Alejandro Castillo
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Aviacion (Examen ) Quiz on EASA ATP Qatar Yellow 6, created by Alejandro Castillo on 24/05/2018.

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Alejandro Castillo
Created by Alejandro Castillo about 6 years ago
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EASA ATP Qatar Yellow 6

Question 1 of 103

1

81.1.10.1 (5446)
Spoiler deflection causes :

Select one of the following:

  • an increase in lift and drag

  • an increase in lift only

  • an increase in drag and decrease in lift

  • decrease in lift and drag

Explanation

Question 2 of 103

1

81.1.10.1 (5447)
Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing:

Select one of the following:

  • only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected)

  • CD is increased and CL is decreased.

  • CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected.

  • both CL and CD are increased.

Explanation

Question 3 of 103

1

81.2.1.0 (5451)
The formula for the Mach Number is:(a= speed of sound)

Select one of the following:

  • M= a / TAS

  • M= TAS / a

  • M= TAS*a

  • M= IAS / a

Explanation

Question 4 of 103

1

81.2.1.0 (5452)
The Mach number:

Select one of the following:

  • is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.

  • is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.

  • is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.

  • increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.

Explanation

Question 5 of 103

1

81.2.1.1 (5453)
Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will:

Select one of the following:

  • decrease.

  • increase.

  • remain constant.

  • first increase, then decrease.

Explanation

Question 6 of 103

1

81.2.1.1 (5455)
Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ?

Select one of the following:

  • Is independent of altitude.

  • Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.

  • Increases always if the density of the air decreases.

  • Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade.

Explanation

Question 7 of 103

1

81.2.1.2 (5456)
If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard
troposphere the Mach Number will:

Select one of the following:

  • increase.

  • not change.

  • decrease.

  • increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane.

Explanation

Question 8 of 103

1

81.2.1.2 (5457)
The speed of sound is affected by the:

Select one of the following:

  • density of the air.

  • temperature of the air.

  • humidity of the air.

  • pressure of the air.

Explanation

Question 9 of 103

1

81.2.1.2 (5458)
An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the
effect on true airspeed ?

Select one of the following:

  • It increases as temperature increases

  • It decreases as altitude decreases

  • It decreases as pressure increases

  • It remains constant

Explanation

Question 10 of 103

1

81.2.2.0 (5460)
A normal shock wave:

Select one of the following:

  • can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight.

  • is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly.

  • is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly.

  • is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface.

Explanation

Question 11 of 103

1

81.2.2.0 (5461)
Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ?

Select one of the following:

  • The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic

  • The airflow changes direction

  • The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil

  • The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic

Explanation

Question 12 of 103

1

81.2.2.1 (5466)
When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first
shockwaves will occur:

Select one of the following:

  • on the underside of the wing

  • at the wing root segment, upperside.

  • somewhere on the fin.

  • somewhere on the hoizontal tail.

Explanation

Question 13 of 103

1

81.2.2.1 (5469)
The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach
number at which:

Select one of the following:

  • the maximum operating temperature is reached.

  • sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.

  • a shock-wave appears on the upper surface.

  • a ""supersonic bell"" appears on the upper surface.

Explanation

Question 14 of 103

1

81.2.2.1 (5474)
Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear
at the

Select one of the following:

  • upper side of the wing.

  • lower side of the wing.

  • leading edge of the wing.

  • trailing edge of the wing.

Explanation

Question 15 of 103

1

81.2.2.1 (5475)
Critical Mach-number is the :

Select one of the following:

  • speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraaeroplane Mach number
    < 1).

  • highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane.

  • highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO).

  • speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane.

Explanation

Question 16 of 103

1

81.2.2.1 (5476)
The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that

Select one of the following:

  • the speed reduction is too high.

  • the static pressure decrease is comparatively high.

  • kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy.

  • the friction in the boundary layer is higher.

Explanation

Question 17 of 103

1

81.2.2.2 (5479)
Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the
critical Mach Number?

