Wk 7 - Applied Microbiology and Haemotology

Question 1 of 77

1

Select two reasons for preventing microbes from getting into food.

Select one or more of the following:

Prevent slow decomposition process
Prevent bad odors
Prevent food spoilage
Prevent food related illnesses

Explanation

Question 2 of 77

1

Select Five ways how could microbes contaminate food

Select one or more of the following:

• with soil
• preparation procedures
• improper storage
• harvesting/slaughtering
• handling
• incorrect food stacking in fridge
• delayed pesticides

Explanation

Question 3 of 77

1

How does fermentation preserve food?

Select one of the following:

Increases shelf life and safety of product and Improves digestibility, nutritional content
Increases putrification and safety of product and speeds up disease process, nutritional content

Explanation

Question 4 of 77

1

List Five relevant boxes to pathogenic bacteria, viruses and parasites that can cause illness through food or water

Select one or more of the following:

Salmonella spp. infection
Vibrio cholera
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Rotavirus
Hepatitis A
Polio Vaccine
Adenovirus
Helminths
Crytosporidium parvum
Entamaeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
Bacillus cereus intoxication
Clostridium botulinum
Staphylococcus aureus
Campylobacter infection
Norovirus
Astrovirus
Entrovirus (Echovirus)
Rhinovirus
Sinusitus
Pleurusy
TSS

Explanation

Question 5 of 77

1

Norovirus, Astrovirus and Entrovirus (Echovirus) are types of parasitic foodborne diseases

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 6 of 77

1

Bacillus cereus, Clostridium botulinum, Staphylococcus aureus, Campylobacter infection, Salmonella spp. Vibrio cholera & Vibrio parahaemolyticus are types of Bacterial foodborne diseases

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 7 of 77

1

Why does spoilage of food appear rapid when the microbes are on the food for long periods before the appearance of spoilage?

Select one or more of the following:

• Due to exponential growth pattern microbes
• Due to stationary pattern of microbes

Explanation

Question 8 of 77

1

List Two uses for microbes in the industry.

Select one or more of the following:

Genetic engineering – deliberate modification of an organisms genome
Recombinant DNA technology – isolating a specific gene and inserting into a vector (plasmid) to form a recombinant molecule and producing large amounts of gene product
High transfection efficiency

Explanation

Question 9 of 77

1

List Five reasons for treating waste water.

Select one or more of the following:

• Remove pathogens: bacteria, viruses, eggs and cysts of parasitic worms
• Remove nutrients that cause pollution
• Prevent foul odours: H2S, amines, oil and grease scum
• Prevent contamination of drinking water
• Remove toxins: metals, pesticides, herbicides
• Remove bad taste

Explanation

Question 10 of 77

1

What is B.O.D?

Select one of the following:

Biochemical Oxygen Demand
Biological Oxydation Determination

Explanation

Question 11 of 77

1

Why is Biochemical Oxygen Demand important?

Select one of the following:

Determines the levels of biological degradable organic material present in water
Determine the levels of biological mercury not organic material present in water

Explanation

Question 12 of 77

1

What is the main process in secondary sewage treatment?

Select one of the following:

Microbial digestion of organic material and hydrolysis
Microbial digestion of organic material and Haemolysis

Explanation

Question 13 of 77

1

Give 3 uses for Bacteriophage

Select one or more of the following:

• Possible treatment for bacterial infection
• Identify pathogenic bacteria (Phage typing)
• Recombinant DNA technology
• Complete eradication of Viruses

Explanation

Question 14 of 77

1

What are the advantages of using HIV as a vector for gene therapy?

Select one of the following:

• Retrovirus
• Reverse transcriptase generates DS-DNA
• Integrated into host chromosome
• Gene replacement therapy
• Deliver and express gene
• Rhinovirus
• Quickly transcriptase generates DS-DNA
• Non-conforming into host chromosome
• Prevention of Gene replacement therapy
• Deliver and express gene

Explanation

Question 15 of 77

1

Name 5 different areas of study within the field of Haematology

Select one or more of the following:

Haemopoiesis
Coagulation
Haemoglobin
Formed elements of blood
Blood transfusion / cross matching
Dialylsis

Explanation

Question 16 of 77

1

What is Anaemia?

Select one of the following:

An abnormal decrease of RBC
An abnormal increase of RBC

Explanation

Question 17 of 77

1

Explain what is meant by the term Leukaemia.

