40.2.1.2 (2618) Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when altitude is changed?
Eustachian tube
External auditory canal
Tympanic membrane
Cochlea
40.2.1.2 (2625) The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness). It a) b)c) is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure d) varies individually and does not depend on altitude
is the same amount of time for every person
varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude
is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure
varies individually and does not depend on altitude
40.2.1.2 (2626) After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:
5-15 seconds
30-45 seconds
45-60 seconds
60-90 seconds
40.2.1.2 (2628) Pain in the Joints (""bends""), which suddenly appear during a flight , are symptoms of
decompression sickness
barotrauma
hypoxia
air-sickness
40.2.1.2 (2642) Hypoxia effects visual performance.A pilot may: a) get blurred and/or tunnel vision b) c) d)
have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL
be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL
get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache
get blurred and/or tunnel vision
40.2.1.2 (2644) In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?
This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions
This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to compensate by decreasing the heart rate.
This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while hyperventilating.ma=259200
Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning
40.2.1.2 (2645) Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following symptoms:
dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision
a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate
reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity
blue finger-nails and lips
40.2.1.2 (2647) The cabin pressure in airline operation is
normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet
normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet
normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet
always equivalent to sea level
40.2.1.2 (2651) Anxiety and fear can cause
hyperventilation
spatial disorientation
hypoglycemia
40.2.1.2 (2655) The normal rate of breathing is
12 to 16 cycles a minute
20 to 30 cycles a minute
32 to 40 cycles a minute
60 to 100 cycles a minute
40.2.1.2 (2657) Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase)
below 3 000 m
up to 5 000 m
between 3 000 m and 5 000 m
between 5 000 m and 7 000 m
40.2.1.2 (2658) ""The Bends"" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:
pain in the joints
pain in the thorax and a backing cough
CNS-disturbances
loss of peripheral vision
40.2.1.2 (2664) What is hypoxia ?
The total absence of oxygen in the air
The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness
Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition
A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the masko
40.2.1.2 (2665) What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?
Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing
40.2.1.2 (2668) Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately :
21% oxygen
5% oxygen
15% oxygen
10% oxygen
40.2.1.2 (2669) Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:
18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases
19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases
21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases
40.2.1.2 (2674) What is decompression sickness ?
A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraft
An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude
The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's capabilities
A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft
40.2.1.2 (2677) Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to
10.000 - 12.000feet
15.000 feet
20.000 feet
25.000 feet
40.2.1.2 (2680) Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells
have a shortage of oxygen
are saturated with nitrogen
are saturated with oxygen
have a shortage of carbon dioxide
40.2.1.2 (2684) One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:
reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin
cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear
impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptoms
hyperventilation, causing emotional stress
40.2.1.2 (2685) Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?1. Blue lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness..
1, 2 and 3 are correct.
1, 2 and 4 are correct.
1, 3 and 4 are correct.
2, 3 and 4 are correct.
40.2.1.2 (2692) Hypoxia can occur because:
you are getting toomuch solar radiation
you inhale too much nitrogen
you are hyperventilating
the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude
40.2.1.2 (2694) Hyperventilation is:
a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
an increased lung ventilation
a decreased lung ventilation
a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.
40.2.1.2 (2698) What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ?
The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression
The length of time during which an individualcan act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his available oxygen supply
The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia
The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes aware of it
40.2.1.2 (2706) Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:
blocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand
leveling off and possibly climbing
increasing the rate of descent
using an oxygen mask
40.2.1.2 (2717) Haemoglobin is:
in the red blood cells
dissolved in the plasma
in the platelets
in the white blood cells
40.2.1.2 (2735) The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:
4 cycles per minute
16 cycles per minute
32 cycles per minute
72 cycles per minute
40.2.1.2 (2745) During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms could indicate:
disorientation
carbon monoxide poisoningt
40.2.1.2 (2748) You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The intention is:
to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible
to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen
to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung
to reduce blood pressure
40.2.1.2 (2759) What is the TUC at 20 000 FT?
about 30 minutes
1 to 2 minutes
1to 2 hours
5 to 10 minutes
40.2.2.2 (2783) What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapor)?
