Cara Carter
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Pediatric pharmacy questions from BGCOP Spring 2018

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Cara Carter
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Vaccines, Preventative Care and Neonatology

Vaccines, Preventative Care and Neonatology

Question 1 of 75

1

When is a glucose tolerance test conducted during pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • As soon as the pregnancy is discovered

  • At 36 weeks when the pregnancy is at term

  • 24-28 weeks

  • 35-37 weeks

Explanation

Question 2 of 75

1

When should a group B strep culture be conducted during a pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • At the end of the 1st trimester

  • 35-37 weeks

  • 24-28 weeks

  • 27-36 weeks

Explanation

Question 3 of 75

1

During what time period should a pregnant mother receive a Tdap?

Select one of the following:

  • 27-36 weeks

  • Prior to conception

  • At birth/delivery

  • 35-37 weeks

Explanation

Question 4 of 75

1

What are the ABC's of initial pediatric assessment? (Check all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Breathing

  • Activity

  • Appearance

  • Blinking

  • Conciousness

  • Circulation

Explanation

Question 5 of 75

1

Newborn screening test newborns for conditions that are not detected by physical examination.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 6 of 75

1

What diseases can be detected by newborn screening? (Check all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

  • Sickle Cell Disease

  • Cystic Fibrosis

  • Endometriosis

  • Rheumatoid Arthritis

  • Homocystinuria

  • PKU

  • Primary Congenital Hypothyroidism

Explanation

Question 7 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Breastfeeding should be started within the first ( day, hour, minute, week ) of life and continued for at ( least, most ) ( twelve, five, nine, six ) months.

Explanation

Question 8 of 75

1

Babies being placed on their back to sleep came from the 1994 "Back to Sleep" campaign to reduce what?

Select one of the following:

  • Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome

  • Infant Suffication

  • Asthma

  • Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

Explanation

Question 9 of 75

1

At what age should children play peek-a-boo, say mama or dada and stand alone or take steps?

Select one of the following:

  • 12 months

  • 18 months

  • 24 months

  • 9 months

Explanation

Question 10 of 75

1

Children should display what developmental milestones at 2 years? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Name items in a picture book

  • Complete potty-training

  • Show defiant behavior

  • Construct short sentences

Explanation

Question 11 of 75

1

An oral syringe should always be used to dose liquids for children.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 75

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

is the phone number to poison control.

Explanation

Question 13 of 75

1

Things that can fit through a toilet paper roll can kill a child under 5.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 75

1

Which of the following are reasons that pediatric pharmacokinetics are different than adult pharmacokinetics?

Select one of the following:

  • CYP450 enzymes are still developing

  • Infants lack significant stomach acid

  • All of these are reasons

  • Infants have more body water

Explanation

Question 15 of 75

1

Which of the following is not a reason for increased percutaneous drug absorption in pediatrics?

Select one of the following:

  • Children have larger surface area to mass ratio

  • Children have greater skin hydration

  • Children have greater muscle mass

  • Children have thinner skin

Explanation

Question 16 of 75

1

A higher percentage of body water in infants leads to a larger volume of distribution

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 75

1

Why do infants and neonates have higher free fraction of drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • Higher body water percentage

  • Lower protein stores

  • Lower muscle mass

  • Higher surface area to body mass ratio

Explanation

Question 18 of 75

1

What dose should be the absolute maximum dose for an obese child?

Select one of the following:

  • The extrapolated dose based on the child's weight

  • The dose at which results are seen

  • The adult maximum dose

  • The dose at which providers are comfortable with based on individual factors

Explanation

Question 19 of 75

1

What is meconium?

Select one of the following:

  • A term used for the first cry

  • A term used for the first bowel movement

  • A term used to describe the birth crawl

  • An element on the periodic table that only infants possess

Explanation

Question 20 of 75

1

Why is the APGAR scoring system used?

Select one of the following:

  • To determine if an infant is normal at birth

  • To determine if the infant will experience genetic abnormalities through out life

  • To assess for disease at birth

  • To put parents at ease

Explanation

Question 21 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

The first A in APGAR stands for ( appearance, activity, angiogenesis ) and is used to determine if a neonate's ( color, muscle tone, visible blood vessels ) is normal.

