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ACCA Digital Technologies Quiz on NRS-1 Questions 2 , created by ryan abbott on 24/05/2018.

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NRS-1 Questions 2

Question 1 of 170

1

The original network that ultimately became the internet was called

Select one of the following:

  • NSFNET

  • ARPANET

  • DoDnet

  • DARPA

Explanation

Question 2 of 170

1

The primary organisation behind the development of the original internet was

Select one of the following:

  • IBM

  • Digital Equipment Corporation (DEC)

  • Stanford University

  • U.S. Department of Defence

Explanation

Question 3 of 170

1

Which of the following was not a primary design concern during the development of the original internet?

Select one of the following:

  • Reliability

  • Bandwidth

  • Interoperability

  • Support for Diverse network Mediums

Explanation

Question 4 of 170

1

Which of the following was not a reason TCP was a superior transport protocol to NCP?

Select one of the following:

  • Support for global addressing

  • Support for end-to-end checksums

  • Support for applications such as email

  • Support for fragmentation and reassembly

Explanation

Question 5 of 170

1

Which of the following OSI layers is not paired with the correct implementation?

Select one of the following:

  • Layer 7 - Email

  • Layer 3 - TCP

  • Layer 4 - UDP

  • Layer 2 - PPP

Explanation

Question 6 of 170

1

Part of the growth of ARPANET was driven by the ability of anyone to create a disseminate information about potential protocols and the applications in a particular kind of document. These documents are known as______

Select one of the following:

  • Requests for information

  • Protocol revisions

  • Requests for comments

  • Requests for configurations

Explanation

Question 7 of 170

1

ISPs connect to each other at well-defind network locations to exchange information. These connection points are known as ______.

Select one of the following:

  • ISPs.

  • IXPs.

  • BGPs.

  • POPs.

Explanation

Question 8 of 170

1

A company that has locations throughout the country can obtain service at each location from a tier 1, tier 2, or tier 3 provider. What is one reason a company might choose to connect all locations to a tier 1 provider despite the higher costs involved?

Select one of the following:

  • sites at different tiers cannot communicate

  • tier 3 providers don't use TCP/IP

  • Only tier 1 providers provide content

  • A single provider could offer SLAs to each location

Explanation

Question 9 of 170

1

Which of the following services would likely be offered by a content provider but not a service provider?

Select one of the following:

  • standard dial-up service

  • live video streaming from sports events

  • Email service

  • Basic web service

Explanation

Question 10 of 170

1

which of the following accurately describes the TCP protocol?

Select one of the following:

  • connectionless with no guarantee of delivery

  • connectionless with guarantee of delivery

  • connection-oriented with guarantee of delivery

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 11 of 170

1

Originally the IP protocol functions were performed by _______

Select one of the following:

  • Ethernet

  • TCP

  • NCP

  • ALOHANET

Explanation

Question 12 of 170

1

When a HTTP packets needs to be forwarded over the internet, which of the following accurately describes the order of the headers as they would be placed in front of each other in the packet (assume that the originating device is on an Ethernet network?)

Select one of the following:

  • HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

  • HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

  • HTTP, UDP, IP, Ethernet

  • HTTP, IP, Ethernet

Explanation

Question 13 of 170

1

A router processing the packet described in question 12 would need to examine and/or manipulate which headers?

Select one of the following:

  • Ethernet only

  • IP only

  • TCP and IP only

  • IP and Ethernet only

Explanation

Question 14 of 170

1

What would a router processing the packed described in question 12 do with the layer 2 header of the incoming header?

Select one of the following:

  • Remove the source layer 2 address, add its own, and forward the packet

  • Remove the layer 2 addresses and replace them with new addresses

  • Remove the entire layer 2 header and create a new one based on the next-hop interface

  • Leave the original layer 2 header but forward the packet based on the destination address

Explanation

Question 15 of 170

1

Most of the OSI-created protocols are no longer in use, although a few still provide some critically important functions. Which of the following describes an OSI protocol that is still in use?

Select one of the following:

  • OSPF

  • LDP

  • TP0

  • IS-IS

Explanation

Question 16 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a product in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS family?

Select one of the following:

  • SR-12

  • ESS-7

  • SR-6

  • ESS-1

Explanation

Question 17 of 170

1

Which of the following statements is false regarding the Alcatel-lucent 7450 ESS series?

Select one of the following:

  • it supports multiple chassis types

  • it support OSPF, IS-IS, RIP and BGP

  • It is used primarily for Ethernet aggregation

  • it can be managed via a console port or a dedicated Ethernet port on the SF/CPM

Explanation

Question 18 of 170

1

Which of the following descriptions is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • bof.cf - 7750/7450 confirmation file

  • cpm.tim - IOM image file

  • config.cfg - Back-up configuration file

  • boot.ldr - Bootstrap image file

Explanation

Question 19 of 170

1

Which of the following commands is not correctly described?

Select one of the following:

  • shutdown - this command is used to disable an interface or protocol

  • exit all - logs out of the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS device

  • ? - lists all commands in the current context

  • [TAB] - This command is used for assistance with command completion

Explanation

Question 20 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a log stream type?

Select one of the following:

  • Audit

  • Change

  • Main

  • Security

Explanation

Question 21 of 170

1

Which of the following descriptions of hardware for the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • IOMs plug into MDAs.

  • MDAs plug into SFPs.

  • SF/CPMs plug into IOMs.

  • IOMs plug into the chassis.

Explanation

Question 22 of 170

1

What file contains the system bootstrap image?