Objects seem to be closer than in reality
Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality
It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects
There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny daya
40.2.2.2 (2784) Hypoxia will effect night vision
less than day vision
at 5000 FT
and causes the autokinetic phenomena
and causes hyperventilation
40.2.2.2 (2802) the FOVEA
is sensitive to very low intensities of light
is an area in which cones predominate
Is an area in which rods predominate
is the area responsible for night vision
40.2.2.2 (2825) Glaucoma1. can lead to total blindness2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
1, 2 and 3 are correct
1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
40.2.2.4 (2845) The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor
movements with constant speeds
relative speed and linear accelerations
angular accelerations
gravity
40.2.2.5 (2882) The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.Possible danger is:
approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing
approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing
to drop far below the glide path
to misjudge the length of the runway
40.2.2.5 (2884) ""Pilot's vertigo""
is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory impulses to the central nervous system (CNS)
is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration
is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
announces the beginning of airsickness
40.2.2.5 (2886) What do you do, when you are affected by ""pilot`s vertigo""?1. Establis maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Believe the instruments.3. Ignore illusions.4. Minimize head movements.
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
Only 4 is false
40.2.2.5 (2899) When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation
of turning in the same direction
of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction
of the immediate stabilization of the aircrafto
40.2.2.5 (2905) Visual disturbances can be caused by:1. hyperventilation2. hypoxia3. hypertension4. fatigue
2, 3 and 4 are correct
1, 2 and 4 are correct
40.2.2.5 (2920) How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By
believing your body senses only.
maintaining a good instrument cross check.
moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.
looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator.
40.2.2.5 (2924) If you are disorientated during night flying you must:
look outside
descend
relay on instruments
check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast
40.2.3.0 (2926) Our body takes its energy from :1: minerals2: protein3: carbonhydrates4: vitamines
2,3
1,4
1,2,3,4
1,3
40.2.3.2 (2937) Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1. flatulence2. pain in the ear during descent3. pressure vertigo4. pain in the nasal sinuses
1 and 2 are correct
2,3 and 4 are correct
1,3 and 4 are correct
1,2 and 4 are correct
40.2.3.2 (2938) Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect:
pain in the sinuses
chokes
bends
40.2.3.3 (2939) Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification?
High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory system
Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because they always can be treated by inflight medication.
High blood pressure only.
Low blood pressure only.
40.2.3.3 (2942) To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be
avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart
double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week
triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week
double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week
40.2.3.3 (2943) Which of the following is most true?
Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate
Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight
Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption
Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose weight
40.2.3.3 (2944) Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an obstruction in the auditory duct 4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
1,2,3 and 4 are correct
2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
40.2.3.4 (2951) Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance
the side effects only have to be considered
the primary and the side effects have to be considered
medication has no influence on pilot´s performance
only the primary effect has to be considered, side effects are negligable
40.2.3.4 (2956) Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitud
of 10 000 FT
above 10 000 FT
ower than 10 000 FT
of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen
40.2.3.4 (2959) Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)
is approx. 0.3% per hour
is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited
depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks
definitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been eaten
40.2.3.4 (2961) The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about
0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hour
0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour
0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour
0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour
40.2.3.6 (2976) Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is :
sudden
insinuating
obvious
intense
40.3.1.0 (2979) Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up every time what they have to do.
this has to be posetively appreciated for it increases consistency in action
this is dangerous for every situation is different
this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to comply with
this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be solved by improvisation.
40.3.1.1 (2983) The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively monitored input channel is known as
perception
attention
sensation
appreciation
40.3.1.2 (3005) Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :
due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
solely induced in the absence of external reference points
40.3.1.3 (3009) Information stays in the short-term memory
less than 1 second
about 20 seconds
from 5 to 10 minutes
around 24 hourso
40.3.2.0 (3047) What is meant by the term 'complacency'?
To question possible solutions
Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence
An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources Management
Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying
40.3.3.0 (3086) Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will probably
find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data
find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different interpretation of the data
find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens
find it easy to interpret the data in different ways
40.3.3.1 (3093) What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time pressure ?
