 activates Membrane-Attacking Complex
C5a and C3a are anaphalotoxins
C3b is opsonin and coats bacteria as complement
anaphylatoxins activate mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine and bradykinin
histamine and bradykinin lead to increased vascular permability and vasodilation
Membrane-Attacking Complex includes perforin and granzyme
Mannose-Binding Lectin, Classical, and Alternative all lead to the intial step of C3 convertase
Mannose-Binding Lectin, Classical, and Alternative all lead to the initial step of C5 convertase

Explanation

Question 10 of 81

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

What are TCRs?

TCRs, standing for , are on all T-cells and allow them to interact with other or . For example, the TCR interacts with a host cell's MHC in order to kill it.

Explanation

Question 11 of 81

1

There are 2 parts to adaptive immunity. The ❌ occurs when an ❌ arrives at the lymphnode and presents the antigen to the ❌ via ❌. Specifically, ❌ will interact with the antigen-presenting cell. This interaction will lead to the chemokines ❌ and ❌ being releases, which activate and bring over the ❌ T cells. The CD8+ killer T cell will then go off and bind to infected host cells via ❌ and initiate cell death. It does this via 2 ways: activating ❌ and the cytotoxic granule containing ❌ (which destroys cell inner stuff) and ❌ (which punches holes.)

Drag and drop to complete the text.

cell-mediated response

humoral response

antigen-presenting cell

neutrophil

phagocytic cell

CD4+ T cells

THI cells

TH2 cells

CD8+ T cells

MHC II

MHC III

MHC I

CD4+ TH1

CD4+ TH2

IL-2

IL-3

IL-4

IL-5

IL-6

IL-10

INF-gamma

INF-alpha

INF-beta

INF-delta

Killer

TH II cells

TH I cells

mhc I

mhc II

FAS ligand-receptor

MAC

cell nephrosis

granzyme

lysozyme

enzymes

granulozome

perforin

puncturin

hydrogenase

Explanation

Question 12 of 81

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The release of cytokines (in numerical order) , , and is part of the response of adaptive immunity.

Explanation

Question 13 of 81

1

Humoral Response cannot happen without Cell-mediated BUT cell-mediated can happen without humoral having to happen

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 14 of 81

1

Which of the following are part of the humoral response?

Select one or more of the following:

clonal activation
clonal selection
clonal distribution
clonal expansion
B plasma secretory cells
class switch
T memory cells
B memory cells
CD4+ TH I cells
CD4+ TH II cells

Explanation

Question 15 of 81

1

Which statements regarding rolling adhesion are correct?

Select one or more of the following:

selectins allow the phagocytic cell to roll across the epithelial walls
integrins allow the phagocytic cell to roll across the epithelial walls
integrins allow the phagocytic cell to stop at the right place in the epithelium
selectins allow the phagocytic cell to stop at the right place in the epithelium
1L-8 enhances chemotaxis of phagocytic cells to site of injury/infection
diapedesis is transepithelial migration of the leukocyte

Explanation

Question 16 of 81

1

Which chemokines increase the adhesiveness of epithelial cells?

Select one or more of the following:

IL-1
IL-2
IL-3
IL-12
INF-GAMMA
INF-ALPHA
INF-BETA
TNF-ALPHA

Explanation

Question 17 of 81

1

Which blood results is O-?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 81

1

Which is A-?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 81

1

O- is universal donor for blood and universal recipient for plasma

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 20 of 81

1

AB + is universal recipient for both plasma and blood

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 21 of 81

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Breast milk jaundice lasts than physiological jaundice. It is when certain compounds within the breast milk lead to higher levels. It usually sorts itself out. Breast milk jaundice is quite rare.

Explanation

Question 22 of 81

1

What are the types of jaundice?