Select one of the following:

  • boot.cfg

  • image.ldr

  • boot.ldr

  • bof.cfg

Explanation

Question 23 of 170

1

The SF/CPM card has its own Ethernet interface for out-of-band management. This interface has its own IP address and default route. Where is this information stored?

Select one of the following:

  • boot.ldf

  • bof.cfg

  • config.cfg

  • cpm.tim

Explanation

Question 24 of 170

1

Which of the following correctly lists the order in which files are read by the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS upon bootup?

Select one of the following:

  • boot.ldr, bof.cfg, system image, config.cfg

  • system image, boot.ldr, config.cfg, bof.cfg

  • boot.ldr, system image, bof.cfg, config.cfg

  • boot.ldr, bof.cfg, config.cfg, system image

Explanation

Question 25 of 170

1

During the boot process, an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS checks to see if persistence is enabled. What is the purpose of persistence?

Select one of the following:

  • To ensure that the system saves routing table information when it reboots

  • To ensure that changes to the bof.cfg are saved

  • To ensure synchronization with the 5620 SAM

  • To ensure that config changes are stored in the config.cfg

Explanation

Question 26 of 170

1

What command would you use to enable an interface the first time you initialized an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS?

Select one of the following:

  • enable

  • no shutdown

  • interface enable

  • interface on

Explanation

Question 27 of 170

1

Which of the following is the correct provisioning order you should follow when configuring an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS for the first time?

Select one of the following:

  • IOM, port, MDA

  • Port, MDA, IOM

  • IOM, MDA, port

  • MDA, port, IOM

Explanation

Question 28 of 170

1

Which of the following is false regarding the logging mechanisms in the Alcatel- Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS?

Select one of the following:

  • Log-ids 99 and 100 are reserved for system usage.

  • You must configure at least one input stream for a log-id.

  • You must configure a filter for each log-id.

  • You must configure the destination for the events from the log-id.

Explanation

Question 29 of 170

1

What command would you use to display the configuration of your Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS?

Select one of the following:

  • show config

  • admin display-config

  • display config

  • show admin config

Explanation

Question 30 of 170

1

Which of the following values is not stored in the bof.cfg?

Select one of the following:

  • The location of the primary boot image

  • The list of IOM cards in the chassis

  • The persist value

  • The location of the primary config file

Explanation

Question 31 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a data link layer (OSI Layer 2) protocol?

Select one of the following:

  • Ethernet

  • ATM

  • Cell-Relay

  • PPP

Explanation

Question 32 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a function of PPP?

Select one of the following:

  • Provide support for multiple upper-layer protocols.

  • Support the connection of multiple devices on a single link.

  • Support authentication.

  • Support data integrity via a CRC on frame contents.

Explanation

Question 33 of 170

1

Which of the following ATM AAL types is associated with an incorrect description?

Select one of the following:

  • AAL3/4—Connection-oriented service

  • AAL5—Connectionless service

  • AAL2—Variable bit rate traffic

  • AAL1—High bit rate traf

Explanation

Question 34 of 170

1

Which of the following technologies ensures that a unicast packet is visible only to the device with the specific destination address?

Select one of the following:

  • Ethernet

  • Switched Ethernet

  • Satellite

  • Wireless LAN

Explanation

Question 35 of 170

1

The advantage of using multicast packets instead of broadcast packets is:

Select one of the following:

  • Broadcasts are received by every host.

  • Multicast is newer technology.

  • Broadcasts are processed by every host.

  • Multicast provides multiple addresses for flexibility.

Explanation

Question 36 of 170

1

A PPP frame has several fields that are not used, like addressing. Why do these fields exist in the frame?

Select one of the following:

  • They are reserved for future use.

  • They are legacy fields from older versions of PPP headers.

  • PPP is based on the HDLC frame format.

  • PPP can be adapted for use on multi-point networks and might need the fields.

Explanation

Question 37 of 170

1

ATM uses 53-byte cells, which is quite a bit smaller than the maximum Ethernet frame. What is the purpose of having such a small cell size?

Select one of the following:

  • To support latency-sensitive applications like voice traffic

  • To provide less overhead on ATM switches

  • To support the use of multiple classes of service

  • To provide the ability to do switching in hardware

Explanation

Question 38 of 170

1

What is the purpose of the ATM Adaptation Layer?

Select one of the following:

  • It determines the amount of data in the cell.

  • It maps data from upper-layer service classes to ATM cells.

  • It adapts Ethernet frames to ATM cells.

  • It wraps a header around the ATM cell.

Explanation

Question 39 of 170

1

What are the two main types of Ethernet frames?

Select one of the following:

  • Thinnet and Thicknet

  • 10baseT and 100baseT

  • DIX Ethernet and Ethernet II

  • 802.3 and Ethernet II

Explanation

Question 40 of 170

1

Which of the following values for the Ethertype/length fields indicates an 802.3 frame (numbers are in decimal)?

Select one of the following:

  • 64

  • 1540

  • 2048

  • 9000

Explanation

Question 41 of 170

1

The original Thicknet standard had a maximum cable length as well as a minimum distance for stations to tap into the cable. Based on the description of CSMA/CD, what is the most likely reason for these distance requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • A signal might be too weak to travel farther than the maximum distance.

  • Every station on the wire had to be able to “detect” a collision in order to
    function properly.

  • Too many taps in the cable would weaken the wire.

  • Thicknet cable came in fixed lengths.

Explanation

Question 42 of 170

1

An Ethernet MAC address consists of ______.

Select one of the following:

  • A 4-byte number in four parts

  • A 4-byte number in two parts

  • A 6-byte number in two parts

  • A 6-byte number in four parts

Explanation

Question 43 of 170

1

When an Ethernet station wants to transmit information, the process it follows
is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Just start transmitting.