A Laissez-faire strategy
A non-sequential strategy
A strategy of no commitment
A strategy of preparing decisions
40.3.4.1 (3107) You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a meeting. The weather forcast at destination tends to be much worse than expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you manage to land there at any case.What is your appropriate way of action? You will
continue and think about the nice things you can buy from the money
decide to divert if you think it is necessary.
divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge aboard
see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any decision
40.3.4.2 (3110) The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:
their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions
their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions
their execution is not lumped together with important tasks
it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check list will serve as verification
40.3.4.2 (3112) In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:-1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the crew.-2 : divide up tasks among the crew.-3 : abandon automatic mode and instead process as much information as possible consciously.-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.The correct statement(s) is (are):
1 and 3 are correct
3 and 4 are correct
40.3.4.2 (3113) Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct?
The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since attention is usually focused here
The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check
All the items of a check list are equally important, their sequence is of no importance
The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane
40.3.4.2 (3115) What are the advantages of coordination?
Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility.
Interaction, cognition, redundancy.
Cooperation, cognition, redundancy
Redundancy, exploration, risky shift.
40.3.4.2 (3116) Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:
working parallel to achieve individual objectives
working parallel to achieve one common objective
the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions
sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight situations
40.3.4.2 (3118) Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :
only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures
be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to maintain maximum synergy
only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit philosophies
be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the aircraft
40.3.4.3 (3120) Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:(1) dominant behaviour(2) examplary role-behaviour(3) mastery of communication skills(4) ""Laissez-faire"" behaviour
1 and 4
1 and 3
2 and 3
2 and 4
40.3.4.3 (3121) During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate?
The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled instructions what to do
The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any comments
The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that needed
the captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to keep him informed about his decisions
40.3.4.3 (3122) Which one of the following statements characterizes a democratic and cooperative leadership style?If conflicts evolve, the leader
mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to reestablish a nice and friendly atmosphere within the team
keeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguing
decides what to do and pushes his own opinion through
tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
40.3.4.3 (3123) Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?
Mistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the individual
To be a member of a team can not increase one's own motivation to succeed in coping with task demands
The quality of crew-performance depends on the social-competence of individual team members
The quality of crew-performance is not dependent on social-competence of individual team members
40.3.4.3 (3126) Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts?
Staying to the own point of view.
Responding with counter-arguments.
Active listening.
Giving up the own point of view
40.3.4.3 (3127) The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on
both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals
both pilots wearing the same uniform
both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude
both pilots flying together very often for a long period
40.3.4.3 (3131) The ""ideal professional pilot"" is, in his behaviour,
rather ""person"" than ""goal"" oriented
""person"" and ""goal"" oriented
rather ""goal"" than ""person"" oriented
neither ""person"" nor ""goal"" oriented
40.3.4.3 (3134) What elements establish synergy within the crew ?
Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)
Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members (communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)
Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to debriefing
It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew
40.3.4.3 (3137) What may become the main risk of a ""laissez-faire""(liberalismo) cockpit ?
Lack of communication
Inversion of authority
Disengagement of the co-pilot
Appearance of agressiveness
40.3.4.3 (3138) What is characterized by a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ?
Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicity informing the other members about them
A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew members
The high level of independence granted to eachoding:
The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation
40.3.4.3 (3145) What is synergy in a crew ?
A behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actions
The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a non-standard task
The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual performances
The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective
40.3.4.3 (3147) An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:
the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members
decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other crew members
decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew
the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level
40.3.4.3 (3149) CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
intended solely to alter an individual's personality,
intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes towards flight safety and human relationship management
is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes
not intended to change the individual's attitude at all
40.3.5.1 (3180) Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high workload conditions in the cockpit?
Mentally absent.
Sensitive.
Disciplined.
Jovial.
40.3.6.2 (3198) In case of in-flight stress, one should :
only trust in oneself, beeing sure to know the own limits
use all available resources of the crew
always carry out a breathing exercise
demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew
40.3.6.2 (3205) What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?
The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual.
The objective threat of the situation.
The time available to cope with the situation.
The unexpected outcome of the situation.
40.3.6.2 (3209) Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?
Stress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and behavioural performance.
Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or reduces performance.
Stress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in connection with precise tasks of the kind encountered in aeronautics
Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.
