mmm mmm
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Aviation Interview Quiz on ATP EASA Qatar , created by mmm mmm on 14/05/2018.

516
1
0
mmm mmm
Created by mmm mmm over 6 years ago
Close

ATP EASA Qatar

ATP EASA Qatar

Question 1 of 200

1

10.1.1.4 (7)
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be
considered:

Select one of the following:

  • binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national
    difference

  • advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states

  • binding for all member states

  • binding for all airline companies with international traffic

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

10.1.2.0 (11)
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law

Select one of the following:

  • may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

  • may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person

  • may request such person to disembark

  • may deliver such person to the competent authorities

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

10.5.1.0 (78)
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,
experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?

Select one of the following:

  • Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

  • Switching on and off four times the landing lights

  • The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

  • Switching on and off three times the landing lights

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

10.5.1.0 (81)
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

Select one of the following:

  • The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

  • The airport is unsafe, do not land

  • Continue circling and wait for further instructions

  • Give way to other aircraft in emergency

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

10.5.1.0 (83)
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:

Select one of the following:

  • Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.

  • Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

  • An area unit for the movement of aircraft.

  • The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being
    performed.

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight
time is:

Select one of the following:

  • The airliner operator

  • The aircraft owner

  • The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace

  • The commander

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

10.5.1.0 (86)
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • Emergency aircraft

  • Military aircraft

  • VIP (Head of state) aircraft

  • Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

10.5.1.0 (91)
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall,
unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the
following code on mode ""A""

Select one of the following:

  • 7 700

  • 7 500

  • 7 600

  • 7 000

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (92)
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish
radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

Select one of the following:

  • 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz

  • 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

  • 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz

  • 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

10.5.1.0 (93)
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?

Select one of the following:

  • Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.

  • Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.

  • Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.

  • Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of
    flight of the intercepted aircraft.

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (94)
Unless otherwise prescribed , what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

  • 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

  • 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated
    position of the aircraft

  • 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (96)
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?

Select one of the following:

  • If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions

  • Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

  • Inform the ATC unit immediately

  • Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

10.5.1.0 (96)
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?
a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
b) Inform the ATC unit immediately
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

  • Inform the ATC unit immediately

  • If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions

  • Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (98)
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

Select one of the following:

  • Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

  • Crossing arms extended above his head

  • Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then
    clench fist

  • Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (99)
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is
unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses
radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:

Select one of the following:

  • land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of
    landing

  • adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination

  • continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed
    flight plan.

  • descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (100)
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

Select one of the following:

  • Come back and land.

  • Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

  • Dangerous airfield. Do not land

  • Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (102)
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has
to be informed in case :

Select one of the following:

  • it is a deviation from the track.

  • of an emergency.

  • the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.

  • the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan.

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (103)
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an
aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
be for an IFR flight :

Select one of the following:

  • at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

  • at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

  • at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

  • at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

10.5.1.0 (105)
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :

Select one of the following:

  • this aerodrome is using parallel runways

  • landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,

  • taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,

  • glider flying is performed outside the landing area,

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft
from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than :

Select one of the following:

  • 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

  • 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

  • 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

  • 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (109)
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio
communication failure. You will :

Select one of the following:

  • Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ,

  • Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination ,

  • Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ,

  • Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (111)
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green
flashes from the tower. The aircraft :

Select one of the following:

  • must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.

  • is cleared to land.

  • must land immediately and clear the landing area.

  • must give way to another aircraft.

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (114)
While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control
tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :

Select one of the following:

  • must vacate the landing area in use.

  • must stop.

  • must return to its point of departure.

  • may continue to taxi to the take-off area.

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (115)
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light
signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :

Select one of the following:

  • may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.

  • must stop.

  • must return to its point of departure.

  • is cleared for take-off.

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (116)
An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from
the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :

Select one of the following:

  • not land because the airport is not available for landing.

  • give way to another aircraft.

  • return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.

  • not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

10.6.2.0 (117)
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

Select one of the following:

  • Obstacle identification surface.

  • Obstacle identification slope.

  • Obstruction in surface.

  • Obstacle in surface.

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

RED ! 10.6.2.0 (118)
What does the abbreviation DER mean?

Select one of the following:

  • Depature end of runway.

  • Distance end of runway.

  • Distance end of route.

  • Departure end of route.