  • Listen for other stations transmitting; if none, then begin transmitting.

  • Transmit whenever it receives the token.

  • Issue a transmit request, and transmit when given authorization to do so.

Explanation

Question 44 of 170

1

What happens when two or more Ethernet stations attempt to transmit at the
same time?

Select one of the following:

  • This is impossible on half-duplex.

  • The signal results in a collision, the stations stop, and the stations all wait the
    same amount of time to retransmit.

  • The signal results in a collision, and the stations retransmit based on a configured
    priority.

  • The signal results in a collision, and the stations stop and retransmit after
    waiting a random amount of time.

Explanation

Question 45 of 170

1

Which of the following Ethernet standards is not matched correctly?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 Mb Ethernet—Fiber or copper cable

  • 100 Mb Ethernet—Fiber or copper cable

  • 1 Gig Ethernet—Fiber cable only

  • All of the above are correct.

Explanation

Question 46 of 170

1

When a frame with an unknown destination MAC address enters a switch, the switch will forward it out which ports?

Select one of the following:

  • None

  • All

  • All unicast ports

  • All except the port that received the frame

Explanation

Question 47 of 170

1

The primary difference in the way Ethernet hubs and Ethernet switches handle traffic is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Hubs forward broadcast traffic out every port, switches do not.

  • Switches eliminate the need for thicknet cabling.

  • Switches support multiple physical connections to hosts.

  • Switches forward unicast traffic only to a specific destination port.

Explanation

Question 48 of 170

1

Which of the following is not true about Link Aggregation Groups?

Select one of the following:

  • They protect against single or multiple link failures.

  • They can contain up to eight physical links.

  • They can protect against a switch failure by calculating multiple paths to
    the root.

  • They can be configured to enter a down state if a certain number of links in
    the bundle fail.

Explanation

Question 49 of 170

1

Which of the following is not true of the STP protocol?

Select one of the following:

  • It calculates a root bridge.

  • It uses a cost value on each port to determine the path to the root bridge.

  • It ensures a loop-free topology.

  • It provides load-sharing capability.

Explanation

Question 50 of 170

1

The advantage of using VLANs is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • They can increase the security of your network.

  • They can interconnect multiple broadcast domains.

  • They can limit the amount of broadcast traffic between groups of devices.

  • A and C but not B

Explanation

Question 51 of 170

1

Which of the following statements is false?

Select one of the following:

  • Routers provide broadcast domain separation.

  • Hubs provide collision domain separation.

  • VLANs provide broadcast domain separation.

  • Switches provide collision domain separation.

Explanation

Question 52 of 170

1

The method that LAGs use to provide load balancing is best described as:

Select one of the following:

  • Aggregates all source/destination conversations into a single conversation equally across all links

  • Uses the same physical link for each source/destination conversation

  • Statistically balances conversations based on the source MAC address

  • Distributes egress frames equally across all links in the bundle

Explanation

Question 53 of 170

1

Given the following code:
Config> lag 1
Config>lag# description “LAG from PE1 to PE2”
Config>lag# port 1/1/1 1/1/2 1/1/3 1/1/4 1/1/5 1/1/6
Config>lag# port-threshold 2 action down
Config>lag# dynamic-cost
Config>lag# no shutdown

Which answer correctly describes what happens when Ports 1/1/5 and 1/1/6 fail?

Select one of the following:

  • Nothing because the port threshold of 2 active links has not been reached

  • The LAG begins using equal costing across all links because of the dynamic cost parameter.

  • The LAG updates its BPDUs and recalculates STP.

  • The LAG changes its OSPF cost for the bundle but takes no other action.

Explanation

Question 54 of 170

1

What is the primary reason that Ethernet switched networks require STP?

Select one of the following:

  • STP provides for link backup between switches.

  • A loop-free topology is more efficient.

  • Redundant paths can lead to broadcast storms and FDB instability

  • STP updates the OSPF routing protocol cost upon link failure

Explanation

Question 55 of 170

1

The mechanism that STP uses to prevent loops in an Ethernet switched network is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • STP elects a root and selectively blocks higher cost paths to the root from each bridge.

  • STP blocks ports on all bridges that are not the root bridge.

  • STP proactively changes all paths to the root bridge so that they are equal cost.

  • STP uses BPDUs to set up a virtual path between each source and destination pair.

Explanation

Question 56 of 170

1

What determines how the root bridge is elected?

Select one of the following:

  • The bridge priority

  • The MAC address of the lowest switch port

  • The bridge priority unless there is a tie, and then the lowest MAC address

  • The BID unless there are multiple bridge priorities that are equal

Explanation

Question 57 of 170

1

What distinguishes an alternate port from a back-up port in STP?

Select one of the following:

  • The alternate port has a higher path to the root.

  • The back-up port has a lower priority.

  • The back-up port is used only when the alternate port fails.

  • The back-up port is on the same switch as the designated switch.

Explanation

Question 58 of 170

1

Which of the following is false regarding VLANs?

Select one of the following:

  • They provide for broadcast domain separation.

  • A single VLAN can exist on multiple switches.

  • They require a separate physical connection per VLAN for interswitch links.

  • They use a 12-bit VLAN ID to identify each VLAN.

Explanation

Question 59 of 170

1

Which STP port state is characterized by the port accepting and recording MAC address information, but not forwarding any frames out the port?

Select one of the following:

  • Blocking

  • Forwarding

  • Listening

  • Learning

Explanation

Question 60 of 170

1

The technology that allows multiple customers with the same VLANs to use the same provider backbone for their Ethernet traffic is known as ______.