40.3.6.2 (3223) Stress is above all :
a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the various situation which he may have to face
a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his performance
a phenomenon which is specific to modern man
40.3.6.2 (3229) A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
coping stress
eustress
distress (stress reactions)
stressors
40.3.6.3 (3238) A fatigued pilot
is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression
will get precordial pain
considerably increases the ability to concentrate
will show signs of increased irritability
40.3.6.5 (3261) What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints ?
The preparation of action and time management
The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks
The prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures
The preparation of action and the application of procedures
50.1.1.1 (3273) What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?
16 km
8 km
11 km
40 km
50.1.1.1 (3274) In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?
Tropopause.
Stratosphere
Troposphere.
Stratopause.
50.1.1.1 (3276) Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
Altocumulus
Cumulonimbus
Cirrostratus
Altostratus
50.1.1.1 (3278) Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
Lower stratosphere
Troposphere
Upper stratosphere
Ionosphere
50.1.1.1 (3280) What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?
10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
50.1.1.1 (3284) The tropopause is a level at which
water vapour content is greatest
temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
pressure remains constant
vertical currents are strongest
50.1.1.1 (3287) The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of
8 km and - 75°C over the poles
16 km and -75°C over the equator
8 km and -40°C over the equator
16 km and -40°C over the poles
50.1.2.1 (3289) The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
-6°C.
-9°C.
-18°C.
-15°C.
50.1.2.1 (3290) At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350 ?
-54°C.
-58°C.
-50°C.
-56,5°C.
50.1.2.1 (3291) An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
10°C colder than ISA
10°C warmer than ISA
5°C warmer than ISA.
5°C colder than ISA.
50.1.2.1 (3292) What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
-75°C.
-35°C.
-55°C.
-25°C
50.1.2.1 (3294) The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
-4°C
0°C
-6°C
+2°C
50.1.2.1 (3296) The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
-8°C
+4°C
50.1.2.1 (3301) In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature
decreases with altitude
is almost constant
increases with altitude
increases at first and decreases afterward
50.1.2.3 (3309) In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and 13°C at 1000m. This layer of air is:
stable
unstable
a layer of heavy turbulence
conditionally unstable
50.1.2.3 (3315) An inversion is a layer of air which is
absolutely unstable
absolutely stable
conditionally stable
50.1.2.3 (3317) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of
1°C/100m
2°C/1000FT
0.65°C/100m
0.5°C/100m
50.1.2.4 (3326) An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature
increases with height
remains constant with height
decreases with height at a constant rate
increases with height at a constant rate
50.1.2.4 (3327) An inversion is
an increase of temperature with height
an increase of pressure with height
a decrease of temperature with height
a decrease of pressure with height
50.1.3.1 (3332) The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
QFF
QFE
QNH
QNE
50.1.3.1 (3334) Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal
QNE
50.1.3.2 (3339) Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure ?
It is higher at night than during the day
It decreases with height
It is higher in winter than in summer
It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m
50.1.3.3 (3341) In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?
Temperature at the airfield.
Elevation of the airfield.
Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
50.1.3.3 (3349) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH ?
1000 hPa
1005 hPa
1010 hPa
1015 hPa
50.1.3.3 (3350) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
985 hPa
990 hPa
1025 hPa
1035 hPa
50.1.3.3 (3353) QNH is defined as
pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere
QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere
QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere
pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere
50.1.3.3 (3354) In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?
Temperature at the airfield
Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
Elevation of the airfield
Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield
50.1.4.1 (3355) At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:
Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
50.1.5.1 (3363) A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ?
FL 50
FL100
FL 300
FL 390
50.1.5.1 (3364) If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
-15°C
-30°C
-45°C
-60°C
50.1.5.1 (3367) How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause?
Decreases
Increases
Remains constant
At first it increases and higher up it decreases
50.1.5.1 (3368) What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere ?
2°C per 1000 m
3°C per 1000 m
4.5°C per 1000 m
6.5°C per 1000 m
50.1.5.1 (3369) In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is
0.65°C per 100m
0.5°C per 100m
1°C per 100m
0.6°C per 100m
50.1.5.1 (3370) Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere ?
At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa
At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
50.1.5.1 (3372) The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :
-5°C
-20°C
-35°C
50.1.6.1 (3374) The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15°C below FL 100.What is the true altitude of FL 100?