Explanation

Question 22 of 75

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The P in APGAR stands for

Explanation

Question 23 of 75

1

The GAR in APGAR stands for which of the following

Select one of the following:

  • Grimace, Activity, Respiration

  • Grin, Action, Respiration

  • Grimace, Action, Reflex

  • Grim, Activity, Reflex

Explanation

Question 24 of 75

1

Which of the following prophylaxis treatments and disorders are correctly matched

Select one or more of the following:

  • Gonococcal ophthalmia-erythromycin ointment or silver nitrate solution

  • Chlamydia- Oral amoxicillin

  • Vitamin K deficiency- IM phytonadione

  • Platelet aggregation-enoxaparin

Explanation

Question 25 of 75

1

What is respiratory distress syndrome?

Select one of the following:

  • The name given to a condition in which infants are born with only one lung

  • A developmental disorder in which lungs are immature at birth

  • Cystic Fibrosis when diagnosed in utero

  • Lack of airway operation due to asthma or COPD at birth

Explanation

Question 26 of 75

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

deficiency, poor development and incomplete development in the lungs are common causes of respiratory distress syndrome and typically seen in neonates less than weeks.

Explanation

Question 27 of 75

1

Which of the following is a common sign that an infant is struggling to breath?

Select one of the following:

  • Nasal flaring

  • Nasal salute

  • Excessive sleeping

  • Hyperactivity

Explanation

Question 28 of 75

1

Why is surfactant given to neonates experiencing respiratory distress syndrome? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • It is the most simple and quickest treatment

  • To cause an increase in alveolar surface tension

  • It has been proven to reduce mortality and morbidity

  • None of these

  • All of these

  • To replace deficient amounts

Explanation

Question 29 of 75

1

What are tocolytics?

Select one of the following:

  • Drugs used to induce labor or contractions

  • Drugs used to stop labor or contractions

  • Drugs used during a cesarean section

  • Drugs used to increase fetal lung development

Explanation

Question 30 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( Indomethacin, Calcium Channel Blockers, Magnesium sulfate ) is given at 24-32 weeks to halt labor while ( calcium channel blockers, magnesium sulfate, indomethacin ) are given at 32-34 weeks. ( magnesium sulfate, indomethacin, calcium channel blockers ) is used for neuroprotective effects.

Explanation

Question 31 of 75

1

Antenatal steroids are given to treat respiratory distress syndrome. Why?

Select one of the following:

  • They are thought to decrease overall morbidity and mortality

  • They decrease the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage

  • They decrease the incidence of patent ductus arteriosus

  • All of these are reasons to give antenatal steriods

Explanation

Question 32 of 75

1

Which of the following drugs and drug classes is correctly matched as first line therapy for bronchopulmonary dysplasia?

Select one of the following:

  • HCTZ (Diuretic)

  • Theophylline (Bronchodialator)

  • Inhaled Prednisone (Corticosteroid)

  • Furosemide (Potassium supplement)

Explanation

Question 33 of 75

1

Hypoxemia, reflex bradycardia, resuscitation and organ damage are concerns of what condition associated with prematurity?

Select one of the following:

  • Low birth weight

  • Respiratory distress syndrome

  • Apnea

  • Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia

Explanation

Question 34 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

There is a positive correlation between the incidence of neonatal apnea and ( low birth weight, fetal lung development, cystic fibrosis, asthma )

Explanation

Question 35 of 75

1

Prevention of apnea is thought to occur by competitively inhibiting adenosine. Which of the following drugs is thought to do this and thus is used to treat apnea?

Select one of the following:

  • Carbon dioxide

  • Theophylline

  • Caffeine

  • Azothioprine

Explanation

Question 36 of 75

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

In utero the blood flow from the placenta goes through the side of the heart and bypasses the lungs via the

Explanation

Question 37 of 75

1

What is the name of the condition when the ductus does not normally close on its own?

Select one of the following:

  • Open ductus

  • Patent ductus arteriosus

  • Infantile coronary artery syndrome

  • Early onset atrial fibrilation

Explanation

Question 38 of 75

1

What pharmacologic therapy is used to treat patent ductus arteriosus?

Select one of the following:

  • ACE inhibitors

  • Calcium Channel Blockers

  • Beta Blockers

  • Prostaglandin inhibitors

Explanation

Question 39 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

Ductal dependent ( congenital heart disease, congenital heart defect, arteriole bypass, arteriole stenosis ) is the only reason to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.

Explanation

Question 40 of 75

1

This drug causes vasodilation by direct effect on vascular and ductus arteriosus smooth muscle to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.