Select one of the following:

  • VLAN trunking

  • VLAN tunneling

  • VLAN stacking

  • IEEE 802.1p

Explanation

Question 61 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a reason networks built on Ethernet alone cannot scale to a global?

Select one of the following:

  • Excessive broadcasts would make the network unusable.

  • Ethernet lacks hierarchical addressing.

  • Ethernet switches cannot build forwarding tables.

  • Ethernet cables can only be of a limited length

Explanation

Question 62 of 170

1

Which of the following is true about Layer 3 addressing?

Select one of the following:

  • It is embedded in the device’s firmware.

  • It provides for a logical hierarchy.

  • It allows for duplicate addresses on the Internet.

  • Addresses are not required to be registered if they are used on the Internet.

Explanation

Question 63 of 170

1

Which of the following is not true about an IP packet?

Select one of the following:

  • The TTL field ensures that IP packets have a limited lifetime.

  • The maximum size is 65,535 octets.

  • The total length field includes the IP header.

  • The current version is IPv5.

Explanation

Question 64 of 170

1

Which of the following is a valid host IP address?

Select one of the following:

  • 192.168.300.4

  • 255.70.1.1

  • 224.0.0.1

  • 10.254.1.1

Explanation

Question 65 of 170

1

An IP address has a first octet represented in binary as 11000001; the equivalent in decimal is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • 190

  • 193

  • 192

  • 11,000,001

Explanation

Question 66 of 170

1

The address 224.100.1.1 under traditional classful addressing would be _____

Select one of the following:

  • Class A

  • Class B

  • Class C

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 67 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a private address?

Select one of the following:

  • 172.18.20.4

  • 10.0.1.1

  • 200.1.1.254

  • 192.168.0.1

Explanation

Question 68 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a reason that subnetting is superior to class-based addressing?

Select one of the following:

  • It reduces the Internet routing table size.

  • You can identify the host portion of the address without the need for a mask.

  • It creates greater internal address flexibility.

  • It allows for more efficient use of address space.

Explanation

Question 69 of 170

1

Given a network address of 192.168.100.0/24, what is the maximum number of subnets you can create if each subnet must support at least seven hosts?

Select one of the following:

  • 16

  • 32

  • 4

  • 8

Explanation

Question 70 of 170

1

If your network address is 10.1.0.0/16 and you have subnetworks that all support at least 300 hosts, how many subnets do you have?

Select one of the following:

  • 255

  • 64

  • 100

  • 128

Explanation

Question 71 of 170

1

Which of the following is the correct representation of mask 255.192.0.0?

Select one of the following:

  • /8

  • /11

  • /10

  • /16

Explanation

Question 72 of 170

1

A network with a /30 mask allows you to have how many usable host addresses?

Select one of the following:

  • 4

  • 2

  • 6

  • 0

Explanation

Question 73 of 170

1

Given the address 10.1.1.0/24, the most correct description of 10.1.1.0 is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Host 0 on the 10.1.1.0 subnet

  • Network 10.1.1.0

  • Illegal because 10.0.0.0 is a Class A

  • Subnet 10.1.1.0

Explanation

Question 74 of 170

1

The concept of allowing a single route entry to represent many network addresses is known as ______.

Select one of the following:

  • CIDR

  • Route aggregation

  • VLSM

  • Classless addressing

Explanation

Question 75 of 170

1

How many subnets can be created from network 10.0.0.0/8 if each subnet must support at least 31 hosts?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 to the power of 16

  • 2 to the power of 18

  • 2 to the power of 19

  • 2 to the power of 24

Explanation

Question 76 of 170

1

Given network 175.100.0.0/16, if you create four subnets, how many addresses are available on each subnet?

Select one of the following:

  • 16,384

  • 4,096

  • 16,382

  • 4,094

Explanation

Question 77 of 170

1

What is the correct “all hosts” broadcast address for subnet 10.15.0.0/17?

Select one of the following:

  • 10.15.255.255

  • 10.15.0.255

  • 10.15.127.255

  • 10.15.128.255

Explanation

Question 78 of 170

1

Which of the following is not allowed?

Select one of the following:

  • subnet 10.0.0.0/16

  • subnet 10.255.0.0/16

  • subnet 10.10.10.0/16

  • host 10.10.10.0/32

Explanation

Question 79 of 170

1

Given network 135.100.0.0/16, you need nine subnets, and of these nine, one subnet needs to be split into 13 additional subnets. Choose the most likely masks you would create for this.

Select one of the following:

  • /20 for the first eight subnets, /23 for the remaining 13

  • /20 for the first eight subnets, /24 for the remaining 13

  • /24 for all subnets

  • /19 for the first eight subnets, /24 for the remaining 13

Explanation

Question 80 of 170

1

Given network 176.200.0.0/16 and a subnet that supports 4,387 hosts, what is the most likely mask for the subnet?

Select one of the following:

  • /20

  • /17

  • /21

  • /19

Explanation

Question 81 of 170

1

Which of the following is a function not performed by a router when forwarding an IP packet?

Select one of the following:

  • Verify the IP header checksum.

  • Decrement the TTL and ensure that it is not zero.

  • Send a “received” message to the originating router.

  • Remove the existing L2 header and creates a new L2 header before forwarding the IP packet to its next destination.

Explanation

Question 82 of 170

1

Which of the following highlights the differences between a traditional home user network and the modern home user network?

Select one of the following:

  • Traditional home networks did not use routers.

  • Modern home networks can use wireless access points.

  • Modern home networks make use of a variety of new services such as Video
    on Demand and IP telephony.

  • Traditional home networks did not rely on the IP protocol.

Explanation

Question 83 of 170

1

In a typical home network, when a PC needs to send an IP packet to a destination on the Internet, it first sends the packet to ______.

