David  Tirol
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Ophthalmology Quiz on Fundamentals Self Assessment - AAO, created by David Tirol on 07/01/2018.

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David  Tirol
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Fundamentals Self Assessment - AAO

Question 1 of 32

1

If all the nerves passing through the annulus of Zinn were transected, what nerve would
continue to function?

Select one of the following:

  • superior division of cranial nerve III

  • cranial nerve IV

  • nasociliary branch of cranial nerve V (V1)

  • optic nerve

Explanation

Question 2 of 32

1

Which extraocular muscle originates from the annulus of Zinn?

Select one of the following:

  • Levator palpebrae superioris

  • Superior oblique

  • Lateral rectus

  • Inferior oblique

Explanation

Question 3 of 32

1

What is the ratio of optic nerve axons that cross at the optic chiasm to those that do not cross at the optic chiasm?

Select one of the following:

  • 67:33

  • 50:50

  • 30:70

  • 53:47

Explanation

Question 4 of 32

1

A patient presents with left-sided ophthalmoplegia and forehead numbness. The lesion is
most likely to be located at the:

Select one of the following:

  • Brainstem

  • Cavernous sinus

  • Superior Orbit

  • Intraconal space

Explanation

Question 5 of 32

1

The first cells to develop in the embryonic retina are the:

Select one of the following:

  • Ganglion cells

  • Photoreceptors

  • Amacrine Cells

  • Bipolar cells

Explanation

Question 6 of 32

1

Which disorder is associated with a non-mitochondrial gene?

Select one of the following:

  • Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

  • Chronic Progressive External Ophthalmoplegia

  • Neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa

  • Retinoblastoma

Explanation

Question 7 of 32

1

What characteristic of retinoblastoma may facilitate its diagnosis as a familial condition?

Select one of the following:

  • It may be associated with chromosome 11 short-arm deletion syndrome and Wilms
    tumor.

  • It affects approximately 1 per 100,000 live births in the United States.

  • Approximately 90% of patients with hereditary retinoblastoma have a family history of
    the disease.

  • The hereditary pattern in familial retinoblastoma is autosomal dominant, but the defect is mitochondrial at a cellular level.

Explanation

Question 8 of 32

1

Mutations in the rhodopsin gene are associated with what inherited ocular disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Juvenile Glaucoma

  • Leber Heriditary Optic Neuropathy

  • Retinitis Pigmentosa

  • Stargardt Disease

Explanation

Question 9 of 32

1

Mitochondrial inheritance is transmitted by what route?

Select one of the following:

  • Paternal mitochondria

  • Maternal mitochondria

  • Acquired mitochondria

  • De novo mitochondria

Explanation

Question 10 of 32

1

Mutations of PAX6 are associated with what disorder?

Select one of the following:

  • Aniridia

  • Retinal Coloboma

  • Retinal Hypoplasia

  • Corneal granular dystrophy

Explanation

Question 11 of 32

1

An unaffected woman has a brother, maternal uncle, and son affected with retinitis pigmentosa. What is the most likely mode of inheritance?

Select one of the following:

  • Autosomal dominant

  • X-linked recessive

  • Autosomal recessive

  • sporadric

Explanation

Question 12 of 32

1

What is the basis for complex genetic diseases?

Select one of the following:

  • A single recessive gene

  • X-linked genes

  • A single spontaneous genetic mutation

  • The resultant effect of many genes, in combination with health habits and environmental factors

Explanation

Question 13 of 32

1

What structure, if inflamed, would be considered a sign of uveitis?

Select one of the following:

  • Optic nerve

  • Descemet membrane

  • Choroid

  • Retinal pigment epithelium

Explanation

Question 14 of 32

1

What pair accurately matches a cell-type origin with the correct tear-layer product?

Select one of the following:

  • Goblet cells - Lipid Layer

  • Meibomian Glands - Mucin Layer

  • Glands of Krause - Aqueous layer

  • Glands of Wolfring - Mucin layer

Explanation

Question 15 of 32

1

What option most accurately describes the immunoglobulin(s) that can be found in the tear film?

Select one of the following:

  • IgA only

  • IgA and IgG only

  • IgG and IgM only

  • IgA, IgG, IgM, and IgD

Explanation

Question 16 of 32

1

What intraocular structure is a true basement membrane (basal lamina)?

Select one of the following:

  • Bowman layer

  • Zonule of Zinn

  • Descemet Membrane

  • Anterior border layer of the Iris

Explanation

Question 17 of 32

1

What is the principal structural protein in the Descemet membrane

Select one of the following:

  • Type I collagen

  • Type II collagen

  • Type III collagen

  • Type IV collagen

Explanation

Question 18 of 32

1

What mechanism holds the flap created during laser in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) in place after surgery?