Select one or more of the following:

Breastfeeding jaundice
Breastmilk jaundice
Physiological (Normal) Jaundice
Jaundice of Prematurity
Blood Group Incompatability
Hemolytic Disease of Newborn
Biliary Atresia
Jaundicemia

Explanation

Question 23 of 81

1

Physiological Jaundice occurs due to severe deficiency of erythrocyte decomposition and liver immaturity.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 24 of 81

1

How would you treat a Rhesus negative woman about to be impregnated by a Rhesus positive man due to concerns of Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?

Select one of the following:

Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins now to prevent Rhesus' Disease
Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins once pregnant to prevent Rhesus' Disease
Take Anti-D immunoglobulins throughout first trimester to prevent Rhesus' Disease
Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins third trimester to prevent Rhesus' Disease

Explanation

Question 25 of 81

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Jaundice before 24 or 48 hours is ( abnormal, normal ). Jaundice between ( 2-3 days, 1 week ) to ( 10-14 days, 1 month ) is ( Normal, Abnormal ). Treatment isn't needed, but ( phototherapy, x-ray fluoroscopy ) (using UV light) can be helpful, especially for ( premature, late ) babies. Sometimes, a small amount of the ( matched blood, mother's blood ) is placed into the fetus to help speed up the process. Jaundice may last longer than that, which is ( ab-normal, normaL ). In which cases, ( surgical treatment, wide spread antibiotics ) and further investigation may be needed.

Explanation

Question 26 of 81

1

What regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn is correct?

Select one or more of the following:

it is due to mixing of the fetus' blood and maternal blood during the first pregnancy
it is due to mixing of the fetus' blood and maternal blood during the second pregnancy
leads to hyperbilirubinemia
leads to anemia
if severe, can lead to multi-organ failure
if severe, can lead to hypoproteinemia
maternal antibodies will start attacking fetus' blood cells during first pregnancy
maternal antibodies will start attacking fetus' blood cells during second pregnancy

Explanation

Question 27 of 81

1

If Jaundice in the first 24 hours, why might it be due to?

Select one or more of the following:

Blood group incompability
Red cell defects
Rhesus disease
physiological
Breast milk jaundice
neonatal hepatitis

Explanation

Question 28 of 81

1

If jaundice after 14 days, what may be a cause?

Select one or more of the following:

Biliary atresia
neonatal hepatitis
breast milk jaundice
breast feeding jaundice
hypothyrodism
errors in new born's metabolism abilities
blood group incompatability
physiological
pre-eclampsia

Explanation

Question 29 of 81

1

In gram staining, what type of microorganism stains purple?

Select one of the following:

Gram + bacteria
Gram - bacteria
Gram + virus
Gram - virus
Gram + fungus
Gram - fungus

Explanation

Question 30 of 81

1

Gram negative bacteria have LPS, thin cell wall, and stain red

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 31 of 81

1

A primary headache is a headache due to the condition itself and not another cause.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 32 of 81

1

What is characteristic of a cluster headache?

Select one or more of the following:

unilateral
bilateral
unilateral or bilateral
extremely painful--feel like banging your head or tearing out your hair
periorbital pain
mild pain
medium pain

Explanation

Question 33 of 81

1

what is NOT characteristic of migraine?

Select one of the following:

bilateral or unilateral
pulsating or throbbing pain
medium pain
periorbital pain

Explanation

Question 34 of 81

1

What is characteristic of tension headache?

Select one or more of the following:

mild pain
tight band, non-tender kind of pain
broad generalized but tender pain
intense pain
medium pain
bilateral
bilateral or unilateral
unilateral

Explanation

Question 35 of 81

1

How might you treat tension headache?

Select one or more of the following:

Lifestyle changes
EX: control sleep, diet, and exercise
Paracetamol
NSAIDs
Surgical means
corticosteroids

Explanation

Question 36 of 81

1

How might you treat and prevent migraines?