Select one of the following:

  • The designated router

  • The cable modem

  • The router indicated in its BGP table

  • The default gateway

Explanation

Question 84 of 170

1

Which of the following statements regarding NAT is false?

Select one of the following:

  • NAT is used for many-to-one translations.

  • NAT is intended to alleviate the need for every home user device to have a public IP address.

  • NAT typically makes use of private IP addressing.

  • A NAT router maintains a translation database to perform the address
    conversions.

Explanation

Question 85 of 170

1

The process by which a home user’s router requests and receives a public IP address from its service provider is known as ______.

Select one of the following:

  • ARP

  • DHCP

  • ICMP

  • OSPF

Explanation

Question 86 of 170

1

Which of the following is false about the DHCP process?

Select one of the following:

  • The client broadcasts a discover message looking for DHCP servers.

  • All DHCP servers will broadcast an offer message.

  • A client will send a unicast accept message to the first DHCP server it receives a response from.

  • All of the above statements are true.

Explanation

Question 87 of 170

1

The ping application relies on two common ICMP message types. Which answer is not one of these types?

Select one of the following:

  • The echo receive ICMP type.

  • The echo request ICMP type.

  • The echo reply ICMP type.

  • None of the above are ICMP message types used by ping.

Explanation

Question 88 of 170

1

Which of the following is true regarding ICMP destination unreachable messages?

Select one of the following:

  • They are sent after failure to receive an Ethernet ACK.

  • They are created by routers that cannot deliver an IP packet to its destination.

  • They rely on the use of ICMP echo replies.

  • They are originated by hosts that are about to reboot.

Explanation

Question 89 of 170

1

Which of the following is not usually involved in the ARP process when a host needs to send an IP packet to another host not on its own IP subnet?

Select one of the following:

  • The host needs to determine based on its mask that the destination host is not on its local subnet.

  • The host will issue an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway if it is not in its ARP cache.

  • The default gateway will determine if it needs to issue an ARP request for the destination host .

  • The default gateway will issue an ARP request for the MAC address of the originating host .

Explanation

Question 90 of 170

1

Which of the following is false regarding IP filters?

Select one of the following:

  • IP filters are not required on a router interface.

  • IP filters can filter on both IP addresses and upper-layer protocol port numbers.

  • IP filters will automatically permit IP packets by default unless otherwise configured.

  • Only one ingress and one egress filter can be applied per interface.

Explanation

Question 91 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a match criteria that can be used with IP filters?

Select one of the following:

  • Source or destination IP address

  • Source or destination port number

  • ICMP message type

  • Originating host name

Explanation

Question 92 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a valid IP filter command?

Select one of the following:

  • ip-filter 10 create

  • default-action discard

  • entry 1 create

  • match dst-ip 10.5.1.0/24

Explanation

Question 93 of 170

1

Which of the following IP filter entries would match packets from network 11.1.1.0/24 to host 5.1.1.1?

Select one of the following:

  • match src-ip 11.1.1.0/24

  • match dst-ip 5.1.1.1/32

  • A and B together

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 94 of 170

1

You are creating a filter to permit packets to destination IP address 192.168.1.1/32. You want all other packets to be dropped. Which of the following commands is not required to support this policy?

Select one of the following:

  • ip-filter 1 create

  • default-action drop

  • entry 1 create

  • match dst-ip 192.168.1.1/32

Explanation

Question 95 of 170

1

match dst-ip 192.168.1.1/32

Select one of the following:

  • The filter’s default action

  • The interfaces where the filter is applied

  • The number of ingress and egress matches

  • The entries in the filter

Explanation

Question 96 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a transport layer protocol?

Select one of the following:

  • TP4

  • TCP

  • RTP

  • UDP

Explanation

Question 97 of 170

1

Which of the following statements about transport layer protocols is false?

Select one of the following:

  • Most Internet applications use a transport layer protocol.

  • B. Transport layer protocols can provide both reliable and unreliable services.

  • Transport layer protocols provide end-to-end services for applications.

  • Transport layer protocols require additional software be added to your operating
    system.

Explanation

Question 98 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the TCP protocol?

Select one of the following:

  • Reliable data transfer

  • Connectionless operation

  • Flow control supported

  • Full-duplex operation

Explanation

Question 99 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the UDP protocol?

Select one of the following:

  • Reliable data transfer

  • Connectionless operation

  • No flow control

  • Appropriate for real-time traffic

Explanation

Question 100 of 170

1

Which of the following TCP flags is not matched with the correct definition?

Select one of the following:

  • SYN—Indicates the start of a TCP connection.

  • ACK—Acknowledges that a TCP segment has been received.

  • FIN—Indicates the closing of a TCP session.

  • RST—Re-sets the sequence numbers for a TCP session.

Explanation

Question 101 of 170

1

A TCP sequence or acknowledgment number consists of ______ bits.

Select one of the following:

  • 30

  • 64

  • 24

  • 32

Explanation

Question 102 of 170

1

After a client initiates a connection request to a server with the SYN bit set, the server usually responds with a packet that has the ______ bit set.

Select one of the following:

  • SYN

  • ACK

  • SYN and ACK

  • SYN, ACK, and URG

Explanation

Question 103 of 170

1

Which of the following TCP bits is set to indicate that an application wishes to close an open connection?

Select one of the following:

  • RST

  • FIN

  • URG

  • ACK

Explanation

Question 104 of 170

1

When operating in slow start mode, which of the following describes the mechanisms to throttle the amount of data sent?