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

RED ! 10.6.2.0 (119)
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid
within a sector of :

Select one of the following:

  • 30 NM

  • 25 NM

  • 10 NM

  • 15 NM

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

10.6.3.0 (121)
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

Select one of the following:

  • To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.

  • To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.

  • To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.

  • To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

10.6.3.0 (122)
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • Airspace restrictions.

  • Navigation aids.

  • ATC requirements.

  • The terrain surrounding the airport.

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

RED ! 10.6.3.0 (123)
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the
departure end of runway equals:

Select one of the following:

  • 0 ft.

  • 3.3 % gradient.

  • 35 ft.

  • 0.8 % gradient.

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

RED 10.6.3.0 (124)
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway
centre line within:

Select one of the following:

  • 15°.

  • 30°.

  • 12.5°.

  • 45°.

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

RED 10.6.3.0 (126)
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within :

Select one of the following:

  • 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

  • 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

  • 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

  • 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (127)
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:

Select one of the following:

  • Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.

  • Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

  • Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.

  • Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (128)
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • 600m (1968 ft).

  • 450m (1476 ft).

  • 300m (984 ft).

  • 150m (492 ft).

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (129)
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and
descent for landing are made is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Initial approach segment.

  • Intermediate approach segment.

  • Arrival segment.

  • Final approach segment.

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (130)
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:

Select one of the following:

  • FAP.

  • FAF.

  • MAP.

  • IF.

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (132)
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?

Select one of the following:

  • When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight

  • When the aircraft has the control tower in sight

  • When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet

  • When seems possible to land

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (137)
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA
should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual
reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle
clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination
regrouping all the correct answers is :

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 2, 3.

  • 1, 3.

  • 2, 3.

  • 1, 2.

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (135)
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

Select one of the following:

  • Mean sea level.

  • Aeredrome reference point.

  • Relevant runway threshold.

  • Aerodrome elevation.

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (140)
How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.

Select one of the following:

  • Up to 5.

  • Up to 4.

  • 3.

  • 4.

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (141)
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?

Select one of the following:

  • At the IF.

  • At the IAF.

  • At the FAF.

  • At the final en-route fix.

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (145)
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

Select one of the following:

  • Shuttle.

  • Procedure turn.

  • Racetrack pattern.

  • Based turn.

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (146)
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

Select one of the following:

  • 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

  • 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).

  • 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).

  • 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (147)
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:

Select one of the following:

  • One and a half of scale deflection.

  • A quarter of scale deflection.

  • Half a scale deflection.

  • One scale deflection.

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (148)
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:

Select one of the following:

  • 6m.

  • 12m.

  • 9m.

  • 3m.

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (149)
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • Initial, intermediate and final.

  • Arrival, intermediate and final.

  • Initial and final.

  • Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (150)
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

Select one of the following:

  • 0.8%.

  • 5%.

  • 3.3%.

  • 2.5%.

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (151)
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

Select one of the following:

  • At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.

  • At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.

  • At the missed approach point.

  • At the point where the climb is established.

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (152)
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

Select one of the following:

  • Visual manoeuvring (circling).

  • Aerodrome traffic pattern.

  • Contact approach.

  • Visual approach.

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (154)
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle
clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

Select one of the following:

  • Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.

  • For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them

  • Only for categories A and B aircraft.

  • For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (155)
A circling approach is:

Select one of the following:

  • A contact flight manoeuvre.

  • A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.

  • A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.

  • A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (156)
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is
expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

Select one of the following:

  • FAF.

  • Landing runway.

  • Final missed approach track.

  • MAP.

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (157)
If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre,
what actions should be taken ?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiate a missed approach

  • Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact

  • Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude

  • If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (158)
What action should be taken if contact is losT with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiate a missed approach

  • Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude

  • Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome

  • Request an amended clearance

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (159)
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot
does not deviate from the centre line more than :

Select one of the following:

  • half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

  • half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline.

  • full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath
    indicator.

  • full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (160)
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • the operator

  • the state

  • the pilot-in-command ,

  • the ""flight-operations"" of the company

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (161)
On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered
acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is :

Select one of the following:

  • 20 degrees or less

  • 10 degrees or less

  • 30 degrees or less

  • 40 degrees or less

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (162)
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :

Select one of the following:

  • 5%.

  • 8%.

  • 6,5%.

  • 7%.

