Melanie Grynsztejn
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Quiz on Antipsychotics , created by Melanie Grynsztejn on 05/02/2018.

333
1
0
Melanie Grynsztejn
Created by Melanie Grynsztejn almost 7 years ago
Close

Antipsychotics

Question 1 of 102

1

DSM indications for antipsychotic medication

Select one or more of the following:

  • Disorders where PSYCHOSIS is defining feature (Schizophrenia, Psychotic D/O due to medical condition, Substance induced psychotic D/O, Delusional D/O, Brief psychotic D/O

  • Disorders where psychosis is an associate feature (BAD, MDD w/ psychosis, Alzheimer's Disease - BBW)

Explanation

Question 2 of 102

1

The following are positive symptoms of psychosis

Select one or more of the following:

  • Delusions

  • Reduced emotional responsiveness

  • Hallucinations

  • Loss of normal functions and feelings

Explanation

Question 3 of 102

1

The following are negative symptoms of psychosis

Select one or more of the following:

  • Delusions

  • Loss of normal functions and feelings

  • Hallucinations

  • Not being able to experience pleasure

  • Reduced emotional responsiveness and social drive

  • Reduced speech, reduced grooming, limited eye contact

Explanation

Question 4 of 102

1

Which of the following are pharmacological treatment for psychosis

Select one or more of the following:

  • typical antipsychotics

  • atypical antipsychotics

  • antidepressants

  • adjunctive agents

Explanation

Question 5 of 102

1

All antipsychotics have equal efficacy in equipotent doses, but individual vary in responses

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 6 of 102

1

What should be assessed when deciding on which antipsychotic to prescribe

Select one or more of the following:

  • Past medical history

  • Past response

  • Adherence

  • Dose & route

  • Dislike of the current president

Explanation

Question 7 of 102

1

1st break patients respond better than chronic patients, respond to lower doses of both typical and atypical antipsychotics than chronic patients

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 102

1

Use of LAI leads to better outcomes

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 9 of 102

1

What is the prime driver in lack of treatment adherence in schizophrenia

Select one of the following:

  • Lack of insurance

  • Anosognosia - lack of insight

  • Side effects

  • SES

Explanation

Question 10 of 102

1

Which of the following are cosidered intolerable SE

Select one or more of the following:

  • Weight gain

  • Decrease in libido

  • Cardiometabolic

  • Cognitive dysfunction

  • EPS

  • Sedation/sleepiness

Explanation

Question 11 of 102

1

Cardiometabolic is a combination of metabolic dysfunctions mainly characterized by insulin resistance, impaired glucose tolerance, dyslipidemia, hypertension, and central adiposity

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 102

1

EPS is dystonia (continuous spasms and muscle contractions), akathisia (motor restlessness), parkinsonism (rigidity), bradykinesia (slowness of movement), tremor, and tardive dyskinesia (irregular, jerky movements).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 13 of 102

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Dopamine systems in ( mesolimbic, mesocortical ) pathway may contribute to the 'positive symptoms'
Dopamine function in the ( mesolimbic, mesocortical ) pathway may be responsible for the 'negative

Explanation

Question 14 of 102

1

Dopamine Hypothesis of Schizophrenia/Psychosis attributes symptoms of schizophrenia (like psychoses) to a disturbed and hyperactive dopaminergic signal transduction

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 15 of 102

1

Pro arguments for the Dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia/psychosis

Select one or more of the following:

  • Agents acting at alternative sites also produce psychos

  • DA agents produce psychosis

  • Antipsychotics are DA antagonists

  • D2 receptor affinity correlates with antipsychotic potency

Explanation

Question 16 of 102

1

Dysregulation in the following NT may cause psychosis/schizophrenia

Select one or more of the following:

  • Serotonin

  • NE

  • Glutamate

  • GABA

  • Nicotinic Acetylcholine

Explanation

Question 17 of 102

1

Which systeme modulate the dopamine system and thus are implicted in psychosis/schizophrenia

Select one or more of the following:

  • NE

  • Glutatmate

  • 5HT

  • Nicotinic Acetylcholine

Explanation

Question 18 of 102

1

Which of the following are conventional D2 antagonists =FGA = typical antipsychotics