Select one or more of the following:

TRTMENT: NSAIDS
TRTMENT: paracetamol
TRTMENT: surgical intervention
TRTMENT: Triptans
ex: sumitriptan
PRVNT: Beta-blockers
PRVNT: Amitriptyline
(tricyclic antidepressant)
PRVNT: corticosteroids

Explanation

Question 37 of 81

1

How might you treat and prevent a cluster headache?

Select one or more of the following:

TRTMENT: give oxygen for 15 minutes
TRTMENT: triptans
PRVNT: Surgical intervention--> Occipital nerve block
PRVNT: Verapamil (calcium channel blocker)
TRTMENT: Verapamil (calcium channel blocker)
TRTMENT: Surgical intervention--> Occipital nerve block
PRVNT: triptans
PRVNT: give oxygen for 15 minutes

Explanation

Question 38 of 81

1

Morbillivirus is a single-stranded RNA which infects lower respiratory tract and lungs and leads to measles.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 39 of 81

1

What is the MMR vaccine?

Select one or more of the following:

measles
rubella
mumps
roseola
rubiola
meningitis

Explanation

Question 40 of 81

1

Which of the following is not part of the presentation of measles?

Select one of the following:

Fever paired with a cough and coryza
blotchy pink rash: beginning at the back of the ear
Koplik spots
swelling around eyes and conjunctivitis
vomiting

Explanation

Question 41 of 81

1

Measles is a notifiable disease.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 42 of 81

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

There is no fixxerup for measles. You can provide support via rest, drinking , (reducing fever) etc. Because measles is , the child must stay at home until resolved illness.

Explanation

Question 43 of 81

1

If an immunosuppressed or pregnant person came into contact with an infectious measles person in the past 48 hours, what would you give?

Select one of the following:

MMR vaccine (or just measles vaccine)
measles antibodies

Explanation

Question 44 of 81

1

Click on the orange point and select the correct answer.

This type of rash is characterisitic of....?

Explanation

Question 45 of 81

1

Click on the orange point and select the correct answer.

This severe edema of parotid glands is characteristic of what?

Explanation

Question 46 of 81

1

How might mumps present?

Select one or more of the following:

starts off generic: malaise, fever, headache
can lead to orchiditis
vomitting and cold sweats
Koplik spots

Explanation

Question 47 of 81

1

The only way to manage mumps is to keep the child out of school to avoid infectious spread.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 48 of 81

1

Which immunoglobulin is involved in innate immunity, can act as BCR, can cross the placenta, is nonspecific and is a pentamer?

Select one of the following:

IgG
IgM
IgE
IgD
IgA

Explanation

Question 49 of 81

1

Which immunoglobulin is in breast milk and helps infants until their immune system is capable?

Select one of the following:

IgA
IgE
IgD
IgM
IgG

Explanation

Question 50 of 81

1

Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergy?

Select one of the following:

IgE
IgD
IgA
IgG
IgM

Explanation

Question 51 of 81

1

Which is the small Y-shaped specific immunoglobulin?

Select one of the following:

IgG
IgE
IgD
IgA
IgM

Explanation

Question 52 of 81

1

IgD is the only BCR of the five imunoglobulins.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 53 of 81

1

How might Rubella present?

Select one or more of the following:

lymphadenopathy
initially very similar presentation to a normal cold
EX: anorexia, malaise, eye irritation, minor fever
rash spreading from ears--> trunk/abdomen--> extremities
rash dissapears within 1-3 days

Explanation

Question 54 of 81

1

Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to what complication for the child later on?