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (165)
During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :

Select one of the following:

  • 300 m (984 ft)

  • 120 m (394 ft)

  • 210 m (690 ft)

  • 150 m (492 ft)

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (166)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

Select one of the following:

  • 30 m (98 ft)

  • 50 m (164 ft)

  • 90 m (295 ft)

  • 120 m (384 ft)

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (167)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

Select one of the following:

  • 30 m (98 ft)

  • 50 m (164 ft)

  • 90 m (295 ft)

  • 120 m (384 ft)

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (168)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :

Select one of the following:

  • 50 m (164 ft)

  • 120 m (384 ft)

  • 30 m (98 ft)

  • 90 m (295 ft)

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (169)
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the
IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

Select one of the following:

  • 5 NM

  • 25 NM

  • 10 NM

  • 20 NM

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (170)
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :

Select one of the following:

  • ± 12.5 NM

  • ± 2.5 NM

  • ± 5 NM

  • ± 10 NM

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

10.6.4.0 (172)
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :

Select one of the following:

  • 100 ft

  • 200 ft

  • 250 ft

  • 150 ft

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (174)
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:

Select one of the following:

  • 3.3%

  • 2.5%

  • 2%

  • 5%

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

10.6.5.0 (175)
What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?

Select one of the following:

  • Follow the radio communication failure procedure.

  • it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.

  • a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.

  • inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

10.6.5.0 (176)
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :

Select one of the following:

  • rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.

  • maximum bank angle of 25°.

  • rate of 3°per second.

  • rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser BANK

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (177)
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum
speed ?

Select one of the following:

  • 230 kt IAS.

  • 230 kt TAS.

  • 240 kt IAS.

  • 240 kt TAS.

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

10.6.5.0 (178)
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?

Select one of the following:

  • To the left.

  • To the right.

  • First right and then to the left.

  • Teardrop to the left and then to the right.

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (179)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 minute

  • 2 minutes

  • 1,5 minutes

  • 30 sec

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (180)
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound,
inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.

Select one of the following:

  • Off set.

  • Direct.

  • Parallel

  • Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"".

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (181)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 minutes 30 seconds.

  • 2 minutes.

  • 1 minute.

  • 1 minute 30 seconds.

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

10.6.5.0 (182)
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

Select one of the following:

  • Course.

  • Bearing.

  • Track.

  • Heading.

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

10.6.5.0 (185)
In a standard holding pattern turns are made :

Select one of the following:

  • in a direction depending on the entry ,

  • in a direction depending on the wind direction

  • to the left

  • to the right

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (186)
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?

Select one of the following:

  • Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound

  • Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound

  • Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

  • Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

RED 10.6.6.0 (187)
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:

Select one of the following:

  • Transition level.

  • Transition altitude.

  • Transition layer.

  • The level specified by ATC.

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

10.6.6.0 (189)
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:

Select one of the following:

  • according pilot's choice.

  • as hlight level.

  • as height.

  • as altitude.

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

10.6.6.0 (191)
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • altitude above mean sea level during climb

  • flight level during descent

  • altitude above mean sea level during descent

  • either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

RED 10.6.6.0 (192)
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

Select one of the following:

  • only at transition altitude.

  • at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

  • at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.

  • only at transition level.

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

RED 10.6.6.0 (194)
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?

Select one of the following:

  • Within the transition layer

  • When passing the transition level

  • When passing the transition altitude

  • When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

10.6.7.0 (197)
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

Select one of the following:

  • Mode A code 7500.

  • Mode A code 7600.

  • Mode B code 7600.

  • Mode A code 7700.

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

10.6.7.0 (200)
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:

Select one of the following:

  • 7600.

  • 2000.

  • 7500.

  • 7700.

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

10.6.7.0 (201)
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

Select one of the following:

  • 7700.

  • 7500.

  • 7600.

  • 7000.

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

10.6.7.0 (204)
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

Select one of the following:

  • Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.

  • Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.

  • Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.

  • Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

10.7.1.1 (227)
Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis

  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis

  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis

  • plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

10.7.1.1 (231)
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?

Select one of the following:

  • 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels

  • 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100

  • 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100

  • 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

10.7.1.1 (234)
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :

Select one of the following:

  • Not applicable

  • 260 KT IAS

  • 250 KT IAS

  • 250 KT TAS

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

10.7.1.1 (243)
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as

Select one of the following:

  • Airspace D

  • Airspace E

  • Airspace B

  • Airspace A

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

10.7.1.2 (249)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:

Select one of the following:

  • 5 minutes.