Select one of the following:

  • Ibuprofen

  • Indomethacin

  • Pseudophedrine

  • Alprostail

Explanation

Question 41 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Match each of the congenital heart defects with their descriptions

( Atrial Septal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta, Transposition of Great Arteries, Tetralogy of Fallot, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome ) -Opening between atria
( Ventricular Septal Defect, Atrial Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta, Transposition of Great Arteries, Tetralogy of Fallot, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome ) -Opening between ventricles
( Coarctation of Aorta, Transposition of Great Arteries, Tetralogy of Fallot, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome, Atrial Septal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect ) -Narrowing of the aorta
( Transposition of Great Arteries, Atrial Septal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta, Tetralogy of Fallot, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome ) -Vessel connection of aorta and pulmonary artery
( Tetralogy of Fallot, Transposition of Great Arteries, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome, Atrial Septal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta ) -Opening between ventricles, right ventricular outflow obstruction and right aorta shift
( Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot, Atrial Sepatal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta, Transposition of Great Arteries ) -Underdeveloped left ventricle, opening between atria, small aorta, vessel connecting aorta and pulmonary artery

Explanation

Question 42 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Early onset sepsis occurs in the first ( 7 days, 14 days, 30 days, 90 days ), typically manifests as ( pneumonia, ear infection, difficulty breathing, heart problems ) and is caused by bacteria from ( the mother, the environment, formula, neonatal cleaning ). Late onset sepsis occurs afters the first ( 7 days, 14 days, 30 days, 90 days ), typically manifests as ( meningitis and sepsis, cold, pneumonia, cystic fibrosis ) and is caused by bacteria from ( the environment, formula feedings, the mother, nosicomial setting ).

Explanation

Question 43 of 75

1

Listeria monocytogenes, E. Coli, Group B strep and H. influemzae are the common bacteria causing what?

Select one of the following:

  • The common cold

  • Hospital Acquired Pneumonia in infants

  • Early Onset Sepsis

  • Late Onset Sepsis

Explanation

Question 44 of 75

1

Which of the the following are typically used to treat early onset sepsis? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate

  • Ampicillin

  • Levofloxacin

  • Zosyn

  • Aminoglycosides

  • Cefotaxime

  • Ceftriaxone

  • Ceftaroline

Explanation

Question 45 of 75

1

Late onset sepsis is usually treated with what?

Select one of the following:

  • Rest and BRAT diet

  • Broad spectrum antibiotics

  • Anti-viral or anti-retroviral therapy

  • Amoxicillin

Explanation

Question 46 of 75

1

TORCH is an acronym for a group of diseases that cause what due to in utero exposure?

Select one of the following:

  • congenital conditions

  • chronic conditions

  • neurodegenerative conditions

  • genetic conditions

Explanation

Question 47 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

The acronym TORCH stands for ( taxoplasmosis, trichomoniasis ), ( other, oligobacteria ), ( rubella, rabies ), ( cytomegalovirus, Chlamydia ), ( herpes infection, H. influenzae ).

Explanation

Question 48 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Toxoplasmosis is caused by ( Toxoplasma gondii, Treponema pallidum, Toxoplasma denticola ) which is a ( bacteria, protozoan parasite, virus ) found in the feces of ( cats, dogs, fish, hamsters/rodents ) and contaminated ( meat or vegetables, fruit or vegetables, beans or poultry ).

Explanation

Question 49 of 75

1

Select all correctly matched congenitally acquired infectious diseases and their treatments

Select one or more of the following:

  • Vibrio cholerae- Amoxicillin

  • Trepodema pallidum -Penicillin G for 10 days

  • E. coli -Vancomycin

  • Streptococcus faecalis - Ceftriaxone

  • Klebsiella pneumoniae -Metronidazole

  • Cytomegalovirus -Ganciclovir

Explanation

Question 50 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Match the congenitally acquired infectious diseases with their treatment.

Chlamydia trachomatis -( systemic erythromycin or azithromycin, oral vancomycin, IM cefazolin )
( Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, HIV ) - Vaccine and HBIG within 12 hours of birth
Herpes Simplex - ( High dose acyclovir, Low dose valacyclovir, Gancyclovir, Valgancyclovir )

Explanation

Question 51 of 75

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Finnergan Score is used to assess .

Explanation

Question 52 of 75

1

Which of the following are first line treatments for neonatal abstinence syndrome? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • diazepam

  • morphine

  • hydromorphone

  • oxycodone

  • phenobarbital

  • methadone

  • clonidine

  • pseudoephedrine

Explanation

Question 53 of 75

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

vaccine is recommended more for the protection of children and infants and should be given every 10 years.

Explanation

Question 54 of 75

1

What recombinant vaccine is recommended for immunocompromised individuals aged 50 and older?