Select one of the following:

An abnormal increase of WBC
An abnormal decrease of WBC

Explanation

Question 18 of 77

1

What is Haemopoiesis?

Select one of the following:

The production of the formed elements of blood - WBC’s, RBC’s and platelets
The breakdown of the formed elements of blood - WBC’s, RBC’s and platelets

Explanation

Question 19 of 77

1

What is Erythropoiesis?

Select one of the following:

The process which produces red blood cells (erythrocytes).
The process which produces white blood cells (leukocytes).

Explanation

Question 20 of 77

1

What is the correct term for a decrease in neutrophils?

Select one of the following:

Neutropaenia
Neutrophilia

Explanation

Question 21 of 77

1

Where does Haemopoiesis occur? Select Two answers

Select one or more of the following:

Foetus - yolk sac, liver, spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes
Adult - bone marrow
Foetus - liver, kidneys, placenta, bone marrow, lymph nodes
Adult - bone marrow, liver

Explanation

Question 22 of 77

1

Describe the shape of a RBC. Why do RBCs have this shape? Select Two answers

Select one or more of the following:

Shape allows for slow and constant diffusion of gasses, flexibility, change in shape/size
Biconcave disc - sturdy
Biconcave disc - flexible
Shape allows for rapid diffusion of gasses, flexibility, change in shape/size

Explanation

Question 23 of 77

1

Discuss the significance of the RBC membrane.

Select one or more of the following:

rapid diffusion of gasses
slow yet constant diffusion of gasses

Explanation

Question 24 of 77

1

List 3 Granulocytes that can be found in peripheral blood.

Select one or more of the following:

Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Monocytes
Lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 25 of 77

1

List each of the 5 WBC types found in peripheral blood

Select one or more of the following:

Neutrophils
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
Leukocytes
Platelets

Explanation

Question 26 of 77

1

Neutrophils are the most common type of WBC and have

Select one of the following:

small granules in cytoplasm
large granules in cytoplasm

Explanation

Question 27 of 77

1

Eosinophils have

Select one of the following:

large strongly staining (orange/red) cytoplasm granules
small strongly staining (blue/purple) cytoplasm granules

Explanation

Question 28 of 77

1

Basophils have

Select one of the following:

large cytoplasmic granules (dark staining)
small cytoplasmic granules (orange staining)

Explanation

Question 29 of 77

1

Lymphocytes have a

Select one of the following:

large round nucleus/less cytoplasm
no nucleus/lots of cytoplasm

Explanation

Question 30 of 77

1

Monocytes are the largest WBC and have a

Select one of the following:

kidney shaped nucleus
liver shaped nucleus

Explanation

Question 31 of 77

1

Select type of WBC

Select one of the following:

Neutrophils
Eosinophils

Explanation

Question 32 of 77

1

Select type of WBC

Select one of the following:

Eosinophils
Basophils

Explanation

Question 33 of 77

1

Select type of WBC

Select one of the following:

Basophils
Neutrophils

Explanation

Question 34 of 77

1

Select type of WBC

Select one of the following:

Lymphocytes
Basophils

Explanation

Question 35 of 77

1

Select type of WBC

Select one of the following:

Monocytes
Eosinophils

Explanation

Question 36 of 77

1

What is the term used to describe variation in RBS size?

Select one of the following:

Anisocytosis
Poikilocytosis

Explanation

Question 37 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Elliptocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

– Oval shaped rather than thin or round
– Less pronounced defects
– Found in some types of anaemia
– Thin elongated cigar shaped cells
– Change to membrane structure
– Found in various types of anaemia

Explanation

Question 38 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Ovalocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

– Oval shaped rather than thin or round
– Less pronounced defects
– Found in some types of anaemia
– Thin elongated cigar shaped cells
– Change to membrane structure
– Found in various types of anaemia

Explanation

Question 39 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Codocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

– Loss of biconcave shape
– Increased surface area:volume ratio
– Loss of biconcave shape - sphere
– Decreased surface area:volume ratio
– Found in many anaemias

Explanation

Question 40 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Spherocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

– Loss of biconcave shape - sphere
– Decreased surface area:volume ratio
– Found in many anaemias
– Loss of biconcave shape
– Increased surface area:volume ratio

Explanation

Question 41 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Schistocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

– Irregularly contracted fragments
– Variable appearance
– Found in conditions with trauma to RBC’s e.g. burns
– Elongated, crescent shaped
– Sickle cell anaemia
– Abnormal haemoglobin (HbS)