  • 3 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 15 minutes.

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

10.7.1.2 (250)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

Select one of the following:

  • 15 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 5 minutes.

  • 3 minutes.

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

10.7.1.2 (251)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

Select one of the following:

  • 3 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 5 minutes.

  • 6 minutes.

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

10.7.1.2 (254)
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track,
the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

  • 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

  • 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

  • 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

RED 10.7.1.2 (257)
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraftpreceding a 'Light' aircraft

Select one of the following:

  • 10 km

  • 6 NM

  • 3 NM

  • 2 km

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

10.7.1.3 (265)
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :

Select one of the following:

  • below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

  • below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

  • below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

  • cumulonimbus

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

10.7.1.4 (268)
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

Select one of the following:

  • uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.

  • uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.

  • uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.

  • uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

10.7.1.5 (272)
Alert phase is defined as follows:

Select one of the following:

  • A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of
    emergency.

  • A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.

  • An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened
    by a danger.

  • A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

10.7.3.0 (277)
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:

Select one of the following:

  • 10 minutes prior to departure.

  • 60 minutes prior to departure.

  • 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

  • 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

10.7.3.0 (278)
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the
pilot shall:

Select one of the following:

  • Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.

  • Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations -
    Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.

  • Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.

  • Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

10.7.3.0 (280)
A strayed aircraft is :

Select one of the following:

  • an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established

  • only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track

  • An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which
    reports that it is lost

  • only that aircraft which reports that it is lost

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.1 (283)
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

Select one of the following:

  • Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

  • Crossing arms extended above his head.

  • Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then
    clenching fist.

  • Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

BLUE 10.7.3.1 (284)
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be
amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:

Select one of the following:

  • 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

  • 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

  • 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

  • 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

10.7.3.1 (286)
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the
order listed:

Select one of the following:

  • Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and
    time over.

  • Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.

  • Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and
    time over and ensuing significant point.

  • Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and
    ensuing significant point.

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

10.7.3.1 (287)
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

Select one of the following:

  • The pilot in command.

  • The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.

  • The aircraft operator.

  • The ATC.

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

10.7.3.1 (290)
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been
submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and
the old one cancelled, when:

Select one of the following:

  • The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.

  • The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.

  • The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.

  • The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

10.7.3.1 (295)
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight
plan form...

Select one of the following:

  • write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
    name of theairport.

  • write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
    name of the airport

  • write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the
    name of theairport

  • write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information)
    ALTN/followed by the name of theairport.

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

BLUE 10.7.3.1 (296)
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the
flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:

Select one of the following:

  • estimated ground speed (G/S).

  • true air speed at 65% power.

  • indicated air speed (IAS).

  • true air speed (TAS).

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (298)
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way
communication failure?

Select one of the following:

  • Return to the aerodrome of departure.

  • Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
    conditions.

  • Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.

  • Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

10.7.3.2 (301)
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

Select one of the following:

  • The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.

  • The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed
    with ATC.

  • He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.

  • He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

10.7.3.2 (303)
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed
as:

Select one of the following:

  • Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.

  • the weather permits.

  • Prescribed by the aircraft operations.

  • Decided on pilot's discretion.

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

10.7.3.2 (305)
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled
airspace below FL 290 is:

Select one of the following:

  • 2500 feet (750 m).

  • 1000 feet (300 m).

  • 2000 feet (600 m).

  • 500 feet (150 m).

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (306)
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled
airspace above FL 290 is:

Select one of the following:

  • 4000 feet (1200 m).

  • 1000 feet (300 m).

  • 500 feet (150 m).

  • 2000 feet (600 m).

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (309)
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the
same direction is:

Select one of the following:

  • 3 000 feet.

  • 1 500 feet.

  • 4 000 feet.

  • 2 000 feet.

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (311)
A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level
is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on
track"" way-point. This minimum is:

Select one of the following:

  • 20 NM.

  • 50 NM.

  • 80 NM.

  • 60 NM.

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

10.7.3.2 (316)
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight
level 290?