Select one of the following:

  • Tuck under.

  • Dutch roll.

  • Shock stall.

  • Mach buffet.

Explanation

Question 18 of 103

1

81.2.2.2 (5480)
The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be increased by:

Select one of the following:

  • sweep back of the wings.

  • control deflection

  • vortex generators.

  • dihedral of the wings

Explanation

Question 19 of 103

1

81.2.2.2 (5481)
In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight
because:

Select one of the following:

  • behind the shock wave pressure is lower.

  • aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.

  • aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing.

  • aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.

Explanation

Question 20 of 103

1

81.2.2.2 (5485)
The critical Mach number can be increased by

Select one of the following:

  • positive dihedral of the wings.

  • sweepback of the wings

  • an increase in wing aspect ratio

  • a T-tail.

Explanation

Question 21 of 103

1

81.2.2.2 (5487)
The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the

Select one of the following:

  • skin friction drag.

  • wave drag.

  • form drag.

  • induced drag.

Explanation

Question 22 of 103

1

81.2.2.3 (5491)
How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?

Select one of the following:

  • It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.

  • It remains constant.

  • It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to
    compressibility effects.

  • It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to
    compressibility effects.

Explanation

Question 23 of 103

1

81.2.2.5 (5495)
Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen at Mach Numbers above
the critical Mach Number?

Select one of the following:

  • Mach buffet.

  • Speed instability.

  • Dutch roll.

  • Elevator stall.

Explanation

Question 24 of 103

1

81.2.2.5 (5496)
Shock induced separation results in

Select one of the following:

  • constant lift.

  • increasing lift.

  • decreasing lift.

  • decreasing drag.

Explanation

Question 25 of 103

1

81.2.2.5 (5498)
The high speed buffet is induced by

Select one of the following:

  • boundary layer control.

  • boundary layer separation due to shock waves.

  • a shift of the centre of gravity.

  • expansion waves on the wing upper side.

Explanation

Question 26 of 103

1

81.2.2.6 (5501)
The Mach trim system will:

Select one of the following:

  • pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach Number.

  • keep the Mach Number automatically constant.

  • adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.

  • adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number

Explanation

Question 27 of 103

1

81.2.2.6 (5502)
The Mach trim system will prevent:

Select one of the following:

  • tuck under.

  • buffeting.

  • dutch roll.

  • shock stall.

Explanation

Question 28 of 103

1

81.2.2.6 (5503)
When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing Mach
Number the centre of the pressure of the wing will move aft. This requires:

Select one of the following:

  • much more thrust from the engine.

  • a pitch up input of the stabilizer.

  • a stability augmentation system.

  • a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect

Explanation

Question 29 of 103

1

81.2.2.6 (5504)
Tuck under will happen

Select one of the following:

  • only below the critical Mach number.

  • only above the critical Mach number

  • above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack.

  • only at the critical Mach number.

Explanation

Question 30 of 103

1

81.2.2.7 (5508)
The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable
loadfactor because exceeding that altitude:

Select one of the following:

  • turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.

  • turbulence may induce Mach buffet.

  • Mach buffet will occur immediately.

  • a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.

Explanation

Question 31 of 103

1

81.2.2.7 (5511)
The buffet margin :

Select one of the following:

  • is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed.

  • decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.

  • increases during a descent with a constant IAS.

  • is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.

Explanation

Question 32 of 103

1

81.2.3.1 (5512)
Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will:

Select one of the following:

  • increase the critical Mach Number.

  • decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers

  • decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation

  • increase the magnitude of the shock wave.

Explanation

Question 33 of 103

1

81.2.3.1 (5513)
Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing:

Select one of the following:

  • increase wave drag.

  • increase critical Mach Number.

  • decrease wave drag.

  • decrease critical Mach Number.

Explanation

Question 34 of 103

1

81.2.3.1 (5514)
Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will

Select one of the following:

  • decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.

  • increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.

  • decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.

  • decrease the shock wave induced separation.

Explanation

Question 35 of 103

1

81.3.1.3 (5526)
Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow ?1. The
temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind
it.2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it.

Select one of the following:

  • 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

  • 1 and 2 are correct.

  • 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

  • 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Explanation

Question 36 of 103

1

81.3.1.4 (5529)
The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the acceleration through the
transonic flight regime will:

Select one of the following:

  • decrease the longitudinal stability.

  • increase the static lateral stability.

  • increase the static longitudinal stability.

  • decrease the static lateral stability.

Explanation

Question 37 of 103

1

81.3.1.5 (5532)
The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number
is due to:

Select one of the following:

  • increased interference drag.

  • increased angle of attack.

  • wave drag.

  • increased skin friction.

Explanation

Question 38 of 103

1

81.4.1.2 (5534)
In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight
have the highest value ?

Select one of the following:

  • Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust.

  • Aft centre of gravity and idle thrust.

  • Forward centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

  • Aft centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

Explanation

Question 39 of 103

1

81.4.2.2 (5538)
In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings)
the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to
maintain the pitching moment zero ?

Select one of the following:

  • Up

  • Down.

  • No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains
    unchanged.

  • It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.

Explanation

Question 40 of 103

1

81.4.3.1 (5539)
Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically satble about the relevant axis.

  • Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from original equilibrium condition, the
    aeroplane will return to that condition without oscillation.

  • Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about
    the relevant axis.

  • A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually.

Explanation

Question 41 of 103

1

81.4.3.2 (5547)
The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:

Select one of the following:

  • C.G. position is on the forward C.G. limit.

  • C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit.

  • speed is low

  • flaps are down

Explanation

Question 42 of 103

1

81.4.3.5 (5551)
The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst others limited by the:

Select one of the following:

  • maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.

  • minimum value of the stick force per g.

  • maximum elevator deflection.

  • too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.

Explanation

Question 43 of 103

1

81.4.3.7 (5554)
Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static
longitudinal stability ?


Select one of the following:

  • The engine.

  • The fuselage.

  • The horizontal tailplane.

  • The wing.

Explanation

Question 44 of 103

1

81.4.3.11 (5557)
""Tuck under"" is:

Select one of the following:

  • the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.

  • shaking of the control column at high Mach Number.

  • the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight
    regime

  • the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.

Explanation

Question 45 of 103

1

81.4.3.11 (5558)
""Tuck under"" may happen at:

Select one of the following:

  • low Mach numbers.

  • high Mach numbers.

  • all Mach numbers.

  • only at low altitudes.

Explanation

Question 46 of 103

1

81.4.3.11 (5559)
Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing
    aeroplane above a certain Mach number.

  • A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high
    Mach numbers.

  • A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to
    MMO.

  • The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up

Explanation

Question 47 of 103

1

81.4.6.3 (5576)
Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to ""Dutch roll""?

Select one of the following:

  • Yaw damper

  • Roll spoilers.

  • Spoiler mixer.

  • Rudder limiter

Explanation

Question 48 of 103

1

81.4.6.3 (5577)
Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ?

Select one of the following:

  • Tuck under.

  • Spiral dive.

  • Dutch roll.

  • Buffeting.

Explanation

Question 49 of 103

1

81.5.1.1 (5581)
Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:

Select one of the following:

  • vertical axis.

  • longitudinal axis.

  • lateral axis.

  • wing axis.

Explanation

Question 50 of 103

1

81.5.3.2 (5586)
An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to
a location beneath the wing, is :

Select one of the following:

  • easier maintenance of the engines.

  • less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes.

  • a wing which is less sensitive to flutter.

  • lighter wing construction.

Explanation

Question 51 of 103

1

81.5.4.3 (5591)
During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function
induces a spoiler deflection:

Select one of the following:

  • upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing.

  • on the upgoing wing only.

  • downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing.

  • on the downgoing wing only.

Explanation

Question 52 of 103

1

81.5.4.5 (5592)
Differential aileron deflection:

Select one of the following:

  • increases the CLmax.

  • is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.

  • equals the drag of the right and left aileron

  • is required to achieve the required roll-rate.

Explanation

Question 53 of 103

1

81.5.6.1 (5605)
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:

Select one of the following:

  • upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control
    surface

  • seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn
    balance

  • Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder

  • weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance

Explanation

Question 54 of 103

1

81.5.6.1 (5606)
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:

Select one of the following:

  • spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.

  • mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.

  • servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge
    of control surface.

  • balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.

Explanation

Question 55 of 103

1

81.5.8.2 (5612)
In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with
an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because :

Select one of the following:

  • the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all

  • effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes

  • mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems

  • trim tab deflection increases Mcrit

Explanation

Question 56 of 103

1

81.6.1.0 (5619)
""Flutter"" may be caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

  • distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration
    in the resonance frequency.

  • high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

  • roll control reversal.

Explanation

Question 57 of 103

1

81.6.1.1 (5620)
A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach
Number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:

Select one of the following:

  • VMO.

  • VNE.

  • VD.

  • MMO

Explanation

Question 58 of 103

1

81.6.1.2 (5622)
A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant
weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:

Select one of the following:

  • VMO.

  • MMO.

  • VA.

  • MD.

Explanation

Question 59 of 103

1

81.6.1.2 (5623)
Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ?

Select one of the following:

  • At constant IAS the Mach number increases

  • At constant Mach number the IAS increases

  • At constant IAS the TAS decreases

  • At constant TAS the Mach number decreases

Explanation

Question 60 of 103

1

81.6.2.1 (5630)
Load factor is :

Select one of the following:

  • Lift/Weight

  • 1/Bank angle

  • Weight/Lift

  • Wing loading

Explanation

Question 61 of 103

1

81.6.3.1 (5639)
Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean
configuration) ?

Select one of the following:

  • 66 ft/sec and VD.

  • 65 ft/sec at all speeds.

  • 50 ft/sec and VC.

  • 55 ft/sec and VB.

Explanation

Question 62 of 103

1

81.6.3.2 (5644)
Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other
factors of importance remaining constant) ?1. the gust load increases, when the
weight decreases.2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.

Select one of the following:

  • 1 and 2 are correct.

  • 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

  • 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

  • 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Explanation

Question 63 of 103

1

81.8.1.4 (5671)
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
glide ?

Select one of the following:

  • headwind

  • tailwind

  • increase of aeroplane weigh

  • decrease of aeroplane weight

Explanation

Question 64 of 103

1

81.8.1.5 (5675)
A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy
aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will:

Select one of the following:

  • turn at the same turn radius.

  • turn at a smaller turn radius.

  • turn at a bigger turn radius.

  • turn at a higher turn rate

Explanation

Question 65 of 103

1

81.8.2.9 (5680)
Which of the following statements is correct ?I When the critical engine fails
during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting.II The speed VMCL is always
limited by maximum rudder deflection.

Select one of the following:

  • I is correct, II is correct

  • I is incorrect, II is incorrect

  • I is correct, II is incorrect

  • I is incorrect, II is correct

Explanation

Question 66 of 103

1

91.1.1.0 (5690)
What does the term ""blind transmission"" mean?

Select one of the following:

  • A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where twoway
    communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station
    is able to receive the transmission.

  • A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the
    safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.

  • A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific
    station or stations.

  • A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.±jLœZתe

Explanation

Question 67 of 103

1

91.1.2.0 (5694)
What does the abbreviation ""HJ"" mean?

Select one of the following:

  • Sunrise to sunset.

  • No specific working hours.

  • Sunset to sunrise.

  • Continuous day and night service.

Explanation

Question 68 of 103

1

91.1.3.0 (5697)
What does QTE mean?