Select one of the following:

  • The receiver’s advertised window size

  • The sender’s congestion window and the sender’s advertised window size

  • The sender’s congestion window and the receiver’s advertised window size

  • The maximum segment size and the URG pointer

Explanation

Question 105 of 170

1

Which of the following are possible mechanisms by which a TCP sending process could recognize that packets it sent to a receiver had been dropped by the network?

Select one of the following:

  • An RSND bit from the receiving TCP process

  • Duplicate ACK numbers

  • An advertised window size of 0

  • An ICMP source quench message

Explanation

Question 106 of 170

1

Given the values MSS=1000 bytes, cwnd value=6, window size=5000, and sender’s SN=5000, what will be the ACK number from the receiving station after the sender sends its next set of segments to the receiving station?

Select one of the following:

  • 6000

  • 11001

  • 11000

  • 10000

Explanation

Question 107 of 170

1

Which of the following types of applications would be least likely to use the UDP protocol?

Select one of the following:

  • A “request-response” application

  • An application that is sensitive to packet loss

  • An application that is sensitive to delay

  • A real-time application

Explanation

Question 108 of 170

1

TCP provides many advanced features missing from UDP. Which of the following is an advantage that UDP has over TCP?

Select one of the following:

  • It provides reliable data transfer.

  • It can recover gracefully from packet loss.

  • It reacts to network congestion.

  • It adds little overhead to the data transfer.

Explanation

Question 109 of 170

1

Which of the following is least likely to be used as an ephemeral port?

Select one of the following:

  • 1025

  • 53212

  • 1487

  • 65938

Explanation

Question 110 of 170

1

DNS is a unique protocol in terms of its transport selection because simple name lookups use UDP, while “zone transfers” that transfer a large amount of name resolution information from one DNS server to another use TCP. What is the least likely reason for using this approach?

Select one of the following:

  • Name lookups are simple request-response.

  • TCP is a reliable protocol.

  • An unreliable zone transfer could result in serious name resolution discrepancies in a network.

  • UDP cannot be used for bulk file transfers.

Explanation

Question 111 of 170

1

An IP router normally uses which of the following pieces of information to forward an IP packet?

Select one of the following:

  • The destination IP address only

  • The source and destination IP address

  • The destination IP address and the destination TCP port

  • The destination IP address, the TTL, and the ToS

Explanation

Question 112 of 170

1

The two main categories of routing protocols are IGP and ______.

Select one of the following:

  • OSPF

  • Link state

  • BGP

  • EGP

Explanation

Question 113 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an IGP?

Select one of the following:

  • It is intended for networks under a common administrative control.

  • It is used between ASes.

  • There are not as many policy enforcement features as an EGP.

  • It includes distance vector and link state protocols.

Explanation

Question 114 of 170

1

A router can run multiple routing protocols that each have their own table of routing information. A router selects the best route for each destination from all routing sources and puts them in the ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Routing Link Database

  • Routing Information Base

  • Routing Table

  • ARP Table

Explanation

Question 115 of 170

1

Which of the following pairings is not correct?

Select one of the following:

  • EGP—BGP4

  • Link state—OSPF

  • IGP—RIP

  • Distance vector—IS-IS

Explanation

Question 116 of 170

1

In which situation would you be most likely to use a static default route?

Select one of the following:

  • In small networks

  • On links with only a single path to other routers

  • When you have older routers

  • On a low-bandwidth link

Explanation

Question 117 of 170

1

It is said that distance vector protocols have a longer convergence time than link state protocols. What is the most likely reason for this?

Select one of the following:

  • Link state protocols send less information.

  • Link state protocols keep track of neighbors via Hello updates.

  • The shortest path algorithm is much faster to calculate than the calculation performed by a distance vector protocol.

  • Distance vector protocols rely on updates only from neighbors.

Explanation

Question 118 of 170

1

There are many advantages of link state protocols over distance vector protocols. Which of the following is a potential advantage of distance vector?

Select one of the following:

  • Distance vector sends its entire routing table in updates.

  • Distance vector does not require extensive processing to build the routing table.

  • Distance vector sends updates at timed intervals.

  • Distance vector relies on neighbors to report routing updates.

Explanation

Question 119 of 170

1

When a link state router receives an LSP update, it uses what algorithm to calculate its routing table?

Select one of the following:

  • OSPF

  • Spanning tree

  • SPF

  • Least cost

Explanation

Question 120 of 170

1

Which of the following is most likely to be used for forwarding IP packets from a stub network?

Select one of the following:

  • A static route

  • A default route

  • A floating static route

  • OSPF with the “stub area” feature

Explanation

Question 121 of 170

1

The forwarding of packets on a router is a function of the data plane. The use of a routing protocol to build routing tables is a function of ______.

Select one of the following:

  • The routing plane

  • The control plane

  • The OSPF plane

  • The protocol plane

Explanation

Question 122 of 170

1

Link state protocols flood LSP information throughout the network to each router. These LSPs are stored in ______.

Select one of the following:

  • The routing table

  • The FIB

  • The routing database

  • The link state database

Explanation

Question 123 of 170

1

If there are multiple identical network prefixes advertised by different routing protocols, the Routing Table Manager chooses the route to place in the routing table based on ______.

Select one of the following:

  • It enters a route based on the lowest metric value.

  • It enters a route based on the highest preference value.

  • It enters a route based on the lowest preference value.

  • It enters a route for each protocol in the routing table.

Explanation

Question 124 of 170

1

Using a link state protocol, which of the following best describes the view each router has of all the links in the network after all LSPs have been flooded?

Select one of the following:

  • Each router has a common view of the network.

  • Each router has a unique view of the network based on its location.

  • Each router knows about only those LSPs originated from its neighbors.