Select one of the following:

  • 500 feet

  • 1000 feet

  • 1500 feet

  • 2000 feet

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

10.7.3.2 (317)
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight
level (FL)

Select one of the following:

  • Above the transition altitude when applicable

  • only in airspace class A

  • When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa

  • if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

10.7.3.2 (323)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

Select one of the following:

  • 3 minutes

  • 2 minutes

  • 10 minutes

  • 5 minutes

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

10.7.3.2 (325)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
will be

Select one of the following:

  • 10 minutes

  • 15 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 3 minutes

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.3 (331)
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :

Select one of the following:

  • the pilot is following the published approach procedure

  • the aircraft gets radar vectors ,

  • the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight,

  • all mentioned answers are correct

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.3 (343)
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is,
when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

Select one of the following:

  • 3.0 NM

  • 1.0 NM

  • 2.0 NM

  • 5.0 NM

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

10.7.3.3 (345)
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall
be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track at an angle not greater than :

Select one of the following:

  • 30 degrees

  • 25 degrees

  • 20 degrees

  • 15 degrees

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.3 (346)
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :

Select one of the following:

  • 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
    display

  • 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted
    on the radar display

  • 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar DISPLAY

  • 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
    display

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

10.7.3.4 (352)
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :

Select one of the following:

  • Medium/poor

  • Good

  • Poor

  • Medium

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

10.7.3.4 (355)
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft ?

Select one of the following:

  • medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes

  • light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

  • medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes

  • medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

10.7.3.4 (357)
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite
direction runway separated by :

Select one of the following:

  • 730 m

  • Less than 730 m

  • 760 m

  • Less than 760 m

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.4 (358)
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is :

Select one of the following:

  • 2 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 3 minutes

  • 1 minute

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.4 (359)
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
using the same runway ?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 minutes

  • 3 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 1 minute

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.5 (362)
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 minutes

  • 3 minutes

  • 1 minute

  • 5 minutes

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

10.7.3.6 (364)
Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft
subjected to unlawful interference?

Select one of the following:

  • Code 7500.

  • Code 7700.

  • Code 7600

  • Code 2000.

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

10.7.3.6 (365)
Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?

Select one of the following:

  • Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight
    instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

  • ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you
    are advised that contact has been lost.

  • You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
    radar contact has been lost.

  • Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
    contact with this radar facility.

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (366)
What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation""
after you have been vectored to an airway?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.

  • You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

  • Radar Service is terminated.

  • Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (367)
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR
mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the
required direction by:

Select one of the following:

  • More than 300 ft.

  • 300 ft.

  • +/- 300 ft.

  • More than 200 ft.

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (368)
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:

Select one of the following:

  • 2.0 NM.

  • 3.0 NM.

  • 5.0 NM.

  • 1.5 NM.

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (374)
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on
the airway and to ""resume own navigation"". This phrase means that:

Select one of the following:

  • You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.

  • You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

  • Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports.

  • You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (389)
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR
mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:

Select one of the following:

  • +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (385)
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the
localizer course shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

  • 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

  • 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.

  • 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

BLUE 10.7.3.6 (386)
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information
displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • +/- 250 ft.

  • +/- 300 ft.

  • +/- 200 ft.

  • +/- 500 ft.

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

10.7.3.6 (382)
When ""Secondary Radar"" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the
following procedures:

Select one of the following:

  • Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from
    ""ON"" to ""STBY"" and back to ""ON"".

  • To request pilot to set transponder on position ""ON"".

  • To request pilot to set transponder on position ""OFF"".

  • To request pilot to switch from ""ON"" to ""STDBY"".

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

10.7.3.6 (387)
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar
separation minimum shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • 3.0 NM.

  • 5.0 NM.

  • 10.0 NM.

  • 3.5 NM.

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (388)
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by
an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
criterion):

Select one of the following:

  • +/- 300 ft.

  • +/- 200 ft.

  • +/- 150 ft.

  • +/- 250 ft.

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (389)
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR
mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:

Select one of the following:

  • +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 250 ft of the assigned level

  • +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

10.7.3.6 (391)
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the
pilot?

Select one of the following:

  • The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft

  • The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

  • The aircraft is subject to positive control

  • Position reports may be omitted

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

10.8.1.0 (403)
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas
and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?

Select one of the following:

  • GEN.

  • RAC.

  • COM.

  • MET.