Select one of the following:

  • True bearing from the station.

  • True heading to the station (no wind).

  • Magnetic bearing from the station.

  • Magnetic heading to the station.

Explanation

Question 69 of 103

1

91.1.3.0 (5698)
What is the Q-code for ""true bearing from the station""?

Select one of the following:

  • QTE

  • QDR

  • QDM

  • QFE

Explanation

Question 70 of 103

1

91.1.3.0 (5699)
What does QDR mean?

Select one of the following:

  • True bearing from the station

  • Magnetic bearing from the station

  • Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)

  • True heading to the station

Explanation

Question 71 of 103

1

91.1.3.0 (5700)
What is the Q-code for ""magnetic bearing from the station""?

Select one of the following:

  • QTE

  • QDR

  • QDM

  • QFE

Explanation

Question 72 of 103

1

91.1.3.0 (5701)
If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you
refer ?

Select one of the following:

  • QNH

  • QDM

  • QBI

  • QFE

Explanation

Question 73 of 103

1

91.1.3.0 (5702)
Which Q-code is used to report altitude ?

Select one of the following:

  • QFE

  • QNH

  • QFF

  • QNJ

Explanation

Question 74 of 103

1

91.1.3.0 (5703)
What does QDM mean?

Select one of the following:

  • Magnetic bearing from the station

  • Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)

  • True bearing from the station

  • True heading to the station (no wind)

Explanation

Question 75 of 103

1

91.1.3.0 (5704)
What is the Q-code for ""magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?

Select one of the following:

  • QDR

  • QDM.

  • QTE

  • QNE

Explanation

Question 76 of 103

1

91.1.4.0 (5714)
The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service
is:

Select one of the following:

  • Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.

  • Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.

  • Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message

  • Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.

Explanation

Question 77 of 103

1

91.2.5.0 (5730)
What does the instruction ""Orbit right"" mean ?

Select one of the following:

  • Turn right to avoid other traffic

  • Make 360° turns to the right

  • Leave the runway to the right

  • Right-hand circuits are in use

Explanation

Question 78 of 103

1

91.2.5.0 (5731)
What does the instruction ""Vacate left"" mean ?

Select one of the following:

  • Turn left to leave the runway

  • Clear the runway immediately

  • Give way to aircraft from the left

  • Hold position on the left side of the runway

Explanation

Question 79 of 103

1

91.2.9.0 (5755)
On the readability scale what does ""Readability 3"" mean:

Select one of the following:

  • Readable but with difficulty

  • Loud and clear

  • No problem to understand

  • Unreadable

Explanation

Question 80 of 103

1

91.3.1.0 (5769)
When the term ""Broken"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the amount of clouds covering the sky is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1 to 4 octas

  • 5 to 7 octas

  • 8 octas below 10000 feet

  • No clouds below 5000 feet

Explanation

Question 81 of 103

1

91.3.1.0 (5771)
When the term ""CAVOK"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the values of visibility and clouds are:

Select one of the following:

  • Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GND

  • Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND

  • Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND

  • Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GND

Explanation

Question 82 of 103

1

91.3.1.0 (5772)
How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in
plain language:


Select one of the following:

  • In feet and nautical miles

  • Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres

  • Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres

  • In nautical miles only

Explanation

Question 83 of 103

1

91.4.0.0 (5778)
What is the transponder code for radio communication failure:

Select one of the following:

  • 7500

  • 7600

  • 7700

  • 6700

Explanation

Question 84 of 103

1

91.4.0.0 (5779)
An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:

Select one of the following:

  • It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome

  • It is requesting immediate level change

  • It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure

  • It is about to make a forced landing

Explanation

Question 85 of 103

1

91.4.0.0 (5786)
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ?

Select one of the following:

  • When entering bad weather areas
    c) When approaching a prohibited area

  • In case of radio communication failure

  • When flying over desert areas

  • When approaching a prohibited area

Explanation

Question 86 of 103

1

91.5.1.0 (5788)
An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:

Select one of the following:

  • 6700

  • 7500

  • 7600

  • 7700

Explanation

Question 87 of 103

1

91.5.1.0 (5789)
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ?