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chlorpromazine -Thorazine

  • Fluphenazine - Prolixin

  • Haloperidol - Haldol

  • Melindone - Moban

  • Perphenazine - Trilafon

  • Pimozide - Orap

  • Thioridazine - Mellaril

  • Thiothixene - Navene

  • Trifluoperazine - Stelazine

Explanation

Question 19 of 102

1

Before prescribing an LAI, a PMHNP should first trial with the oral agent

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 102

1

Typical LAI include

Select one or more of the following:

  • Fluphenazine decanoate

  • Haloperidol deconate

Explanation

Question 21 of 102

1

All typical antipsychotics are basically the same in that they block D2 receptors in the brain

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 22 of 102

1

Typical antipsychotics block D2 receptors in the brain and can also block

Select one or more of the following:

  • Muscarinic cholinergic receptors

  • H1 receptors

  • A1 adrenergic receptors

  • Sigma

Explanation

Question 23 of 102

1

Which receptor makes antipsychotic an atypical antipsychotic

Select one of the following:

  • 5H2TA

  • 5H1TC

  • 5H2TB

  • 5H3TA

Explanation

Question 24 of 102

1

Typical agents block all 4 DA pathways which drives the following SE

Select one or more of the following:

  • Production of negative symptoms

  • Worsening of cognitive symptoms

  • Unwanted EPS

  • Prolactin levels rising

  • Increase in appetite and weight gain

Explanation

Question 25 of 102

1

5H2TA ANTAGONISM and D2 ANTAGONISM is the MOA for aytpical antipsychotics

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 102

1

According to Stahl, "the pines, the dones, 2 pips and a rip" are how to identify atypical antipsychotics

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 102

1

Which of the following are atypical antipsychotics

Select one or more of the following:

  • DONE - Iloperidone, Lurasidone, Paliperidone, Siziprasidone

  • PIP - Aripiprazole, Brexpipraxole

  • PINE - Quetiapine, Asenapine, Olanzapine, Clozapine

  • RIP - Risperadol

  • Caripraprazine

Explanation

Question 28 of 102

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

5HT2A binding of the PINES is ( more, less ) potent than D2

Explanation

Question 29 of 102

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

5HT2A binding by DONES is ( more, less ) potent than D2

Explanation

Question 30 of 102

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

5HT2A binding by Two Pips and a Rip is ( more, less ) potent than D2

Explanation

Question 31 of 102

1

So the order of antagonism for receptor sites is:
Pine - Done - D2 -Rip/Pip

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 32 of 102

1

What is the black box warning for atypical antipsychotics

Select one of the following:

  • Pregnancy

  • Lactation

  • Elderly with dementia

  • Hepatotoxicity

Explanation

Question 33 of 102

1

Atypical Antipsychotic class side effects include

Select one or more of the following:

  • BBW Elderly patients with dementia

  • NMS

  • Hepatotoxicity

  • Hyperprolactinemia

  • Metabolic changes

  • Dyslipidemia

  • Weight gain

  • Tardive dykinesia

  • Orthostatic hypotension

  • Seizures

Explanation

Question 34 of 102

1

What is the biggest concern in the use of atypical antipsychotic ClozaPINE (Clozaril)

Select one of the following:

  • Cardiometabolic

  • BP

  • Agranulocytosis

  • DRESS

Explanation

Question 35 of 102

1

All SGA are 5HT-DA Antagonists

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 102

1

ClozaPINE (Clozaril) is

Select one or more of the following:

  • Not first line

  • For treatment resistent

  • For highly aggressive

  • For elderly

Explanation

Question 37 of 102

1

How often should a patient on ClozaPINE (Clozaril) be monitored

Select one of the following:

  • Weekly blood tests for 6 months, every 2 weeks for the following six months

  • Weekly blood tests for 6 months, monthly for the following six months

  • Weekly blood tests for 6 months, every 2 weeks for the following year

Explanation

Question 38 of 102

1

What is the main concern with OlazaPINE (Zyprexa)?

Select one of the following:

  • EPS

  • Agranulocytosis

  • Cardiometabolic

  • Increase effect of BP medication

Explanation

Question 39 of 102

1

Common Side effects of OlanzaPINE (Zyprexa)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sedation

  • Weight gain

  • EPS

Explanation

Question 40 of 102

1

What interactions should a PMHNP watch with OlazaPINE (Zyprexa) which will raise the level of the drug?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Coumadin

  • Carbamazepine

  • Smoking

  • Grapefruit juice

Explanation

Question 41 of 102

1

The binding properties of QuetiaPINE (Seroquel) are due to metabolite

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 102

1

QuetiaPINE causes prolactin elevation

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 43 of 102

1

Which SE are common with QuetiaPINE (Seroquel)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sedation

  • Weight gain

  • EPS

Explanation

Question 44 of 102

1

QuetiaPINE (Seroquel) has strong antidepressant properties and is frequently used as an adjunct to address sleep issues

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 102

1

What is contraindication/concern for QuetiaPINE (Seroquel)?