8590 FT.
10210 FT
9790 FT.
11410 FT.
50.1.6.1 (3382) During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet, local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
Its average temperature is the same as ISA
It is colder than ISA
It is warmer than ISA
There is insufficient information to make any assumption
50.1.6.1 (3384) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet, local QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ?
There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
50.1.6.1 (3385) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet, local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ?
Its average temperature is about ISA
50.1.6.1 (3392) You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
19340 feet
18260 feet
21740 feet
20660 feet
50.1.6.1 (3395) Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown ?
Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.
Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
Air temperature higher than standard
Air temperature lower than standard.(Aÿÿ8E¹)@5)
50.1.6.1 (3396) The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
the outside air temperature is standard for that height
standard atmospheric conditions occur
the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
50.1.6.3 (3400) What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT below sea level?
QFE is greater than QNH.
QFE equals QNH.
QFE is smaller than QNH.
No clear relationship exist
50.1.6.3 (3403) An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ?
It will increase
It will decrease
It will remain the same
It will not be affected
50.1.6.3 (3404) After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level ?
660 feet.
1200 feet.
1740 feet.
2280 feet.
50.1.6.3 (3406) During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?
It is not possible to give a definitive answer
50.1.6.3 (3408) What pressure is defined as QFE?
The pressure at field elevation
The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
The pressure of the altimeter
The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures
50.1.6.3 (3409) An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be
2922 FT.
3006 FT.
4278 FT.
4194 FT.
50.1.6.3 (3411) An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately
7650 FT.
8000 FT
8600 FT.
8350 FT.
50.1.6.3 (3413) Which of the following statements is true ?
QNH is always equal to QFE
QNH can be equal to QFE
QNH is always higher than QFE
QNH is always lower than QFE
50.1.6.4 (3422) What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level?
Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA
50.1.6.4 (3423) Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be dangereous?
Cold high.
Cold low
Warm high.
Warm depression.
50.1.6.4 (3424) A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
It remains 1000 FT
Less than 1000 FT
Without QNH information, it can not be determined
More than 1000 FT
50.2.1.1 (3426) What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?
35 km/h
45 km/h
5 km/h
60 km/h
50.2.1.1 (3427) What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?
50 kt
55 kt
60 kt
70 kt
50.2.1.1 (3428) What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?
15 m/sec
20 m/sec
25 m/sec
30 m/sec
50.2.1.1 (3429) What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh
Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh
50.2.2.1 (3431) Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?
Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.
Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.
50.2.2.1 (3437) What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas ?
Surface friction
Katabatic force
Coriolis force
The pressure gradient force
50.2.2.1 (3439) Wind is caused by
friction between the air and the ground
the movements of fronts
the rotation of the earth
horizontal pressure differences
50.2.2.2 (3454) When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely to be
light
changing direction rapidly
strong
blowing perpendicular to the isobars
Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description?""There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's center of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult.""
Light.
Moderate
Severe.
Violent.
50.2.4.2 (3472) Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?
Altocumulus lenticularis
Nimbostratus
Stratocumulus
Cirrocumulus
50.2.4.2 (3473) Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of
turbulence at and below the cloud level
smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
poor visibility at surface
a high risk of thunderstorms
50.2.5.1 (3485) In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows
counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area
clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure area
from a low pressure area to a high pressure area
counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area.
50.2.6.1 (3493) In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows :
during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
50.2.6.1 (3494) A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon?
Land to sea.
Variable.
Sea to land.
Parallel to the coastline.
50.2.6.1 (3495) A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows
up the slope during the day.
down the slope during the night.
down the slope during the day.
up the slope during the night.
50.2.6.1 (3496) Which of the following is true of a land breeze?
It blows from land to water
It blows from water to land
It blows only at noon
It blows by day
50.2.6.1 (3498) The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the :
mountain at night.
valley during daylight hours.
mountain during daylight hours.
valley during daylight as much as at night.
50.2.6.1 (3500) When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will experience wind
from the water in daytime and from the land at night
from the land in daytime and from the water at night
continually from land to water
continually from water to the land
50.2.6.1 (3502) In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows
during the day down from the mountains
at night up from the valley
at night down from the mountains
during the day up from the valley
50.2.7.2 (3504) An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight?
It decreases.
It remains constant.
It first increases, then decreases.
It increases.