Explanation

Question 42 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Drepanocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

– Elongated, crescent shaped
– Sickle cell anaemia
– Abnormal haemoglobin (HbS)
– Irregularly contracted fragments
– Variable appearance
– Found in conditions with trauma to RBC’s e.g. burns

Explanation

Question 43 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Acanthocytes (burr cells) (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

– Multiple irregular thorny projections
– Changes in phospholipid metabolism
– Found in liver disease
– Teardrop shape
– Stretched out of shape - excessive time (spleen)
– Found in many conditions

Explanation

Question 44 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Dacrocytes (teardrop cells) (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

– Teardrop shape
– Stretched out of shape - excessive time (spleen)
– Found in many conditions
– Multiple irregular thorny projections
– Changes in phospholipid metabolism
– Found in liver disease

Explanation

Question 45 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Stomatocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

- Oval or rectangular area of central pallor
– “Cup” - shaped
– Found in liver disease
– Short, evenly spaced pointed projections
– Acute blood loss, burns, uraemia - kidney failure

Explanation

Question 46 of 77

1

Select the correct definition of Echinocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)

Select one of the following:

– Short, evenly spaced pointed projections
– Acute blood loss, burns, uraemia - kidney failure
– Oval or rectangular area of central pallor
– “Cup” - shaped
– Found in liver disease

Explanation

Question 47 of 77

1

What is Polychromasia and what may it indicate?

Select one of the following:

Abnormal coloured RBC's (blue, orange) which may indicate increased number of immature RBC’s
Abnormal pale RBC's which may indicate decreased number of immature RBC’s

Explanation

Question 48 of 77

1

What physiological processes do platelets have a role in?

Select one of the following:

Primary role is the prevention of blood loss
Primary role is the encouragement of blood loss

Explanation

Question 49 of 77

1

What does the term “Thrombocytopaenia” mean?

Select one of the following:

Decreased platelet count
Increased platelet count

Explanation

Question 50 of 77

1

What is the term for an increased number of Lymphocytes in the peripheral blood?

Select one of the following:

Lymphocytosis
Lymphopaenia

Explanation

Question 51 of 77

1

Either of 2 principles can be used in Automated Cell Counting machines. What are these 2 principles?

Select one of the following:

Manual or automated
Direct or indirect

Explanation

Question 52 of 77

1

What blood cells can be manually counted using a Haemocytometer? (Can the chamber also be used to count anything else besides blood cells?)

Select one of the following:

All blood cells. The chamber can also be used to count bacterial cells in suspension and WBC’s in CSF
All blood cells aside from platelets. The chamber can also be used to count bacterial cells in suspension and WBC’s in CSF

Explanation

Question 53 of 77

1

Different areas of a counting chamber are used for counting different types of blood cells. What areas are used for a manual WCC?

Select one of the following:

The Diff
Relative count

Explanation

Question 54 of 77

1

Explain why WBC types should always be reported as Absolute Number and not Relative numbers following a Diff.

Select one of the following:

Absolute Number count indicates the exact number of cells per RBC/WBC which may differ from other relative levels of different cells.
Due to possible computer malfunctions, it is possible to have an incorrect relative number statement of sample.

Explanation

Question 55 of 77

1

How do autoimmune diseases occur?

Select one of the following:

An autoimmune disorder occurs when the body's immune system attacks and destroys healthy body tissue by mistake.
An autoimmune disorder occurs when the body's digestive system attacks and destroys healthy body tissue by mistake.

Explanation

Question 56 of 77

1

Describe the difference between passive and active vaccination.

Select one of the following:

Passive immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system.
Active immunity results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease.
Passive immunity results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease.
Active immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system.

Explanation

Question 57 of 77

1

What does MHC stand for?

Select one of the following:

Major histocompatibility complex
Major histopathology complex

Explanation

Question 58 of 77

1

What is the purpose of MHC?

Select one of the following:

The function of MHC molecules is to bind peptide fragments derived from pathogens and display them on the cell surface for recognition by the appropriate T cells.
The function of MHC molecules is to bind T cell fragments derived from pathogens and display them on the cell surface for recognition by the appropriate T cells.