Select one of the following:

Congenital rubella syndrome
Rubiolla
Anemia
Heart complications

Explanation

Question 55 of 81

1

Rubella is managed by keeping child home to avoid infectious spread, fluids, rest, and antipyretics.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 56 of 81

1

Chickenpox is caused by ❌. It is most infectious 1-2 days ❌ the rash appears and then stays contagious until after the rash disappears. It is a ❌ kind of rash that accompanies malaise, headache, and ❌. There is no cure, but healthy individuals can be given a ❌ lotion for the itchiness. If a pregnant or immunodeficient person isn't vaccinated against chicken pox, give her the ❌. If a pregnant or immunodeficient person develops the chickenpox rash, give them ❌.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

varicella zoster

herpes zoster

before

after

very itchy vesicle

widespread but merely discomforting

blistering, pus-filled boils

abdominal pain

widespread pain

pain in lymph node areas

Calamine

Silver Sulfadiazine

topical Hydrocortisone

antibodies

vaccination

Aciclovir

more antibodies

vaccination booster

Explanation

Question 57 of 81

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Shingles, most common in elderly with immunity, is like the adult version of chicken pox (although adults can still also get chicken pox.) It's caused by the zoster. Its characteristic difference is that the rash does not pass the and is limited to one (region of sensory innervation.) The patient may report in the area before the rash appears. Management is mainly supportive: analgesic, rest, fluids, etc. If highly severe, is given. Not having chicken pox in childhood or getting the vaccination places you at a risk of getting shingles later on.

Explanation

Question 58 of 81

1

What bacteria causes scarlet fever?

Select one of the following:

streptococcus pyogens
diptheria bacillus
clostridium difficile
pasteurella multocida

Explanation

Question 59 of 81

1

Scarlet fever is not a notifiable disease

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 60 of 81

1

How might scarlet fever present?

Select one or more of the following:

myalgia
tachycardia
fever
sandpapery and strawberry tongue and rash
addominal pain
throat edema
ear infection
cold sweats

Explanation

Question 61 of 81

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Investigation of scarlet fever is done via ( throat swab, blood works, urine test, general physical analysis ) and culture. Management is ( penicillin, warfarin, rhogam, corticosteroids ) for ( 10, 7, 14, 30 ) days. If allergic to penicillin, ( azithromycin, oral metronidazole, oral vancomycin ) is the alternative. Management should also include symtomatic treatment: ex: ( paracetamol, ibuprofen, aspirin ). As scarlet fever is highly contagious, person must stay home until illness resolves.

Explanation

Question 62 of 81

1

Which bacteria are always gram +?

Select one or more of the following:

staphylococcus
streptococcus
bacillus
diplococci
Spiral spirochetes

Explanation

Question 63 of 81

1

What regarding clostridium difficile is correct?

Select one or more of the following:

opportunic pathogen
gram + bacteria
gram - bacteria
usually due to broad spectrum antibiotic usage
presents as abdominal pain and diaarea
management:
1. oral metronidazole for 10-14 days
2. if not responding efficiently enough, oral vancomycin
management:
1. oral vancomycin for 10-14 days
2. if not responding efficiently enough, oral metronidazole
presents as abdominal pain and diarrhoea and abdominal edema

Explanation

Question 64 of 81

1

What regarding glandular fever is correct?

Select one or more of the following:

Epstein-barr virus found in the saliva of infected people
presentation includes Lymphadenopathy
presentation includes sore throat and enlarged tonsils
only supportive management possible
investigation: an unusual increased amount of lymphocytes
antiviral treatment and supportive management possible
antipyretics given
presentation includes rash covering neck and abdomen

Explanation

Question 65 of 81

1

What is true regarding Lyme disease?

Select one or more of the following:

It is due to a parasite and bacterial infection
it is due to a bacterial infection
it is due to a parasite
has no characteristic rash
has characteristic "bull's eye" rash
will present as fever, lethargy, and myalgia
disease can lead to joint pathology, heart and neuro pathology
the disease can lead to respiratory failure, lower intestines pathology, and appendicitis
will present as fever, vomittting, and diarrhea

Explanation

Question 66 of 81

1

What is meningitis?

Select one of the following:

inflammation of the meninges
infection of the cerebrospinal fluid
inflammation of the blood-brain barriers
autoimmune reaction against neurons of the central nervous system

Explanation

Question 67 of 81

1

Which of these causes meningitis?

Select one or more of the following:

streptococcus pneumonia
neisseria meningitidis

Explanation

Question 68 of 81

1

How does meningitis present?