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

RED 10.8.1.0 (418)
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a
change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This
information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic
eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is
reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour
code is

Select one of the following:

  • RED

  • YELLOW

  • GREEN

  • ORANGE

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

10.8.1.0 (419)
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing
charts

Select one of the following:

  • Visibility minima

  • DME-frequencies

  • OCH or OCA

  • Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

10.8.1.0 (421)
ASHTAM

Select one of the following:

  • GVATAM

  • NAVTAM

  • VULTAM

  • 1999-06-08 0:00

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (432)
""TODA"" take-off distance available is:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if
    provided).

  • The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if
    provided).

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (433)
""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to:

Select one of the following:

  • Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

  • Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

  • Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.

  • Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (439)
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off
run available prepared as a suitable area where:

Select one of the following:

  • An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.

  • A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.

  • A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

  • An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (440)
""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

Select one of the following:

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway
    provided) .

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if
    provided) .

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

  • The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (442)
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

  • Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.

  • Flashing white.

  • Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (443)
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

Select one of the following:

  • Flashing green.

  • Flashing white.

  • Fixed green

  • Fixed white.

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (448)
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • Fixed lights showing green.

  • Fixed lights showing blue

  • Fixed lights showing yellow.

  • Fixed lights showing white

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (449)
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar
lights shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

  • Flashing lights showing variable white.

  • Fixed lights showing variable green.

  • Flashing lights showing variable green.

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

10.9.1.2 (446)
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light
sources on the centre line have a length of:

Select one of the following:

  • 300 m.

  • 150 m.

  • 200 m.

  • 250 m.

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (454)
Taxiway edge lights shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • Fixed showing blue.

  • Fixed showing green.

  • Fixed showing yellow.

  • Flashing showing blue.

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (455)
Runway end lights shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.

  • Fixed lights showing variable red.

  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (456)
Runway threshold lights shall be:

Select one of the following:

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the
    runway.

  • Fixed lights green colours.

  • Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (459)
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway
CAT II :

Select one of the following:

  • 900m

  • 150m

  • 300m

  • 600m

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (461)
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and
visual aids intended for operations down to:

Select one of the following:

  • a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

  • a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

  • a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

  • a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (462)
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence
at :

Select one of the following:

  • 300 m from threshold

  • 150 m from threshold

  • 450 m from threshold

  • 600 m from threshold

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (463)
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :

Select one of the following:

  • of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ,

  • always of a straight row of lights towards the runway

  • of flashing lights only,

  • of an arbitrary amount of green lights,

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (464)
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes
is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What
should be the length of this approach light system?

Select one of the following:

  • 900 metres

  • 420 metres

  • 1000 metres

  • 1200 metres

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

RED 21.1.5.0 (555)
On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

Select one of the following:

  • will wear at the shoulders

  • it's tread will deteriorate faster

  • will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed

  • will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

RED 21.1.8.3 (602)
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:

Select one of the following:

  • decreases

  • increases

  • remains constant

  • may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
    taken.

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

RED 21.1.8.3 (620)
The ""cabin differential pressure"" is:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.

  • approximately 5 psi at maximum.

  • approximately 15 psi at maximum.

  • the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

RED 21.3.3.2 (958)
In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:

Select one of the following:

  • rotor - stator

  • stator - stator - rotor

  • rotor - rotor - stator

  • stator - rotor

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

RED 21.4.5.0 (1097)
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:

Select one of the following:

  • 100%

  • normal.

  • emergency.

  • on demand.

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.1 (1119)
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port
open causes the airspeed indicator to :

Select one of the following:

  • react like an altimeter

  • read a little high.

  • read a little low.

  • freeze at zero.

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.1 (1120)
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following
instrument (s) :

Select one of the following:

  • altimeter only.

  • airspeed indicator only.

  • vertical speed indicator only.

  • airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1126)
If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
will:

Select one of the following:

  • continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured

  • under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
    blocked

  • over-read

  • gradually return to zero

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1123)
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near
the source is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • position pressure error.

  • barometric error.

  • instrument error.

  • hysteresis effect.

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1124)
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the
instrument will:

Select one of the following:

  • continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured

  • gradually indicate zero

  • under-read

  • indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1133)
The density altitude is :

Select one of the following:

  • the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the
    actual density of the atmosphere

  • the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the
    standard temperature

  • the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point

  • the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1135)
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will :

Select one of the following:

  • overread.

  • underread.

  • be just as correct as before.

  • show the actual height above ground.