Select one of the following:

  • Tdap

  • Shingrix

  • HiB

  • Prevnar 13

Explanation

Question 55 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( High dose, IM, Intranasal ) or ( low dose, adjuvanted IIV, recombinant ) are formulation of influenza vaccines recommended for people aged 65 and older.

Explanation

Question 56 of 75

1

Prevnar (PCV 13) and Pneumovax (PPSV23) are pneumococcal vaccinces recommended for whom?

Select one of the following:

  • Adults 65 and older

  • Adults 55 and older with a comorbidity

  • Immunocompetent individuals

  • A and C

  • All of the above

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 57 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

The maximum number of doses of Pneumovax (PPSV23) that any person should receive is ( three, two, four, five ) with each dose being a minimum of ( five, three, two, four ) ( years, months, days, weeks ) apart.

Explanation

Question 58 of 75

1

When is the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine given?

Select one of the following:

  • At the first well baby check up

  • At birth

  • At 3 months

  • At hospital discharge

Explanation

Question 59 of 75

1

The minimum age for HPV vaccination is what?

Select one of the following:

  • thirteen in boys and nine in girls

  • nine

  • thirteen

  • nine in boys and thirteen in girls

  • puberty in box sexes

Explanation

Question 60 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

The ( second, first, third ) dose of the meningococcal vaccine is given at ( thirteen, sixteen, eighteen ).

Explanation

Question 61 of 75

1

IIV formulation of the influenza vaccine can be given at what age minimum?

Select one of the following:

  • No age minimum

  • 5 years

  • 12 months

  • 6 months

Explanation

Question 62 of 75

1

What vaccines are recommended for all pregnant women? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tdap

  • Influenza

  • DTap

  • HiB

  • Herpes Zoster

Explanation

Question 63 of 75

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Adults younger than 60 years old with are a high risk indication for the vaccine

Explanation

Question 64 of 75

1

Patients who smoke cigarettes should receive what vaccine if they are older than 18 and younger than 65?

Select one of the following:

  • Influenza

  • Hepatitis B

  • Pneumovax (PPSV23)

  • Tdap

Explanation

Question 65 of 75

1

Which of the following should be given to an AIDs patient (CD4 less than 200)?

Select one of the following:

  • Shingles

  • Varicella

  • MMR

  • All of these

  • None of these

Explanation

Question 66 of 75

1

An aspleenic person should be given which of the following vaccines to protect against encapsulated organisms? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • HiB

  • Pneumococcal

  • Meningococcal

  • Influenza

  • Varicella

  • MMR

Explanation

Question 67 of 75

1

Proper hydration and arm movement do what post-immunization?

Select one of the following:

  • Nothing

  • Reduce soreness

  • Provide synergistic effects for the vaccine

  • Prevent post-vaccine illness

Explanation

Question 68 of 75

1

What year was mercury removed from vaccines except multidose flu vials?

Select one of the following:

  • 1995

  • 2000

  • 2005

  • 2010

Explanation

Question 69 of 75

1

Acetaminophen and Ibuprofen have been shown to reduce what?

Select one of the following:

  • Inflammation after vaccination

  • Immune response after vaccination

  • Vaccine associated fever

  • All of these

Explanation

Question 70 of 75

1

Undervaccinated or unvaccincated people exposed to diseases in other countries are typically patient 0 during outbreaks.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 71 of 75

1

What vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy

Select one of the following:

  • All vaccines

  • Live vaccines

  • Conjugate vaccines

  • Toxoid vaccines

Explanation

Question 72 of 75

1

What is the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices?

Select one of the following:

  • The group who approves vaccine schedules

  • A division of the CDC

  • A division of the FDA

  • A division of the Department of Health and Human Services

Explanation

Question 73 of 75

1

The first dose followed by a second dose in 1 to 2 months and a third dose in 6 months is the dosing schedule for what vaccine?

Select one of the following:

  • HPV

  • HiB

  • Influenza

  • Varicella

Explanation

Question 74 of 75

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

A patient should first be given ( PCV13, PPSV23, Menactra, Influenza vaccine ) followed by ( PPSV23, PCV13, HiB, Yellow fever vaccine ) ( six months, one year, two years, five years ) later.

Explanation

Question 75 of 75

1

Andrew Wakefield is the British physician who fabricated data in a publication that lead to the belief that vaccines cause autism. What was the name of the publication?

Select one of the following:

  • The Needle Stick

  • Autism Errupts

  • Autism Conspiracy

  • The Lancet

Explanation

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