Select one of the following:

  • In distress

  • When following a SID

  • When flying within controlled airspace

  • When passing the transition level

Explanation

Question 88 of 103

1

91.5.1.0 (5790)
Distress is defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an
    ILS approach

  • A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and
    requiring immediate assistance

  • A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not
    require immediate assistance

  • A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring
    immediate assistance

Explanation

Question 89 of 103

1

91.5.1.0 (5791)
An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:

Select one of the following:

  • DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA

  • MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

  • PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

  • URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY

Explanation

Question 90 of 103

1

91.5.2.0 (5795)
Urgency is defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring
    immediate assistance

  • A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an
    ILS approach

  • A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on
    board, but which does not require immediate assistance

  • A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring
    immediate assistance

Explanation

Question 91 of 103

1

91.5.2.0 (5796)
An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal:

Select one of the following:

  • URGENCY,spoken three times

  • PAN PAN, spoken three times

  • MAYDAY, spoken three times

  • ALERFA, spoken three times"

Explanation

Question 92 of 103

1

92.1.2.0 (5823)
What does the abbreviation ""RVR"" mean:

Select one of the following:

  • Runway visual range

  • Radar vectors requested

  • Recleared via route...

  • Runway visibility report

Explanation

Question 93 of 103

1

92.1.3.0 (5824)
QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:

Select one of the following:

  • The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.

  • The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).

  • The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.

  • The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of
    an aerodrome.

Explanation

Question 94 of 103

1

92.3.0.0 (5887)
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is
assumed to:

Select one of the following:

  • Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace

  • Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival

  • Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any caset

  • Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome

Explanation

Question 95 of 103

1

92.3.0.0 (5889)
An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is
assumed to:

Select one of the following:

  • Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight
    rules

  • Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation
    aid serving the destination aerodrome

  • Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome

  • Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight

Explanation

Question 96 of 103

1

92.3.0.0 (5890)
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to
hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome:
a) c)d) 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged,"siteI

Select one of the following:

  • 5 minutes in any case

  • 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged

  • Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged

  • Under no circumstances

Explanation

Question 97 of 103

1

92.3.0.0 (5891)
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to
commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination
aerodrome (no EAT received):

Select one of the following:

  • 5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged

  • After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledgeds

  • At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight plan

  • Immediately after reaching in any case

Explanation

Question 98 of 103

1

92.3.0.0 (5892)
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to
land, if possible, within:

Select one of the following:

  • 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT

  • 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later

  • 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer

  • 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure

Explanation

Question 99 of 103

1

92.3.0.0 (5894)
A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight
under radar vectors has to:

Select one of the following:

  • Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight
    plan in the most direct manner

  • Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the
    route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way

  • Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and
    then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan

  • Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route
    indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way

Explanation

Question 100 of 103

1

92.4.2.0 (5901)
An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:

Select one of the following:

  • The aircraft is being hijacked

  • The aircraft is in distress

  • The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable

  • There is a sick passenger on board

Explanation

Question 101 of 103

1

92.4.3.0 (5910)
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN
PAN, PAN PAN means:

Select one of the following:

  • Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required

  • The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a
    ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required

  • An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure

  • The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for
    immediate reclearance

Explanation

Question 102 of 103

1

92.5.1.0 (5915)
What does ""Friction coefficient 45"" in a runway report mean:

Select one of the following:

  • Braking action medium

  • Braking action good

  • Braking action not measurable

  • Braking action poor

Explanation

Question 103 of 103

1

92.5.1.0 (5916)
What does ""Friction coefficient 20"" in a runway report mean:

Select one of the following:

  • Braking action poor

  • Braking action medium

  • Braking action good

  • Braking action unreliable

Explanation

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