Select one of the following:

  • Agranulocytosis

  • Cardiometabolic

  • Cataracts

  • Increase effects of BP medication

Explanation

Question 46 of 102

1

AsenaPINE (Saphris) has the following indications

Select one or more of the following:

  • Schizophrenia

  • BAD

  • MDD

Explanation

Question 47 of 102

1

What makes AsenaPINE (Saphris) MOA unique?

Select one of the following:

  • Cannot be crushed or split

  • Absorbed on tongue

  • Lack of H1 binding

  • Binds to a metabolite

Explanation

Question 48 of 102

1

Which are the common SE of AsenaPINE (Saphris)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sedation

  • Weight gain

  • EPS

Explanation

Question 49 of 102

1

What is the CI/concern with AsenaPINE (Saphris)

Select one of the following:

  • Agranulocytosis

  • Cardiometabolic risk

  • Increase effects of BP medication

  • DRESS

Explanation

Question 50 of 102

1

Which atypical antipsychotic can be used for autism irritability

Select one of the following:

  • PaliperiDONE (Invega)

  • RisperiDONE (Risperdol)

  • ZiprasiDONE

  • LurasiDONE

Explanation

Question 51 of 102

1

Which atypical antipsychotic can also be used as a mood stabilizer

Select one of the following:

  • Paliperdone

  • Olanzepine

  • Risperidone

  • Asenapine

Explanation

Question 52 of 102

1

Which atypical antipsychotic can increase prolactin levels even at low doses

Select one of the following:

  • Ziprasidone (Geodon)

  • Larsidone (Latuda)

  • Risperidone (Resperdol)

  • Paliperidone (Invega)

Explanation

Question 53 of 102

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Risperidone (Risperdal) can ( lower, increase ) plasma levels of carbamazepine
Risperidone (Risperdal) can ( lower, increase ) plasma levels of Paroxetine & Fluoxetine

Explanation

Question 54 of 102

1

What makes the administration of Paliperidone (Invega) unique

Select one of the following:

  • Melts on the tongue

  • Can't be chewed or divided

  • Available only by IM

Explanation

Question 55 of 102

1

What are the common side effects of PaliperiDONE?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sedation

  • Weight

  • EPS

Explanation

Question 56 of 102

1

EPS is a common side effect of Paliperidone (Invega)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 57 of 102

1

Contraindications/Concerns for Paliperidone (Invega) include risk of

Select one of the following:

  • Agranulocytosis

  • Cardiometabolic syndrome

  • Cataracts

  • Increase the effect of BP medication

Explanation

Question 58 of 102

1

Contraindications/Concerns for Paliperidone (Invega) include risk of

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cardiometabolic risk

  • Cataracts

  • Increase effect of antihypertensive medications

  • QTc interval

Explanation

Question 59 of 102

1

Paliperidone (Invega) is metabolized by the liver

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 102

1

Risperidone (Risperdal) is better tolerated than Paliperidone (Invega)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 61 of 102

1

What is the biggest concern/adverse effect to monitor with ZiprasiDONE (Geodon)

Select one of the following:

  • QTc elongation

  • Cardiometabolic syndrome

  • DRESS

  • Priapism

Explanation

Question 62 of 102

1

The following SE are common with Ziprasidone (Geodon)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sedation

  • Weight gain

  • EPS

  • Hah! Trick question

Explanation

Question 63 of 102

1

Ziprasidone should not be taken with food

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 64 of 102

1

The following AE should be monitored with Ziprasidone

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cardiometabolic syndrome

  • DRESS

  • QTc

  • Enhance antihypertensive medication

  • Cataracts

Explanation

Question 65 of 102

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Iloperidone is indicated for ( schizophrenia, bipolar depression ) while Luradidone is indicated for ( schizophrenia, bipolar depression )