  • Each router knows about all LSPs but uses only LSPs from its neighbors to construct its view.

Explanation

Question 125 of 170

1

Which of the following is the most accurate explanation of the information a distance vector routing protocol sends to neighboring routers?

Select one of the following:

  • It sends Hello updates.

  • It sends its entire routing table.

  • It floods LSPs.

  • It sends its entire routing table and its neighbors’ routing tables.

Explanation

Question 126 of 170

1

OSPF discovers neighbors ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Only by manually configuring the router

  • By flooding updates

  • Using Hello advertisements

  • Using a host table

Explanation

Question 127 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a feature of the OSPF protocol?

Select one of the following:

  • It supports authentication

  • It provides a loop-free topology.

  • It uses the Shortest Path First algorithm.

  • It uses a hop count–based metric.

Explanation

Question 128 of 170

1

Which logical interface is recommended for defining a router ID?

Select one of the following:

  • Ethernet interface

  • Chassis interface

  • MAC address

  • System interface

Explanation

Question 129 of 170

1

What is the primary purpose of the OSPF router ID?

Select one of the following:

  • To elect a designated router

  • To uniquely identify an OSPF router

  • To trace sequence numbers

  • To support LSA flooding

Explanation

Question 130 of 170

1

LSA updates are sent in response to network changes and ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Every 30 minutes

  • After the Hello timer expires

  • When the DR detects the BDR has failed

  • Every 30 minutes provided new information needs to be transmitted

Explanation

Question 131 of 170

1

What does it mean to say that two OSPF routers are adjacent?

Select one of the following:

  • The routers are physically connected on a point-to-point link.

  • The routers are on a common network segment and have exchanged database
    information.

  • The routers have exchanged Hello packets.

  • The routers are in a single area.

Explanation

Question 132 of 170

1

What is required for OSPF routers on a point-to-point network to form an adjacency?

Select one of the following:

  • The DR must form an adjacency first.

  • The neighbor IP address must be configured.

  • They will automatically become adjacent provided certain OSPF configuration values match.

  • Nothing. OSPF routers on point-to-point links will always become adjacent.

Explanation

Question 133 of 170

1

Which of the following hello packet values is not involved in the adjacency process on point-to-point links?

Select one of the following:

  • The area ID

  • The priority

  • The Hello timer

  • The dead timer

Explanation

Question 134 of 170

1

In addition to having correct OSPF settings in the Hello packets, another value that can prevent routers from forming an adjacency in the event of a mismatch is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • The AS number

  • The OSPF MTU

  • The OSPF metric

  • The MPLS TE

Explanation

Question 135 of 170

1

The command to display the Link State Updates that a router has received is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • show router ospf status

  • show router ospf links

  • show router ospf summary

  • show router ospf database

Explanation

Question 136 of 170

1

There are many different types of LSAs in OSPF. The most common LSA type in point-to-point networks is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • The area LSA

  • The router LSA

  • The network LSA

  • The summary LSA

Explanation

Question 137 of 170

1

If an OSPF router receives an LSA with a sequence number that is equal to the sequence number it already has for that LSA, it will ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Silently drop the LSA.

  • Send a rejection notice to the sending router.

  • Drop the LSA and send an acknowledgement.

  • Drop the LSA and forward it to its adjacent routers.

Explanation

Question 138 of 170

1

Which of the following is false regarding the Shortest Path First algorithm that OSPF uses?

Select one of the following:

  • It determines the optimal route to each network.

  • It creates a loop-free path to each network.

  • It is run only on the router that originates an LSA update.

  • It runs every time a new LSA is received.

Explanation

Question 139 of 170

1

Which of the following correctly identifies the order of steps for two OSPF routers to become fully adjacent?

Select one of the following:

  • Exchange, Loading, SPF, Adjacent

  • Exchange, ExStart, Loading

  • ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full

  • ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Adjacent

Explanation

Question 140 of 170

1

Which of the following default metrics is not correct for the given interface speed?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 Gbps link = 100

  • 16 Mbps link = 6,250

  • 1.544 Mbps link = 64,766

  • 622 Mbps link = 16

Explanation

Question 141 of 170

1

The primary purpose of an EGP is to ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Handle large routing tables.

  • Distribute routing information between ASes.

  • Support routing inside a large enterprise network.

  • Provide a default route to the Internet.

Explanation

Question 142 of 170

1

Which of the following is false regarding ASes?

Select one of the following:

  • The assignment of public AS numbers is controlled by RIRs.

  • 65,001 is a private AS number.

  • An IGP is required for routing within the AS.

  • The AS usually contain routers under the control of different administrative
    groups.

Explanation

Question 143 of 170

1

Which logical interface is preferred for creating internal BGP sessions?

Select one of the following:

  • Ethernet interface

  • Chassis interface

  • MAC address

  • System interface

Explanation

Question 144 of 170

1

Which of the following is true regarding BGP neighbors?

Select one of the following:

  • They can be discovered automatically.

  • They need to be directly connected.

  • They can be in the same or different AS.

  • Not all internal BGP speakers need to have the same information about
    routes outside the AS.

Explanation

Question 145 of 170

1

Two BGP routers configured as neighbors communicate using ______.

Select one of the following:

  • TCP on a variable port

  • UDP on a fixed port

  • TCP on a fixed port

  • IP using a fixed protocol

Explanation

Question 146 of 170

1

The primary purpose of iBGP is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • To ensure that routers inside an AS have a common view of networks outside the AS

  • To ensure that the IGP has multiple exit points from an AS

  • To serve as back-up routers to eBGP

  • To exchange routes with external ASes

Explanation

Question 147 of 170

1

By default, BGP will choose the best path to a given network destination based on ______.