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1136)
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must
not exceed :
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • +/-60 feet

  • +/-75 feet

  • +/-30 feet

  • +/-70 feet

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1138)
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in
flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation :

Select one of the following:

  • the replies from the transponders of other aircraft

  • the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system

  • the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board

  • both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1146)
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed
indicator would cause it to:

Select one of the following:

  • under-read.

  • over-read.

  • over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.

  • under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1148)
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
descent the instrument will:

Select one of the following:

  • over-read

  • read zero

  • continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage

  • under-read

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1149)
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed
(IAS) :

Select one of the following:

  • an instrument and position/pressure error correction.

  • an antenna and compressibility correction.

  • and instrument and density correction.

  • a compressibility and density correction.

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1150)
VNO is the maximum speed :

Select one of the following:

  • not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

  • which must never be exceeded.

  • with flaps extended in landing position

  • at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1152)
VLO is the maximum :

Select one of the following:

  • speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.

  • flight speed with landing gear down.

  • speed with flaps extended in a given position.

  • cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1154)
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will
indicate in descent a :

Select one of the following:

  • decreasing speed.

  • constant speed.

  • increasing speed.

  • fluctuating speed.

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1159)
After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
and finds that the indicated airspeed :

Select one of the following:

  • decreases steadily

  • increases abruptly towards VNE

  • increases steadily

  • decreases abruptly towards zero

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1160)
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure
probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :

Select one of the following:

  • increases steadily

  • increases abruptly towards VNE

  • decreases stadily

  • decreases abruptly towards zero

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

RED 22.1.1.4 (1176)
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

Select one of the following:

  • 661 kt.

  • 1059 kt.

  • 644 kt.

  • 332 kt.

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

RED 22.1.2.4 (1224)
A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:

Select one of the following:

  • Contains its own separate gyro

  • Only works of there is a complete electrical failure

  • Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation

  • Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

RED 22.1.2.5 (1236)
The rate-of-turn is the:

Select one of the following:

  • yaw rate in a turn

  • change-of-heading rate of the aircraft

  • aircraft speed in a turn

  • pitch rate in a turn

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

RED 22.1.4.0 (1282)
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:

Select one of the following:

  • height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.

  • height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.

  • height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.

  • altitude of the aircraft.

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

RED 22.1.5.0 (1284)
The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:

Select one of the following:

  • weather situation.

  • piloting.

  • engines and alarms.

  • systems.

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

RED 22.2.2.0 (1326)
An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called ""FAIL...:

Select one of the following:

  • ""OPERATIONAL""

  • ""PASSIVE""

  • ""SAFE""

  • ""REDUNDANT"

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

RED 22.2.2.0 (1327)
An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually
in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called ""FAIL....""

Select one of the following:

  • ""PASSIVE""

  • ""OPERATIONAL""

  • ""SAFE""

  • ""REDUNDANT""

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1377)
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:

Select one of the following:

  • 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

  • 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

  • 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

  • 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1375)
The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :
1 - vertical speed
2 - radio altimeter height
3 - pressure altitude
4 - glidepath deviation
5 - gear and flaps position
6 - angle of attack
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

Select one of the following:

  • 1,2,5,6

  • 1,2,4,5

  • 1,3,4,5,6

  • 2,3,4,6

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

22.3.3.0 (1376)
The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes :
1- excessive descent rate
2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
4- too high descent attitude
5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7- excessive glidepath deviation
The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1,2,5,6,7

  • 3,4,5,6

  • 1,2,4,6,7

  • 2,3,5,7

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1383)
A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning
System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of :
1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.
2 - dangerous ground proximity.
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed
approach.
4 - wrong landing configuration.
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a)
b)
c)
d)

Select one of the following:

  • 2,3,4,5

  • 2

  • 1,3,4

  • 2,5

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1384)
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from :

Select one of the following:

  • the ground to 1 000 ft

  • 50 ft to 2 500 ft

  • 30 ft to 5 000 ft

  • the ground to 500 ft

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1385)
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases :
1- excessive rate of descent
2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

  • 2, 4, 5, 6

  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

  • 3, 4, 5, 6

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1388)
The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:
1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed)
2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Angle of Attack
7- Landing Gear (position)The combination of correct statement is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1,2,3,5,7

  • 2,3,4,5,7

  • 1,2,5,6,7

  • 1,2,5, 8 7

Explanation

Previous
Check answer
Next