Select one or more of the following:

headache
neck stiffness
a fever
non-blanching rash when glass test is done
blanching rash when glass test is done
vomitting
myalgia
diarrheoa
seizures

Explanation

Question 69 of 81

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

Doxycycline, an antibiotic, is given as management for ( Lyme's disease, Meningitis, Chicken pox, Glandular Fever ).

Explanation

Question 70 of 81

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

Doxycycline, an antibiotic, is given as management for ( Lyme's disease, Meningitis, Chicken pox, Glandular Fever ).

Explanation

Question 71 of 81

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

Intravenous ceftriaxone is given as management for ( meningitis, scarlet fever, glandular fever, Lyme's disease ).

Explanation

Question 72 of 81

1

Benzylpenicillin is given intramuscularly if there is a community danger of meningitis break out.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 73 of 81

1

How might the CSF appear normally?

Select one or more of the following:

clear and colorless
murky and yellowish
.2-.4 protein concentration
<.2 protein concentration
60-80% plasma glucose
50-75% plasma glucose
no organisms
natural microflora present
high amount of lymphocytes
few amount of lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 74 of 81

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

If the CSF has cloudy murky appearance with increased protein concentration, high amount of neutrophils, plenty of organisms, reduced glucose, and high pressure, is it a bacterial, viral, or TB infection

Explanation

Question 75 of 81

1

What does viral infected CSF appear like?

Select one or more of the following:

increased protein concentration
clear and colorless look
normal glucose
higher opening pressure
lesser glucose
decreased protein concentration
high amount of lymphocytes
high amount of neutrophils
many organisms
no organisms

Explanation

Question 76 of 81

1

What is true regarding management of meningitis?

Select one or more of the following:

medical emergency: do ABCD survey
Lumbar puncture at L3/L4
Lumbar Puncture at L1/L2/L3/L4
Ceftriaxone 4mg intravenously
Blood culture if not spinal tap
Blood culture and spinal tap
Ceftriaxone 4mg orally

Explanation

Question 77 of 81

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

A is when a type of treatment backfires and ends up harming the person.

Explanation

Question 78 of 81

1

Which of the following is NOT an example of contraindications to lumbar puncture?

Select one of the following:

shock
convulsions
coagulation abnormalities
infection over site of puncture
decreased intracranial pressure
extensive purpura

	Created by Plymouth Med almost 7 years ago

content courtesy of Dayo's teach

year 1 Infancy Pathology focus :)

Question 1 of 81

Which of the following is not an example of a PAMP?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 81

What do PRRs do?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 81

What are some physical barriers that are part of the innate system?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 81

Which cells are involved in innate immunity?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 81

Which of the following isnt a granulocyte?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 81

Macrophages in the blood are known as monocytes.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 81

Macrophages in CNS are known as macroglia.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 81

What regarding Major Histocompability Complexes is true?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 81

Which statements regarding innate immunity are false?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 81

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

What are TCRs? TCRs, standing for , are on all T-cells and allow them to interact with other or . For example, the TCR interacts with a host cell's MHC in order to kill it.

Explanation

Question 11 of 81

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Explanation

Question 12 of 81

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The release of cytokines (in numerical order) , , and is part of the response of adaptive immunity.

Explanation

Question 13 of 81

Humoral Response cannot happen without Cell-mediated BUT cell-mediated can happen without humoral having to happen

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 81

Which of the following are part of the humoral response?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 81

Which statements regarding rolling adhesion are correct?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 81

Which chemokines increase the adhesiveness of epithelial cells?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 81

Which blood results is O-?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 81

Which is A-?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 81

O- is universal donor for blood and universal recipient for plasma

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 81

AB + is universal recipient for both plasma and blood

Select one of the following:

What are TCRs?

TCRs, standing for , are on all T-cells and allow them to interact with other or . For example, the TCR interacts with a host cell's MHC in order to kill it.