Explanation

Question 66 of 102

1

Iloperidone (Fanapt) is a CYP450D6 inhibitor so will affect dosing with the following medications

Select one or more of the following:

  • Paxil

  • Fluoxetine

  • Duloxetine

  • Quinidine

  • Trazadone

Explanation

Question 67 of 102

1

Which medication lowers the risk of EPS

Select one of the following:

  • Lurasidone (Latuda)

  • Iloperidone (Fanapt)

  • Aripiprazole (Abilify)

  • Cariprazine (Vraylar)

Explanation

Question 68 of 102

1

What are concerns, SE, AD or Iloperidone (Fanapt)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Risk of QTc elongatoni

  • Enhancement of antihypertensive medications

  • DRESS

  • EPS

Explanation

Question 69 of 102

1

What reduces the metabolic risk in Larisidone and makes it less sedating?

Select one of the following:

  • CYP3A4 metabolism

  • Lack of H1 binding

  • Lower D2 inhibition

  • Lack of H2A binding

Explanation

Question 70 of 102

1

Which drug is contraindicated with Rifampin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Illoperidone (Fanapt)

  • Lurasidone (Latuda)

  • Aripipprazole

  • Ziprasidone (Geodon)

Explanation

Question 71 of 102

1

Lurasidone (Latuda) should be taken with food

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 72 of 102

1

Aripiprazole interacts with other CYP450 inducers like Carbamazepine, Fluoxetine, Duloxetine

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 73 of 102

1

Which of the following is a third generation antipsychotic whose MOA is DA partial agonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Ziprasidone (Geodon)

  • Cariprazine (Vraylar)

  • Iloperidone (Fanapt)

  • Aripiprazole (Abilify)

Explanation

Question 74 of 102

1

Parkinson’s disease psychosis is a non-motor symptom of Parkinson’s disease that causes patients to experience hallucinations and/or delusions which is treated by the drug Nuplazid (pimavenserin)

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 75 of 102

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( Aripiprazole, Clozapine ) is most sedating and weight gaining while ( aripiprazole, clozapine ) has biggest risk of EPS

Explanation

Question 76 of 102

1

Prior to prescribing Atypical think about risk factors
1.Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS)
2.Cardiovascular Effects
3.Cost
4.Metabolic Effects
5.Weight Gain
6.Sexual Side Effects
7.Prolactin Elevation
8.Cholinergic Side Effects
9.Blood Dyscrasia
10.Sedation

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 77 of 102

1

Which two SGA are NOT recommended as first line therapy

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lurasidone

  • Olanzapine

  • Quetiapine

  • Clozapine

Explanation

Question 78 of 102

1

The following are symptoms of NMS which is incraed with higher potency drugs

Select one or more of the following:

  • Fluctuation LOC/confusion

  • Lead pipe rigidity

  • Autonomic instability: hyperthermia, hypertension, tachycardia, tachypnea

  • Diaphoresis

  • Mutism

  • Leukocytosis, increased CPK, AST, ALT, LDH & myoglobinuria

Explanation

Question 79 of 102

1

The following is the treatment for NMS

Select one or more of the following:

  • Discontinue neuroleptic

  • Supportive care: hydration and temperature control

  • Bromocriptine (DA agoninst used to restore lost DA tone

  • Dantrolene (Direct acting skeletal muscle relaxant)

  • Prayer and chocolate

Explanation

Question 80 of 102

1

Which of the following are risk factors for QT Prolongation

Select one or more of the following:

  • Medications - quinidine, thioridazine, TCA

  • Cardiac disease

  • Electrolyte imbalances

  • Hyperthyroidism

  • Hypothyroidism

  • Substance abuse

Explanation

Question 81 of 102

1

Normal QT <460 msec and as a PMHNP you should ask for an interpretation

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 82 of 102

1

When do you screen for increase in prolactin levels

Select one or more of the following:

  • Patient is symptomatic

  • Risperidone

  • Women of childbearing age

  • Paliperidone

Explanation

Question 83 of 102

1

How does the PMHNP treat increase levels of prolactin

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lower the dose

  • Switch to a prolactin-sparing agent

  • Augment with Aripiprazole

  • Augment with Risperidone

Explanation

Question 84 of 102

1

When is weight gain most important with atypical antipsychotics

Select one of the following:

  • First 4 weeks

  • First 6 weeks

  • First 8 weeks

  • First 6 months

Explanation

Question 85 of 102

1

What drugs can be used to help manage weight gain due to atypical antipsychotics

Select one or more of the following:

  • Orlistat

  • Toirmate

  • Adjunct aripiprazole

  • Metformin

Explanation

Question 86 of 102

1

There is no need to titrate Clozapine when switching atypical antipsychotics

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 87 of 102

1

Sialorrhea (drooling) is the second most common SE (80% of patients) of Clozapine. What interventions can be used to help manage the condition?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Use lowest dose possible

  • Dose medication HS

  • Treat with clonidine or a M1 selective antagonist

  • Walk around with a drool handkerchief

Explanation

Question 88 of 102

1

Rick has a history of schizophrenia and has been very non-adherent in the past. He has been on several medications in the past, including aripiprazole (ineffective), haloperidol (EPS), quetiapine (sedation), risperidone (effective) and ziprasidone (ineffective). His PMHNP would like to start him on a long-acting injectable to help increase his adherence. Rick would receive the injection at his monthly doctor's appointment, immediately prior to his appointment. Given this information, which of the following medications would the best potential agent for Rick?

Select one of the following:

  • Zyprexa Relprev

  • Aristada

  • Risperdal Consta

  • Invega Sustenna

Explanation

Question 89 of 102

1

Fred, your patient with Schizophrenia, is having an involuntary muscle contraction that pulls his head drastically to the left side. It is very uncomfortable. You know that medications to treat schizophrenia can cause side effects and given his presentation and discomfort, which side effect is he experiencing?

Select one of the following:

  • Dystonic reaction

  • Tardive dyskinesia

  • Akathisia

  • Rabbit syndrome

Explanation

Question 90 of 102

1

A 34 y/o female with schizophrenia is not responding to a standard dose of an antipsychotic. Which of the following might you suspect?

Select one of the following:

  • Dopamine 1Ac receptor occupancy less than 60%

  • Dopamine 1Ac receptor occupancy less than 100%

  • Dopamine 2 receptor occupancy less than 60%

  • Dopamine 2 receptor occupancy less than 100%

Explanation

Question 91 of 102

1

Sally is a 32 year old female treated for schizoaffective disorder, bipolar type. She is treated with Invega (paliperidone) 12 mg po daily. Sally reports she has not had her menses in over 6 months and complains of galactorrhea. You know this is due to prolactin elevation through which dopamine pathway?

Select one of the following:

  • Mesolimbic

  • Mesocortical

  • Nigrostriatal

  • Tuberoinfundibular

Explanation

Question 92 of 102

1

Sammy is a 56 y/o patient who has been taking an atypical antipsychotic for six months. She has experienced a 22 lb weight gain since starting this agent. Which of the following pharmacologic properties most likely underlies this patient's weight change?

Select one of the following:

  • Serotonin 2A antagonism and serotonin 2C antagonism

  • Serotonin 2C antagonism and histamine 1 antagonism

  • Histamine 1 antagonism and dopamine 2 antagonism

  • Dopamine 2 antagonism and serotonin 2A antagonism

Explanation

Question 93 of 102

1

Charles is a 34-year-old male treated for schizophrenia and has been stable on invega trinza 819 mg IM every three months. Charles has a long history of psychiatric hospitalizations and this is the first time since his diagnosis at age 22 that he has not hospitalized in over three years. Charles is presenting as a new patient to your clinic, and part of the initial evaluation you order laboratory studies that reveal the following:
Triglycerides 388 mg / dL, LDL 180 mg / dL, Hemoglobin A1C 8, WBC 8.8 cells / mcL, and Prolactin level 67 ng/ML. As the PMH NP treating Charles what is a reasonable next step?

Select one of the following:

  • Start Charles on Rosuvastatin (Crestor) 20 mg po daily educate him about a low cholesterol diet and recheck his lipid panel in 3 months.

  • Start Charles on Metformin 500 mg po BID, re-check his A1C in 3 months and educate him on a low cholesterol diet

  • Start Charles on Aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg po daily, recheck his prolactin level in 3 months, and refer him to his primary care provider for a well man examination

  • Refer Charles to his primary care provider and provide him a copy of all laboratory values to present at his medical visit

Explanation

Question 94 of 102

1

Doris is a 44-year-old female treated for schizophrenia and has been stable on clozapine 300 mg po HS. The only side effect she has is sialorrhea, which she copes with by putting a towel on her pillow. At the day treatment center she has been part of a research study focused on tobacco cessation. Doris was smoking 2 ppd and is now down to less than 10 cigarettes a day. At her follow up visit, she presents sedated, confused, and her blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg, radial pulse 110. What is your appropriate next step?

