timi Lamikanra
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Quiz on pathoanatomy mcq-s 251-350, created by timi Lamikanra on 17/01/2018.

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timi Lamikanra
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pathoanatomy mcq-s 251-350

pathoanatomy mcq-s 251-350

Question 1 of 100

1

select the epithelial ovarian tumours

Select one of the following:

  • granulosa cell tumor

  • thecoma

  • brenner's tumor

  • androblastoma

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

252: which of the following are epithelial ovarian tumors

Select one or more of the following:

  • thecoma

  • serous granuloma

  • dysgerminoma

  • brenner's tumor

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

253: which of the following are sex-ord stromal ovarian tumors

Select one or more of the following:

  • granulosa cell tumor

  • thecoma

  • dysgerminoma

  • androblastoma

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

254: which of the following ovarian tumors are benign

Select one or more of the following:

  • papillary cystadenoma

  • papillary cystadenocarcinoma

  • dysgerminoma

  • thecoma

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

255: which of the following ovarian tumors are malignant

Select one or more of the following:

  • serous cystadenoma

  • endodermal yolk sac tumor

  • thecoma

  • mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

256: in fibro-cystic breast disease we find the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • solitary nodule

  • multiple nodules

  • cyst

  • papillary proliferations

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

257: in fibroadenoma of the breast we find

Select one or more of the following:

  • multiple nodules

  • cysts

  • solitary nodules

  • proliferated mammary ducts and stroma

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

258: benign prostate hyperplaia is seen most commonly in

Select one or more of the following:

  • median lobe

  • Subscapular prostate tissuee

  • lateral lobes

  • periurethreal prostate tissue

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

259: prostate carcinoma is usualy seen in

Select one or more of the following:

  • lateral lobe

  • possterior lobe

  • periuretheral prostatic tissue

  • subcapsular prostate tissue

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

260: which two markers are valuable for the diagnosis of prostate cancer

Select one or more of the following:

  • PSA

  • HER2

  • PAP

  • estrogen receptors

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

261: what pathogenic mechanism can be used for the therapy of prostate carcinoma

Select one of the following:

  • hormonal therapy-antitestosterone drugs

  • hormonal therapy-antiprogesterone drugs

  • treatment with monoclonal antibodies

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

which of the following types of cancer metastasize to bone

Select one or more of the following:

  • ovarian cancer

  • renal cancer

  • breast cancer

  • thyroid gland cancer

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

bone metastases are observed in which of the following types of cancer

Select one or more of the following:

  • gastric cancer

  • ovarian cancer

  • prostate cancer

  • breast cancer

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

which of the following statements are true for graves disease

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is the most common cause for hypothyroidism

  • exopthalmus in some patients

  • pretibial myxedema

  • usually most patients are euthyroud

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

the following is true for grave's

Select one or more of the following:

  • it causes heroerthroidism

  • autoantibodies against TSH receptors

  • affects men more than women

  • thyroid stimulating igG is the cause

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

histiologically in grave's disease we can find

Select one or more of the following:

  • nodular colloid goiter

  • signs of thyroid hyperfunction

  • small thyroid follicles with small amounts of dilluted colloid

  • many resorbtive vacuoles in the thyroid

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

in nodular toxic goiter we can observe the following

Select one of the following:

  • exoptholmos

  • there are found autoantibodies against TSH-receptors

  • pretibial myxedema

  • colloid nodular goiter

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

which of the following are renal complications for diabetes

Select one or more of the following:

  • arterioo-hyalinosis of vas afferens and vas efferens

  • chronic pyelonephritis

  • diffuse and segmental glomerulosclerosis

  • diabetic retinopathy

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

in goiter we observe

Select one or more of the following:

  • cystically dilated thyroid follicles

  • histological accomodation of the epitheloum lining the follicles

  • papillary folds of the epithelium of the follicles

  • diluted, scarce colloid

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

hashimoto thyroiditis is chaaracterized by

Select one or more of the following:

  • the thyroid follicles are dilated, filled with large amounts of concentrated colloid

  • atypical looking cells called oncocytes

  • the thyroid follicles are replaced by lymph follicles

  • these lymphoid follicles have pale germinal centres

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

pneumococcus usually causes infections of the cns in

Select one of the following:

  • newborns

  • adults

  • teenagers

  • toddlers

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

haemmophylus influenza is the most common etiological agent for infections of the CNS in