Select one of the following:

  • endothelial - Descemet membrane interaction

  • endothelial pump

  • Bowman layer - stromal adhesions

  • stromal collagen adhesions

Explanation

Question 19 of 32

1

What property of the retina renders it susceptible to oxidative stress?

Select one of the following:

  • high content of polyunsaturated fatty acids in the photoreceptor outer segments

  • high concentration of carotenoids compared with other intraocular structure

  • presence of Vitamin E

  • absence of retinal vessels in the foveal avascular zone

Explanation

Question 20 of 32

1

What pigment within the retinal pigment epithelium is responsible for the signal generated in fundus autofluorescence imaging?

Select one of the following:

  • melanin

  • lipofuscin

  • rhodopsin

  • lutein

Explanation

Question 21 of 32

1

The retinal pigment epithelium is the first site of melanogenesis in the body. Ocular melanin has been shown to participate in what process?

Select one of the following:

  • Pathogenesis of retinitis pigmentosa

  • Vitamin A metabolism

  • Retinal adhesion

  • Retinal development and neuronal migration

Explanation

Question 22 of 32

1

Age-related loss of type IX collagen has been implicated in what process related to the vitreous?

Select one of the following:

  • vitreous hemorrhage

  • angiogenesis

  • increase diffusion of oxygen from the anterior segment to the posterior segment

  • vitreous liquefaction

Explanation

Question 23 of 32

1

What vitamin is most critical for the photoreceptor response to light

Select one of the following:

  • A

  • B

  • C

  • E

Explanation

Question 24 of 32

1

In prescribing for elderly patients, what pharmacologic adjustments should be considered?

Select one of the following:

  • Hepatic perfusion and enzymatic activity increase with age.

  • Renal function decreases with age.

  • Elderly patients have more albumin relative to weight.

  • Elderly patients have more body water relative to weight

Explanation

Question 25 of 32

1

What technique or strategy improves the ocular absorption of eyedrops?

Select one of the following:

  • Rapid instillation of eyedrops one after the other without interruption

  • Application of digital pressure at the lateral canthus to prevent the eyedrop from escaping

  • Keeping the eye open and rolling the eye around after instillation of each drop

  • Increasing the viscosity of the delivery vehicle

Explanation

Question 26 of 32

1

Atropine, 1%, has how many milligrams of drug per drop, assuming 20 drops per milliliter?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 mg

  • 0.5 mg

  • 0.1 mg

  • 0.05 mg

Explanation

Question 27 of 32

1

How much epinephrine is present in 1 mL of the 1:10,000 epinephrine solution?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 mg of epinephrine

  • same amount of epinephrine as in 1 mL of 0.01% epinephrine

  • same amount of epinephrine as in 1 mL of 1:1000 epinephrine

  • Same amount of epinephrine as in 1 mL of 0.1% epinephrine

Explanation

Question 28 of 32

1

Direct-acting muscarinic agents (miotics) have what clinical effect?

Select one of the following:

  • hyperopic shift in refraction

  • increased range of accomodation

  • central anterior chamber deepening

  • increased night vision

Explanation

Question 29 of 32

1

What management strategy has been shown to reduce postsurgical endophthalmitis?

Select one of the following:

  • preoperative preparation of the eye with topical povidone-iodine

  • intracameral vancomycin

  • intracameral aminoglycosides

  • subconjunctival fluoroquinolones

Explanation

Question 30 of 32

1

What property of latanoprost may limit its usefulness?

Select one of the following:

  • It is a prodrug of prostaglandin E20 .

  • It reduces intraocular pressure by increasing trabecular meshwork outflow

  • It can cause darkening ofthe iris and periocular skin and hypertrichosis ofthe eyelashes

  • It increases the number of melanocytes

Explanation

Question 31 of 32

1

What systemic side effect may result from treatment with oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

Select one of the following:

  • Insomnia

  • Weight gain

  • Hyperkalemia

  • Aplastic anemia

Explanation

Question 32 of 32

1

What is a clinically important property of brimonidine?

Select one of the following:

  • Brimonidine is a selective a 1-adrenergic agonist.

  • Brimonidine is more lipophilic than apraclonidine.

  • Brimonidine has been associated with tachycardia and hyperventilation when used in
    infants.

  • Rates of tachyphylaxis and allergic reaction are higher in brimonidine than in apraclonidine

Explanation