50.2.7.2 (3510) Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?
The arctic jet stream
The polar front jet stream
The equatorial jet stream
The subtropical jet stream
What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
50 kt.
60 kt.
70 kt.
100 kt.
50.2.7.5 (3533) In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ?
Exactly in the centre of the core.
The cold air side of the core.
The warm air side of the core.
About 12000 FT above the core
50.2.8.1 (3537) At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is
altocumulus lenticularis.
cirrostratus.
cirrus.
cumulus mediocris.
50.3.1.1 (3538) What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather stand-point ?
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Water vapour
Hydrogen
50.3.1.2 (3549) The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
relative humidity
air temperature
dewpoint
stability of the air
50.3.1.2 (3551) The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in
dry air
moist air
air with low temperature
air with high temperature
50.3.1.2 (3552) The dewpoint temperature
is always lower than the air temperature
can not be equal to the air temperature
can be equal to the air temperature
is always higher than the air temperature
50.3.1.2 (3553) Relative humidity depends on
moisture content and pressure of the air
moisture content and temperature of the air
temperature of the air only
moisture content of the air only
50.3.2.1 (3557) Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:
water vapour is present.
water vapour condenses.
temperature and dew point are nearly equal
relative humidity reaches 98%.
50.3.2.1 (3558) In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released ?
Solid to liquid
Gas to liquid
Liquid to gas
Solid to gas
50.3.2.1 (3560) Supercooled droplets can occur in
precipitation but not in clouds
clouds, fog and precipitation
clouds but not in precipitation
clouds but not in fog
50.3.2.1 (3564) The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as
supercooling
sublimation
radiation cooling
supersaturation
50.3.3.1 (3567) What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ?
2.0°C
3.0°C.
3.5°C
1.5°C
50.3.3.1 (3575) A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is
between 1°C per 100m and 0.65°C per 100m
more than 1°C per 100m
less than 0.65°C per 100m
50.3.3.1 (3576) A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is
neutral
50.3.3.1 (3581) In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer can be described as being
50.3.3.1 (3583) The stability in a layer is increasing if
warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
cold and dry air is advected in the upper partd
warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
50.4.1.1 (3590) Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds?
Convection.
Subsidence.
Radiation.
Frontal lifting within stable layers.
50.4.1.1 (3593) Convective clouds are formed
in stable atmosphere
in summer during the day only
in unstable atmosphere
in mid-latitudes only
50.4.1.2 (3599) What is the main composition of clouds classified as ""high level clouds""?
Supercooled water droplets.
Ice crystals.
Water droplets.
50.4.1.2 (3601) Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?
CS
ST
AS
CC
50.4.1.2 (3602) Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
CU, CB
NS, CU
ST, AS
CB, CC
50.4.1.2 (3605) Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels ?
CB
AC
CI
50.4.1.2 (3608) Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
CU
SC
50.4.1.2 (3614) Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
1000 to 2000 FT
the surface to 6500 FT
100 to 200 FT
500 to 1000 FT
50.4.1.2 (3615) Which of the following are medium level clouds ?
Altostratus and altocumulus
All convective clouds
Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
50.4.1.2 (3616) What type of cloud is being described ?A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
Stratus
50.4.1.2 (3617) The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates
strong convection at low height
subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
instability in the middle troposphere
stability in the higher troposphere
50.4.1.4 (3619) What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?
Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.
Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.
Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.
50.4.1.4 (3620) In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?
In Nimbostratus cloud
in clear air above the freezing level
Below the freezing level in clear air
Within cloud of any type
50.4.1.4 (3622) Cumulus clouds are an indication for
stability
up and downdrafts
the approach of a cold front
the approach of a warm front
50.4.2.1 (3624) What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?
500 FT.
2 000 FT.
5 000 FT.
10 000 FT.
50.4.2.1 (3629) What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog ?
Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.
Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface.
Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling.
Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea.
50.4.2.1 (3630) What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions ?
Advection.
Steam.
Orographic.
50.4.2.1 (3631) Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
Very dry air
Strong surface winds
Little or no cloud
Very low temperature
50.4.2.1 (3633) When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be
clear and cool
fog or low cloud
unlimited visibility
high scattered clouds
50.4.2.1 (3634) The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to produce
radiation fog
a cold front
advection fog
good clear weather