Explanation

Question 59 of 77

1

Adaptive immunity refers to antigen-specific immune response and Innate immunity refers to nonspecific defense mechanisms

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 60 of 77

1

Innate immunity refers to antigen-specific immune response and Adaptive immunity refers to nonspecific defense mechanisms

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 61 of 77

1

....refers to antigen-specific immune response. The adaptive immune response is more complex than the innate. The antigen first must be processed and recognized. Once an antigen has been recognized, the adaptive immune system creates an army of immune cells specifically designed to attack that antigen. Adaptive immunity also includes a "memory" that makes future responses against a specific antigen more efficient.

Select one of the following:

Adaptive immunity
Innate immunity

Explanation

Question 62 of 77

1

B Cells ....

Select one of the following:

.....proliferate into Memory B cells and plasma cells
..... do not proliferate into Memory B cells and plasma cells

Explanation

Question 63 of 77

1

Memory B cells are derived from B cells. They are immune specific towards a certain bacterium or virus.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 64 of 77

1

Plasma cells are derived from B cells. They enlarge and secrete large amounts of antibodies.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 65 of 77

1

The Humoral response:

❌ B cells produce memory cells. Memory cells provide future immunity.

❌ Antigens bind to B cells.

❌ B cells proliferate and produce plasma cells. The plasma cells bear antibodies with the identical antigen specificity as the antigen receptors of the activated B cells. The antibodies are released and circulate through the body, binding to antigens.

❌ Interleukins or helper T cells costimulate B cells. In most cases, both an antigen and a costimulator are required to activate a B cell and initiate B cell proliferation.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

4.

1.

3.

2.

Explanation

Question 66 of 77

1

A T cell, or T lymphocyte, is a type of lymphocyte (a subtype of white blood cell) that plays a central role in cell-mediated immunity.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 67 of 77

1

When a Macrophage engulfs a Pathogen, it becomes a

Select one of the following:

Antigen Presenting Cell
Antibiotic Presenting Cell

Explanation

Question 68 of 77

1

Helper T cells recognize Antigen Presenting Cells and helps to stimulate B cells to divide into Plasma cells

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 69 of 77

1

Helper B cells recognize Antigen Presenting Cells and helps to stimulate B cells to divide into Plasma cells

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 70 of 77

1

Memory helper T cells are a part of the Memory bank which help to attack and destroy the same pathogen if it was to return again.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 71 of 77

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( T, B ) Cells are produced in the ( Thymus, Bone marrow ), once they have matured they are sent to the ( Spleen, Sternum ) or to circulate around the ( Lymph, Cardiovascular ) system.

Explanation

Question 72 of 77

1

A Cytotoxic T cell (killer T cell) is a type of immune cell that can kill certain cells, including foreign cells, cancer cells, and cells infected with a virus.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 73 of 77

1

A cell‐mediated response involves mostly T cells and responds to any cell that displays aberrant MHC markers, including cells invaded by pathogens, tumor cells, or transplanted cells.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 74 of 77

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

The cell‐mediated response involves mostly ( T, B ) cells

Explanation

Question 75 of 77

1

	Created by Jessica Bulley over 6 years ago

Wk 7 - Applied Microbiology and Haemotology MEDI1000

Wk 7 - Applied Microbiology and Haemotology

Question 1 of 77

Select two reasons for preventing microbes from getting into food.

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 77

Select Five ways how could microbes contaminate food

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 77

How does fermentation preserve food?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 77

List Five relevant boxes to pathogenic bacteria, viruses and parasites that can cause illness through food or water

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 77

Norovirus, Astrovirus and Entrovirus (Echovirus) are types of parasitic foodborne diseases

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 77

Bacillus cereus, Clostridium botulinum, Staphylococcus aureus, Campylobacter infection, Salmonella spp. Vibrio cholera & Vibrio parahaemolyticus are types of Bacterial foodborne diseases

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 77

Why does spoilage of food appear rapid when the microbes are on the food for long periods before the appearance of spoilage?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 77

List Two uses for microbes in the industry.

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 77

List Five reasons for treating waste water.

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 77

What is B.O.D?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 77

Why is Biochemical Oxygen Demand important?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 77

What is the main process in secondary sewage treatment?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 77

Give 3 uses for Bacteriophage

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 77

What are the advantages of using HIV as a vector for gene therapy?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 77

Name 5 different areas of study within the field of Haematology

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 77

What is Anaemia?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 77

Explain what is meant by the term Leukaemia.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 77

What is Haemopoiesis?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 77

What is Erythropoiesis?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 77

What is the correct term for a decrease in neutrophils?