Select one of the following:

  • The sum of the interface speeds to a destination

  • The shortest AS path

  • The AS that is configured with special non-discretionary attributes

  • The AS that re-distributed the route from OSPF into BGP

Explanation

Question 148 of 170

1

Once BGP peers establish a connection, they send routing updates to each other
using ______.

Select one of the following:

  • A keep alive message

  • A next-hop update

  • An update message

  • A networks message

Explanation

Question 149 of 170

1

By looking only at the BGP configuration statements on two routers, you can tell if they are iBGP peers or eBGP peers because ______.

Select one of the following:

  • The statement says iBGP or eBGP.

  • The statement contains the word internal or external.

  • Internal peering statements are configured separately.

  • The AS number is associated with each peer statement.

Explanation

Question 150 of 170

1

The command to display the status of your BGP process is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • show router bgp process

  • show router bgp summary

  • show router bgp info

  • show router bgp status

Explanation

Question 151 of 170

1

In the event that a previously advertised network becomes unreachable, BGP will ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Advertise the route with a null AS-path.

  • Tear down the peer connection.

  • Send a withdraw message.

  • Update its route table but take no other action.

Explanation

Question 152 of 170

1

In which of the following situations would you be least likely to use BGP?

Select one of the following:

  • A service provider with multiple connections to other providers

  • An enterprise with multiple connections to the same ISP

  • An enterprise with multiple connections to different ISPs

  • A service provider with a single connection to a higher-level ISP

Explanation

Question 153 of 170

1

The three well-known mandatory attributes in BGP are ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Origin, AS-path, and community

  • AS-path, community, and next-hop

  • AS-path, peer, and next-hop

  • AS-path, origin, and next-hop

Explanation

Question 154 of 170

1

A BGP router usually does not need to receive a full Internet routing table if ______.

Select one of the following:

  • It is the single exit point for an AS.

  • It is one of several exit points from an AS.

  • It is part of a transit AS.

  • It is providing updates to downstream providers.

Explanation

Question 155 of 170

1

All of the following are reasons that using BGP between ASes is preferable to using IGP route re-distribution except ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Route re-distribution loses the metrics of the original IGP.

  • Route re-distribution can lead to routing loops.

  • BGP provides a consistent interface for route exchange across various ASes.

  • Route re-distribution provides for greater policy control.

Explanation

Question 156 of 170

1

Which of the following accurately describes a P device?

Select one of the following:

  • It is used exclusively by the customer.

  • It is responsible for adding and removing labels.

  • It swaps label information and forwards packets.

  • It creates an LSP in the provider network.

Explanation

Question 157 of 170

1

Which of the following is false regarding an SDP?

Select one of the following:

  • It provides transport tunnel encapsulation.

  • It is specific to a single service.

  • The SDP ID is locally unique.

  • LDP can be used as the signalling protocol.

Explanation

Question 158 of 170

1

Which of the following is not an accurate description of a VPN?

Select one of the following:

  • A series of point-to-point tunnels configured on client equipment

  • A tunnel technology created in a provider network

  • A function of MPLS networks to create private communities of users

  • Any network that includes encryption

Explanation

Question 159 of 170

1

Which of the following is false regarding LDP?

Select one of the following:

  • It is used to define unidirectional paths through the network.

  • It is a protocol specifically intended for label distribution.

  • It is the only method for distributing labels in an MPLS network.

  • It describes a path through the MPLS network based on the IGP path.

Explanation

Question 160 of 170

1

Which of the following term–definition pairs is incorrect?

Select one of the following:

  • Push—Add a label

  • Swap—Replace a label

  • Label distribution protocol—Series of labels and next-hop interfaces

  • Pop—Remove a label

Explanation

Question 161 of 170

1

The most commonly used label distribution protocol is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • OSPF

  • BGP

  • LDP

  • RIP

Explanation

Question 162 of 170

1

Which of the following is not a type of VPN?

Select one of the following:

  • VPWS

  • VPNM

  • VPLS

  • VPRN

Explanation

Question 163 of 170

1

A VPN that provides a simple point-to-point service between two destinations is a ______.

Select one of the following:

  • VPNM

  • VPLS

  • VPWS

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 164 of 170

1

The VPN service that must maintain a table of MAC addresses is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • VPWS

  • VPLS

  • VPRN

  • Both A and B

Explanation

Question 165 of 170

1

The VPN service that requires encryption is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • VPRN

  • VPNM

  • VPLS

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 166 of 170

1

The VPN service that appears to the customer as a private routed network is ______.

Select one of the following:

  • VPNM

  • VPRN

  • VPLS

  • VPWS

Explanation

Question 167 of 170

1

As a packet traverses an MPLS network, it passes through a router that removes one label and replaces it with another. The router it passed through was a ______ router.

Select one of the following:

  • PE

  • CE

  • LER

  • P

Explanation

Question 168 of 170

1

A packet arrives at a router with a label, and the router cannot perform any operations on it. The router is most likely a ______.

Select one of the following:

  • LSR

  • PE

  • LER

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 169 of 170

1

In an MPLS network, the customer routers have no knowledge of how the MPLS features are implemented. The benefits of this include ______.

Select one of the following:

  • It makes CE configuration easier.

  • It allows for very scalable VPN solutions.

  • It lowers CE management overhead.

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 170 of 170

1

The relationship between LDP and an IGP is best described as

Select one of the following:

  • LDP paths are preferred over IGP routes.

  • LDP uses IGP next-hop information.

  • LDP re-distributes labels into IGP.

  • IGP tags network destinations with LDP information.

Explanation

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