Select one of the following:

  • newborns

  • adults

  • teenagers

  • toddlers

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Escherichia coli is the most common etiological agent for infections of the CNS in

Select one of the following:

  • newborns

  • adults

  • teenagers

  • toddlers

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Neissaria meningitidis is the most common etiological agent for infections of the CNS in

Select one of the following:

  • newborns

  • adults

  • teenagers

  • toddlers

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Which of the following statements are true tumors for tumours of the CNS

Select one or more of the following:

  • metastatic tumours to the brain are more common than the primary

  • primary tumors of the CNS often metastasize outside the CNS

  • Primary tumors of the CNS almost never metastasize outside the CNS

  • most important factor for the outcome is the tumor location

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

which are the purposes of pathological autopsy

Select one or more of the following:

  • to accuse the clinicians of medical malpractice

  • to establish the cause of death and the definitive diagnosis

  • to help educate clinicians and to improve their work

  • to help the relatives of the deceased to convict the doctors

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

which are the donditions for an autopsy to be done

Select one of the following:

  • death occured in a hospital due to a disease

  • available medical history of the patient

  • presence of the treating doctor

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

what are the characteristics of a frozen section

Select one or more of the following:

  • urgent diagnosis given during an operation

  • the preparation of the tissue samples is done by a parrafin method

  • the preparation of the tissue sample is done on a freezing microtome

  • sometimes the diagnosis is not exactly clear because of the preparation method but information like "malingant tumor", "benign tumor" or "inflammation" is given to the surgeons to know how to proceed with the operation

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

which fixative is most commonly used

Select one of the following:

  • bouin solution

  • absolute alcohol

  • formalin 10%

  • salts of heavy metals

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

what fixatives should be used for a liver biopsy from a baby with a suspected inherited metabolic disease

Select one of the following:

  • formalin 10%

  • 1,5-4% glutaraldehyde

  • frozen section

  • zenker's fixative

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

what is the role of immiunohistochemical stains

Select one or more of the following:

  • to give urgent answers about the diagnosis or at least orientation about the pathological process during surgery

  • to determine the histogenesis of the tumor especially in highly undifferentiarted malignant tumors

  • to determine the proliferative activity and the hormonal receptros of the tumor that is highly important for the treatment

  • to help determine the cause of death

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

cytokeratin, S-protein, vimentin, desmin, CD-20 are examples of

Select one of the following:

  • special stains to prove different substances

  • imunohistochemical markers

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

in which cases a pathological autopsy is performed

Select one or more of the following:

  • when there is suspicion for diagnostic or therrapeutic malpractice

  • death of a person outside the hospital

  • when there is suspicion of violent death

  • death of a patient in the hospital and when the relatives dont ask the principal to cancen the autopsy

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

which of the followingd id not a part of performing an autopsy

Select one of the following:

  • dissection of organ

  • opening the body

  • taking a biopsy from organ change

  • extraction of abdominal and thoracic organs

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

size, shape, elasticity, consistency, color and cut surfaces are characteristics of

Select one of the following:

  • microscope examination of organs

  • gross examination of organs

  • ultramiscrscopic examination of organs

  • none of the listed

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

indicate correctly the name of the described test. The pericardial sac is cut in a Y-like section and filled with water, after that, in the presence of a witness, the right ventricle is punctured with a knife

Select one of the following:

  • test for thromboembolism

  • test for pneumothroax

  • test for air and gas embolism

  • test for fat embolism

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Indicate correctly the name of the described test: The pulmonary artery is cut at the place of truncus pulmonalis. Tweezers are inserted and the content of the artery is taken out for examination

Select one of the following:

  • test for pneumothorax

  • test for air and gas embolism

  • test for thromboembolism

  • test for fat embolism

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

indicate correctly the name of the described test: A pocket between the skin and the ribs is formed and is filled with water. In the presence of a witness, the thorax is punctured with a thin knife in an intercostal space

Select one of the following:

  • test for air and gas embolism

  • test for fat embolism

  • test for thromboembolism

  • test for pneumothorax

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

where is the main accumulation of glycogen in patients with diabetes

Select one or more of the following:

  • in epithelial cells of conovulated tubules and henle's loop

  • in epithelial cells of gastrointestinal mucosa

  • in the nuclei and in the cytoplasm of the hepatocytes

  • endothelial cells of the vessels

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

the abnormal inclusions in the hepatpcytes in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Select one of the following:

  • glycogen

  • lipids

  • bile

  • proteins

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

PAS reaction with PAS control is used to distinguish

Select one of the following:

  • Cholesterol from other lipids

  • glycogen from mucus

  • DNA from RNA

  • denatured intracelliilar proteins from accumulated extracellular proteins

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

PAS control is done using

Select one of the following:

  • sulfuric acid

  • hydrocloric acid

  • amylase

  • picric acid

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

what is the relation between fatty degeneration of the liver and diabetes

Select one of the following:

  • there is no relation between them

  • patients with diabetes have increased intake of lipifd to provide more energy

  • the fatty liver in diabetes is caused by increased lipolysis and increased delivery of fatty acids in the liver

  • the fatty liver leads to diabetes mellitis

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

what is the adroid type of obesity

Select one of the following:

  • also called "male" ore "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called "female" or "pear" type, it is the accumulation of luipids in the fatty cells around the hips, thighs and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders, and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the thighs, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

what is gynoid type obesity

Select one of the following:

  • also called "male" or "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called "female" or "pear" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the thighs, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

what is upper type of obesity

Select one of the following:

  • also called "male" or "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called "female" or "pear" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, thighs and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the shoulders, face and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the thighs, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

what is lower type of obesity

Select one of the following:

  • also called "male" or "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called "female" or "pear" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the thighs, hips and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the thighs , hips and legs

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

which obesity has the worse prognosis

Select one of the following:

  • gynoid type

  • male type

  • the obesity doesnt affect the patient's health

  • all of the obesity types have the same prognosis

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

haemolytic jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings

Select one of the following:

  • the increased indirect billirubin in the serum, hypercholic stoools and increased urobilinogen in the urine

  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, oth bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine

  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, inccreased billirubin in the urine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

mechanical jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings

Select one of the following:

  • increased indirect billirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobillinogen in the urine

  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, oth bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine

  • increased direct billirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, inctreased bilirubin in the urine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

parenchymal jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings:

Select one of the following:

  • increased indirect billirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobillinogen in the urine

  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, oth bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine

  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

what is the common between fibrosis, sclereosis and cirrhosis

Select one of the following:

  • the common is the increased development of connective tissue in the organ

  • the common is the lipid accumulation in the interstitium of the organ

  • the common is the fibrinoud degeneration of the organ

  • they are different processes and dont have anything common between them

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

whay is the clinical significance of hyalinosis of the pancreatic arterioles

Select one of the following:

  • it an cause diavetes mellitus

  • it an cause pancreatic cancer

  • it an cause acute pancreatitis

  • hyalinosis in the pancreas is a physiological process related with aging

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

which stain is used to prove rheumatism in acute stage in a heart valve

Select one of the following:

  • prussian blue

  • toluidin blue

  • congo-red

  • pearls

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

mucoid swelling can be seen in

Select one of the following:

  • heart valves in rheumatism

  • basedow's dermopathy

  • myxedema

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

the necrosis which develops ar the base of an acure or chronic active ulcer in the stomach or duodenum is

Select one of the following:

  • coagulative

  • caseous

  • fibrinoid

  • liquefactive

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

indicate the correct statement(s) for he neogrosclerosis arteriolosclerotica

Select one or more of the following:

  • it affects micoscopically the afferent and efferent arterioles

  • it is a result of prolonged benign hypertension

  • it is a reversible process

  • the process is hyalinosis

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

what are the microscopic changes seen in the brain in benign long-term hypertension

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyalinosis of the vessel's walls

  • edema around vessels

  • accumulation of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the soft brain membranes

  • development of specific granulomas in the brain tissues

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

the gross descriotion: thick, hard, glassy, whitish depositions, non-digestable by enzymes, is indicative for

Select one of the following:

  • steatonecrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • hyalinosis

  • fibrinoid deposition

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

the following diseases are examples of amylid depositions. find the mistake

Select one of the following:

  • rheumatoid arthritis-AA amyloid

  • multiple myeloma-AL amyloid

  • medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland-AA amyloid

  • alzheimer's disease-A4 myeloid

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

sago spleen and lardaceous spleen are

Select one of the following:

  • gross appearamce of the localized (sago spleen) and generalized (lardaceous spleen) amyloidosis of the spleen