Select one of the following:

  • Order a clozapine level and lower her dose to 250 mg po HS due to suspicion of elevated levels related to smoking cessation and smoking being a CYP1AC inducer

  • Send her to the emergency room due to an acute mental status change and evaluation for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

  • Do not make any changes, now that she has decreased smoking her clozapine level will stabilized. Make a return visit in 2 weeks to assess her status

  • Order a clozapine level and based on the result make a dose adjustment as the CYP2C9 interaction between clozapine and smoking is no longer present and her level will stabilize

Explanation

Question 95 of 102

1

Which of the following antipsychotic medication is least likely to cause orthostatic hypotension?

Select one of the following:

  • luphenazine (Prolixin)

  • clozapine (Clozaril)

  • chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

  • quetiapine (Seroquel)

Explanation

Question 96 of 102

1

A 24 year old man with schizophrenia was stable on aripiprazole. Two weeks ago he saw his PCP for night sweats, weight loss, fatigue and cough. He had a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) and chest X ray. He is starting on isonicotinylhydrazine (INH) and rifampicin today. You suspect a drug interaction, what is your next step?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase the dose of aripiprazole

  • Decrease the dose of aripiprazole

  • Stop aripiprazole and start another medication

  • Do nothing and monitor the patient

Explanation

Question 97 of 102

1

Mr. Smith is a 45 year old patient with schizophrenia recently discharged from the state psychiatric hospital. This is Mr. Smith's forth hospitalization in the last 9 months. He was discharged on Haldol 10 mg po daily and Divalproex Sodium 500 mg at HS. Due to his history of medication nonadherence, you talk about long acting injectable medication and he agrees. What is the most appropriate starting dose of haloperidol decanoate?

Select one of the following:

  • 25 mg IM every 4 weeks

  • 50 mg IM every 4 weeks

  • 100 mg IM every 4 weeks

  • 300 mg IM every 4 weeks

Explanation

Question 98 of 102

1

Which of the following is cited as the most common reason persons with schizophrenia stop taking medications?

Select one of the following:

  • Cardiometabolic Side Effects

  • Anosognosia

  • Positive Symptoms

  • Negative Symptoms

Explanation

Question 99 of 102

1

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between high and low potency antipsychotic medications?

Select one of the following:

  • Low potency antipsychotics are second generation and high potency antipsychotics are conventional

  • Low potency antipsychotics are typical antipsychotics and high potency antipsychotics are conventional

  • Low potency antipsychotics require lower doses and high potency antipsychotics are require higher doses

  • Low potency antipsychotics require higher doses and high potency antipsychotics require lower doses

Explanation

Question 100 of 102

1

Mr. Mac is taking haloperidol (Haldol) deaconate 100 mg IM every 4 weeks for the treatment of schizoaffective disorder. Knowing what you know about high and low potency antipsychotics, which side effects is he more likely to experience?

Select one of the following:

  • More anticholengic, antihistaminic and low blood pressure

  • More extrapyramidal symptoms and prolactin elevation

  • More akathisia and Parkinsonism

  • More orthostatic hypotension and increase agitation

Explanation

Question 101 of 102

1

When an atypical antipsychotic is said to have lost it's atypicality, it is referring to which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • 80% of dopamine blockade is occurring in the limbic region, treating the psychosis, and only 60% dopamine blockade in the striatum and the pituitary are blocked

  • 80% or higher dopamine blockade in the limbic region, striatum and pituitary are blocked

  • Less than 60% dopamine blockade is occurring in the limbic region, striatum, and pituitary

  • Less than 60% dopamine blockade is occurring in the limbic region and more than 80% in the striatum and pituitary

Explanation

Question 102 of 102

1

What is unique properties does clozapine have, when compared to all other atypical antipsychotic medication?

Select one of the following:

  • strong 5HT2A antagonism and low D2 receptor occupancy

  • strong 5HT2A agonist properties and high D2 occupancy

  • weak 5HT2A antagonism and low D2 receptor occupancy

  • weak 5HT2A agonist properties and high D2 occupancy

Explanation

Previous
Check answer
Next