  • sago spleen is amyloidosis of the spleen, while lardaceous spleen is hyalinosis of the spleen

  • gross apperance of the spleen in hodgkin's lymphoma depending on on rhe severity of the process

  • in lardaceous spleen the amyloid is deposited in the white pulp only, while in sago spleen both the white and red pulp have amyloid deposition

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

systemic amyloidosis is proven by a biopsy from

Select one or more of the following:

  • gingiva

  • heart

  • fat tissue from abdominal wall

  • ileum

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

what type of calcification develops in the complicated athereosclerotic plaques

Select one of the following:

  • metastatic

  • dystrophic

  • metabolic

  • physiological

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

which are the causes for hypocalcemia

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypoparathyroidism

  • hyperparathyroidism

  • intoxication with vit d

  • senile osteoporosis

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

what kind of gout can develop in a patient with leucemia

Select one of the following:

  • gout caused by excesive consumption of meat and meat products

  • genetic gout caused by an error in the metabolism of uric acid

  • renal injury because kidneys cannot excrete the excessive amount of uric acid

  • patient with leucosis never develop gout

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

which if the following microscopic desccriptions most likely suggestt kidney amyloidosis? te stain is H-E in all the described specimens

Select one of the following:

  • highly enlarged glomeruli. the capillary tufts filled almost all tof the capsular space. capillary lumens are obliterated; pink homogenous substance is deposited also in the mesangium, in the basement membranesof the tubules and in the walls of the blood vessels

  • afferent ans efferent arterioles have homogenously thick walls stained in pink, some of the glomeruli look smaller, with totally effaced structure and homogenously pink in colour, while others may look normal in size or even with compensatory hypertrophy

  • the interstitium shows chronic inflammatory reaction, the main change is seen in the kidney tubules which look dilated and filled with pinkish substance ( these tubules look like thryoid follicles )

  • many glomeruli showw crescent proliferations, encompassing 2/3 of the bowman;s space: the process ends with global sclerosis of the glomerulus

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

which of the following stain(s) is used to prove amyloidosis

Select one or more of the following:

  • pearls

  • congo-red

  • van gieson

  • methyl violet

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

mark the correct statement(s) for kidney amyloidosis

Select one of the following:

  • smallm shrunken kidneys with granular surgace and difficult decapsulation

  • enlarged pale kidneys with waxy texture

  • Amyloidosis affects only one of the kidneys and doesn;t lead to chronic renal failure

  • kidney amyloidosis is reversible after the treatment of the primary disease and has very good prognosis

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

granulomatous structures consisting of uric acid crystals, lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts and giant multinucleated cells type "foreign body" are characteristic for which disease

Select one of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • sarcoidosis

  • gout

  • brucellosis

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

calcification of the aorta characterizes with;

Select one or more of the following:

  • hard, rigid wall of the aorta

  • soft, elastic wall of the aorta

  • can be complicated with mural thrombosis and aneurysm

  • is a result of metabolic calcification

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

renal complications of gout are

Select one of the following:

  • uric crystals nephrolithiasis

  • uric-acid infarction

  • urate nephropathy

  • all of the listed above

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

what type of necrrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis

Select one of the following:

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

  • steatonecrosis

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

which of the following terms are used to describe liquefactive necrosis of the brain

Select one or more of the following:

  • ramolicio cerebri

  • encephalomalacia

  • infarctus anemicus cerebri

  • hydrocephalus

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

which type of necrosis develops in the pancreas

Select one of the following:

  • steatonecrosis/ fat necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

what type of necrosis develps in the specific granulooma in tuberculosis

Select one of the following:

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

  • steatonecrosis

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

indicate the correct statement(s) for dyspasia

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is a proceess of disordered cellular development

  • it can develop in soft tissues

  • it can develop in tissues of epithelial origin

  • it is an adaptive process

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

corpora amylacea can be seen microscopically in

Select one of the following:

  • the glands of the uterine mucosa

  • the glands of the prostate

  • the kidney's of the convuluted tubules

  • the follicles of thyroid gland

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

how does the hypertrophic myocardium look like grossly

Select one or more of the following:

  • enlargmed in size

  • smaller in size

  • papillert muscles are hypertrophic

  • increased heart weight

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

hyperplasia of the endometrium can be

Select one of the following:

  • direct and indirect

  • typical and atypical

  • with formation of cysts or with formation of psuedo-cysts

  • diffuse and localized

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

what are the complications of prostate hyperplasia

Select one or more of the following:

  • urinary retention, frequent urinary tract infections

  • sexual dysfunction

  • transitional cell carcinoma

  • hydronephrosis

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

which is the main complication after squamous metaplasia of the respiratory bronchial epithelieum

Select one of the following:

  • swuamous carcinoma of bronchus

  • chronic bronchitis

  • small-cell carcinoma

  • adenocarcinoma of the bronchus

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

epistaxis and melena are examples of

Select one of the following:

  • edema

  • exudate

  • haemorrhage

  • venous congestion

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

what is hemascos

Select one of the following:

  • blood in the urine

  • blood in the peritoneal cavitiy

  • blood in the excrement

  • blood vomiting

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

what is hematemesis

Select one of the following:

  • blood vomitting

  • blood in the excrements

  • nose bleeding

  • bleeding from the lungs

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

what is hemoptoe

Select one of the following:

  • bleeding from the nose

  • bleeding from the lungs

  • blood vomitting

  • blood in the pleural cavity

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

which of the following liver changes is reversible

Select one of the following:

  • liver cirrhosis

  • liver cyanosis

  • nutmeg liver

  • liver amyloidosis

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

pin point hemorrhages in the brain usually have the following pathogenesis

Select one of the following:

  • per diapedesin

  • per rhexin

  • per diabrosin

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

can thrombosis develop after death

Select one of the following:

  • yes, this is why we can see blood clots in vessels after death

  • no, thrombosis is a pathological process which develops only during lifetime

  • it can develop both during life and after death

  • it develops in the agony preceeding death

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

what is characteristic for the post-mortem blood clot

Select one or more of the following:

  • dry, crumbly, layered structre

  • moist, homogenous structure

  • attatched to the vessel's wall

  • unattatched to the vessel's wall

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

indicate types of embolism depending on the content of embolus

Select one or more of the following:

  • gas, air, amniotic

  • thromboembolism, fat embolism

  • arterial, venous

  • orrthograde, retrograde, paradoxal

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

indicate types of embolism according to the way of blood flow

Select one or more of the following:

  • gas, air, thromboebmoolism, amniotic, fat, parasite

  • orthograde, retrograde

  • arterial, venous

  • paradoxical

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

indicate types of embolism according to the character of the obturated blood vessel.

Select one or more of the following:

  • thromboemvolism, amniotiic, fat, gas, air embolism

  • arterial

  • venous

  • orthograde, retrograde, paradoxical

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

is it possible to prevenet embolism

Select one or more of the following:

  • no, it is something we cannot control or prevent

  • yes, by using anticoagulants

  • yes, by excercise in bed ridden atient and early getting up from bed after operation

  • yes, by staying in bed without moving after an operation

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

in which organ hemorrhagic infarction can develop

Select one or more of the following:

  • in organs with nutritive and functinoal blood circulation

  • in organs with nutritive circulation only

  • in organs with many anastomoses

  • hemmorhagic infarction can develop in any organ

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

indicate the organ(s) where hemorrhagic infarction is possible

Select one or more of the following:

  • liver

  • heart

  • lung

  • intestine

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

how can we prove amniotic embolism

Select one of the following:

  • microscopically, by finding amniotic fluid in the heart ventricle

  • grossly, by finding amniotic fliud in the right heart ventricle

  • microscopically, by finding amniotic particles such as lanugo, meconium etc. in the lungs

  • grossly, by finding amniotic particles in the lungs

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

why does an embolism develop

Select one of the following:

  • because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially axotic oxide, caused by fast decompression

  • because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially type, caused by fast compression

  • because the negative pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry

  • because the posiive pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

what is needed for the development of hemorrhagic infarction of the lung

Select one or more of the following:

  • double circulation of the lung

  • thrombosis of a branch of a. bronchialis

  • thrombosis of branch a. pulmonis

  • chronic venous stagnation

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

what is te most common cause for the development of anemic infarction of the brain

Select one of the following:

  • thromvosis or embolism of a. cerebri anterior

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri media

  • thrombosis or embolism of a, cerebri posterior

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. basillaris

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

what is the gross appearance of a previous anemic infarction of the brain

Select one of the following:

  • fresh liquefactive necrosis

  • brain cyst

  • brain pseudocyst

  • irregular red- coloured area

Explanation

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